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Sections

1. Blood banking
2. Urinalysis and other body fluids
3. Chemistry
4. Hematology
5. Immunology
6. Microbiology
7. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Blood banking

1.1) The _____________ effect is the phenomenon of stronger antigen expression with homozygous genotypes than heterozygous genotypes.

1. dosage
2. homozygous
3. position
4. prozone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) At which temperature do warm antibodies react with red blood cells?

1. 15°C
2. 21°C
3. 37°C
4. 55°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which IgG subclasses are most efficient at activating complement?

1. IgG1 and IgG3
2. IgG1 and IgG4
3. IgG1 and IgG4
4. IgG2 and IgG3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which of these antibodies is clinically insignificant?

1. Anti-Fya
2. Anti-Jka
3. Anti-P1
4. Anti-s

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Lewis antibodies are almost always which class?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which IgG subclass is most abundant?

1. IgG1
2. IgG2
3. IgG3
4. IgG4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Which antibody is only found in people with the Bombay blood group?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-F
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-I

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which maternal antibody is most commonly responsible for causing fetal neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT)?

1. Anti-A₁
2. Anti-Fy(a)
3. Anti-HPA-1a
4. Anti-Rh(D)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:

1. acetic acid
2. ethanol
3. normal saline
4. sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which of these is a plasma derivative?

1. Albumin
2. Platelets
3. Red blood cells
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) What is the purpose of the rosette test?

1. To detect fetomaternal hemorrhage in postpartum women
2. To screen for red blood cell antibodies in donated blood
3. To screen for the West Nile virus in donated blood
4. To test for blood group incompatibility before hematopoietic stem cell transplantation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which of these situations could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. Rh+ mother, Rh+ fetus
2. Rh+ mother, Rh− fetus
3. Rh− mother, Rh+ fetus
4. Rh− mother, Rh− fetus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?

1. Black
2. Gray
3. Green
4. Pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Refer to the pedigree chart below: How many of the four children would be expected to have type AB blood?

1. 0
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) A patient has hemophilia A and needs injections of factor VIII. However, the patient's body has developed inhibitors to human factor VIII. Which form of factor VIII could be given to this patient instead?

1. Activated
2. Canine
3. Porcine
4. Recombinant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) How does anti-D immunoglobulin prevent Rhesus disease?

1. By binding and neutralizing anti-D
2. By destroying fetal red blood cells in the mother's bloodstream
3. By physically blocking H1 receptors, thereby stopping anti-D from reaching its target
4. By physically blocking the antigen binding site of IgD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) After release from prison, how long must ex-convicts wait before being eligible to donate blood?

1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 12 months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) To donate blood, women need a hemoglobin level of at least:

1. 2.5 g/dL
2. 12.5 g/dL
3. 22.5g/dL
4. 32.5g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Which of these people should NOT donate blood?

1. A breastfeeding mother with a six-week-old newborn
2. Someone who had wisdom teeth removed a week ago
3. Someone who received a measles immunization two months ago
4. Someone with an aspirin allergy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) By what percentage does one unit of whole blood raise the hematocrit of a standard adult patient?

1. 3%
2. 6%
3. 9%
4. 12%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) In blood transfusions, what kind of red cells are given to patients who have a severe allergy to standard red cells?

1. Frozen
2. Irradiated
3. Synthetic
4. Washed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Which of the following parasites causes transfusion-associated infections?

1. Ancylostoma duodenale
2. Giardia lamblia
3. Plasmodium malariae
4. Taenia saginata

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Which of these treatments should be avoided for patients with warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia (WAIHA)?

1. Anti-D immunoglobulin injections
2. Blood transfusion
3. Corticosteroid administration
4. Use of IV immunoglobulins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) Which of these conditions can the direct antiglobulin test detect?

1. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Myeloma
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Which of these recipients can safely receive fresh frozen plasma from a group O, Rh-positive donor?

1. A, Rh-negative
2. AB, Rh-negative
3. AB, Rh-positive
4. O, Rh-negative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which type of transfusion carries the highest risk of transfusion-associated sepsis?

1. Fresh frozen plasma
2. Platelets
3. Washed erythrocytes
4. Whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) A patient requires an immediate transfusion but his blood type is unknown. The doctors should transfuse the patient with red blood cells from which donor?

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. O+
4. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) A patient at risk for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease needs a blood transfusion of red blood cells. The red blood cells for this patient should be:

1. centrifuged
2. frozen and deglycerolized
3. irradiated
4. saline washed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which blood type is most commonly used for intrauterine transfusions?

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. O+
4. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:

1. leukoextraction
2. leukorebation
3. leukoreduction
4. leukotransference

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) TRALI is a transfusion complication where excess fluid builds up in which part of the body?

1. Arteries
2. Brain
3. Intestines
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) An AB− patient requires a blood transfusion but no AB− is available. Blood from which of these blood types could be given to the patient instead?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. A−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Which of the following statements about platelet donors is true?

1. A platelet count is required on the first donation
2. Donors who have ingested aspirin should be deferred for 48 hours
3. The minimum interval between two platelet donations is 2 months
4. The separation of platelets from blood is called plasmapheresis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) An apheresis donation is a donation:

1. from a donor on a dialysis machine
2. performed under general anesthetic
3. taken from a leg vein instead of an arm vein
4. where the donor gives specific blood components

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) What percentage of African Americans express the U antigen on their red blood cells?

1. 1%
2. 12%
3. 92%
4. 98%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) What is the main enzyme responsible for synthesizing Lewis antigens?

1. FUT1
2. FUT2
3. FUT3
4. Glycosyltransferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) What disease is associated with anti-i?

1. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
2. Hepatitis B
3. Infectious mononucleosis
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Which phenotype is characterized by weakened expression of antigens in the Kell blood group system and the absence of Km and Kx antigens?

1. Bombay
2. Kell-null
3. Lewis
4. McLeod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) A 40-year-old woman needs two units of red blood cells. The antibody screen is positive. The results of the antibody panel are as follows: Which antibody most likely caused the positive result?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) What is the Lewis type of a person who has inherited the FUT3 gene but not the FUT2 gene?

1. Le(a+b+)
2. Le(a+b−)
3. Le(a−b+)
4. Le(a−b−)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which statement is true regarding the relationship between the U, S, and s antigens?

1. A person who expresses the U antigen cannot express the S and s antigens
2. A person who expresses the U antigen will also express the S and s antigens
3. A person who lacks the U antigen cannot express the S or s antigens
4. A person who lacks the U antigen will express the S and s antigens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) A 30-year-old woman requires an emergency blood transfusion. Her ABO group and Rh type are unknown. Which type of blood should she be given?

1. Group AB, Rh-negative
2. Group AB, Rh-positive
3. Group O, Rh-negative
4. Group O, Rh-positive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) Which genes code the MNS antigens?

1. Cysteine-rich protein 1 and cysteine-rich protein 2
2. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B
3. Lamin A/C and lamin B1
4. VASH1 and VASH2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) Which of these individuals is homozygous for the M allele?

1. M+N+S+s+
2. M+N+S–s+
3. M+N+S–s–
4. M+N–S+s+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) Whole blood is stored between:

1. −12°C and −18°C
2. −6°C and 3°C
3. 2°C and 6°C
4. 8°C and 16°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) At what temperature are frozen red blood cells stored?

1. −80°C
2. −30°C
3. –18°C
4. 6°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?

1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise four hours after donating blood
3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) What temperature is thawed plasma stored at?

1. −20°C or colder
2. −6°C to −18°C
3. 1 to 6°C
4. 20 to 24°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?

1. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
2. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
3. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) 2.2% of fetal cells are reported on a Kleihauer-Betke test. What is the estimated volume of the fetal blood in the maternal circulation?

1. 110 mL
2. 160 mL
3. 220 mL
4. 270 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) What is the smallest fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) the rosette test can detect?

1. 10 mL
2. 20 mL
3. 40 mL
4. 50 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) After the Rh system, which blood group system is the second most common cause of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

1. ABO
2. Duffy
3. Kell
4. Lutheran

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) If 1.5% of fetal cells are reported on a Kleihauer-Betke test, how many 300 µg vials of RhIG would the mother require?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) What is seen microscopically in a positive Kleihauer-Betke test?

1. Blue maternal red blood cells and pale fetal red blood cells
2. Granular maternal red blood cells and blue fetal red blood cells
3. Pale maternal red blood cells and pink fetal red blood cells
4. Pink maternal red blood cells and granular fetal red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) What volume of fetal red cells does the standard 300 mcg Rho(D) immune globulin dose cover?

1. 15 mL
2. 30 mL
3. 45 mL
4. 70 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) Which of these situations could be dangerous for a fetus?

1. Both the father and mother are Rh-positive
2. The father has blood type A and the mother has blood type B
3. The father has blood type O and the mother has blood type AB
4. The father is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) Which of these causes a false positive on the rosette test?

1. Infant is D-positive
2. Infant is weak D-positive
3. Mother is D-negative
4. Mother is D-positive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Coombs control cells are red blood cells coated with which antibody?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) Polyspecific antihuman globulin contains:

1. anti-IgG and anti-C3d
2. anti-IgG and anti-C5a
3. anti-IgM and anti-C3b
4. anti-IgM and anti-C5b

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) In the indirect antiglobulin test, what happens to the red blood cells during the incubation phase?

1. Agglutination
2. Apoptosis
3. Hemolysis
4. Sensitization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) In antibody screens, what is the best pH for the incubation phase?

1. 6.8–7.2
2. 7.2–7.5
3. 7.5–7.8
4. 7.8–8.2

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which blood type is used to make Coombs control cells?

1. AB+
2. AB−
3. O+
4. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?

1. To ensure the antibodies bind to the antigens
2. To neutralize excess AHG reagent
3. To remove hemolyzed cells
4. To remove unbound serum globulins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) What is the most serious transfusion reaction?

1. Acute immune hemolytic reaction
2. Delayed hemolytic reaction
3. Febrile reaction
4. Graft-versus-host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) What type of transfusion reaction is caused by the destruction of incompatible red blood cells?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Febrile non-hemolytic
3. Hemolytic
4. Simple allergic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) A patient returns to the hospital ten days after a blood transfusion with fever, dark urine, and mild jaundice. A complete blood count reveals the patient's hemoglobin level has dropped unexpectedly since the transfusion. What is the most likely cause?

1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
3. Graft-versus-host disease
4. Iron overload

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) Shortly after a blood transfusion is started, the patient experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Acute hemolytic
2. Delayed hemolytic
3. Febrile nonhemolytic
4. Urticarial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which transfusion reaction presents with cutaneous symptoms (itchy rash, hives, swelling of the lips) and severe respiratory symptoms?

1. Acute hemolytic
2. Anaphylactic
3. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) Initial testing shows a patient's red blood cells have a 1+ reactivity with anti-D reagent. Further testing demonstrates moderate agglutination after the addition of antihuman globulin. What is the most likely condition in this patient?

1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
3. Hereditary spherocytosis
4. Weak D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) RhAG and RhCE are proteins on which cells?

1. Eosinophils
2. Mast cells
3. Red blood cells
4. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) DCe/dCe is an example of which Rh nomenclature?

1. Fisher-Race
2. ISBT
3. Rosenfield
4. Wiener

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) Which blood type has no Rh antigens?

1. Rh-null
2. R₀R₀
3. r'r'
4. rr

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) Which two genes produce the Rh antigens?

1. DCE and DHCE
2. RH1 and RH2
3. RHA and RHAG
4. RHD and RHCE

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?

1. RhC
2. Rhc
3. RhD
4. RhE

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) What is the most common blood type in the US?

1. AB+
2. B−
3. O−
4. O+

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) Refer to the blood typing test results below.

anti-A	anti-B	anti-D	Rh type
+	O	+	DCe/dce

What is the patient's blood type?

1. A+
2. A−
3. B+
4. B−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.77) What percentage of group A individuals belong to the A₁ subgroup?

1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.78) A blood sample is tested with anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies. No clots form. What is the blood type?

1. A
2. AB
3. B
4. O

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.79) In blood typing, anti-A may be dyed what color as a quality control measure?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.80) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	+	+	+	+

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype in Fisher-Race notation?

1. DCe/DcE
2. DCe/dCE
3. DcE/DCE
4. Dce/dCE

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.81) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	+	0	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype?

1. dCe/dCe
2. dcE/dcE
3. dce/dCe
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.82) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	0	+	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype in Wiener notation?

1. r'r'
2. rr"
3. rry
4. ryry

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.83) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
0	0	0	+	+

What is the donor's Rh genotype?

1. dCe/dCe
2. dcE/dcE
3. dce/dCe
4. dce/dce

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Section 2: Urinalysis and other body fluids

2.1) What is nocturia?

1. Blood in the urine
2. Difficulty urinating
3. Excessive urination at night
4. Pain during a period

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What is the medical term for no urine production?

1. Anuria
2. Diuresis
3. Micturition
4. Voiding

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A urine sample is positive for hemoglobin and negative for glucose, leukocytes, and bacteria. The urine contains a normal level of urea. Which of these terms applies to the urine?

1. Hematuria
2. Hemoglobinuria
3. Hemosiderinuria
4. Urolithiasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Which abnormal urine condition is associated with diabetes?

1. Anuria
2. Dysuria
3. Oliguria
4. Polyuria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which part of the nephron filters blood?

1. Collecting duct
2. Distal convoluted tubule
3. Glomerulus
4. Loop of Henle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What is the functional unit of the kidney?

1. Glomerular tuft
2. Glomerulus
3. Loop of Henle
4. Nephron

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) A CSF specimen is centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube to give a supernatant. The supernatant is xanthochromic, which most likely indicates:

1. the patient had a recent brain bleed
2. the specimen has a low protein level
3. the spinal tap was traumatic
4. there are bacteria in the spinal fluid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) The presence of ten or more white blood cells in a cubic millimeter of urine is called:

1. oliguria
2. polyuria
3. pyuria
4. uraturia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) The sweat test diagnoses which disease?

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Infection
3. Muscular dystrophy
4. Pneumonia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. Creatinine clearance
2. Glucose tolerance
3. HCG detection
4. Urine cytology

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:

1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
3. phosphates and bilirubin
4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:

1. culture and susceptibility
2. mononucleosis testing
3. pregnancy testing
4. routine urinalysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. TCA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Cloudy white urine is a sign of:

1. a urinary tract infection
2. excessive consumption of vitamin B6
3. jaundice
4. liver disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Which epithelial cells in urine sediment are the largest?

1. Columnar
2. Cuboidal
3. Squamous
4. Urothelial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which cast typically indicates nephrotic syndrome?

1. Fatty
2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
3. Waxy
4. White blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Amorphous urates:

1. disappear if the urine is heated
2. form blue sediment in acidic urine
3. form white sediment in alkaline urine
4. have a non-granular appearance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) What is the term for an elevated level of white blood cells in urine?

1. Hematuria
2. Pyelonephritis
3. Pyuria
4. Uremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) If a patient has been fasting for a few days, which of the following would be found in their urine?

1. Bacteria
2. Blood
3. Glucose
4. Ketones

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Clue cells in urine are a sign of:

1. bacterial vaginosis
2. enlarged prostate
3. interstitial cystitis
4. pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) A 24-hour urine specimen has a volume of 1,500 mL and a total protein of 25 mg/dL. Calculate the urinary protein excretion in mg per 24 hours.

1. 60
2. 167
3. 375
4. 600

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is the term for yellow cerebrospinal fluid?

1. Hemorrhagic
2. Hyperglycorrhachia
3. Jaundiced
4. Xanthochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) What is the medical term for pale or light-colored stools?

1. Acholic
2. Melenic
3. Mucoid
4. Steatorrheic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) A patient's cerebrospinal fluid has a lactate value of 40 mg/dL. This indicates which type of meningitis?

1. Bacterial
2. Fungal
3. Tubercular
4. Viral

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which health condition is associated with calcium pyrophosphate crystals?

1. Cystinosis
2. Oxalosis
3. Pseudogout
4. Sarcoidosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which of these is a normal pH for a sperm sample?

1. 5.4
2. 6.2
3. 7.6
4. 8.8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?

1. 0.6–4.0
2. 2.6–6.0
3. 4.6–8.0
4. 6.6–10.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the normal range for urine specific gravity?

1. 1.003–1.035
2. 2.003–2.035
3. 3.003–3.035
4. 4.003–4.035

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which procedure is used to remove fluid from the pleural space?

1. Amniocentesis
2. Lumbar puncture
3. Paracentesis
4. Thoracentesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) A patient has the following creatinine results:

Test	Result
Urine creatinine concentration	220 mg/dL
Serum creatinine concentration	2.2 mg/dL
24-hour urine volume	1800 mL

Calculate the creatinine clearance.

1. 125 mL/min
2. 275 mL/min
3. 350 mL/min
4. 715 mL/min

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Section 3: Chemistry

3.1) Calculate the pH value of a buffer solution composed of 0.20 M acetic acid and 0.50 M acetate ion, given that the acid dissociation constant for acetic acid is 1.8 x 10⁻⁵.

1. 2.55
2. 3.48
3. 4.82
4. 5.14

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which term means the conversion of glycogen to glucose?

1. Gluconeogenesis
2. Glycogenesis
3. Glycogenolysis
4. Glycolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?

1. Calcium
2. Mercury
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) What is the term for a sodium level of 130 mEq/L?

1. Hyperkalemia
2. Hypernatremia
3. Hypokalemia
4. Hyponatremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Angiotensin II stimulates the release of which hormone?

1. Adrenaline
2. Aldosterone
3. Cortisol
4. T4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to:

1. aldosterone
2. angiotensin II
3. angiotensin III
4. renin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.

1. bilirubin
2. hemoglobin
3. potassium
4. uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B1
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B12
3. Vitamin B6
4. Vitamin C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which type of jaundice is due to liver damage?

1. Hepatocellular
2. Neonatal
3. Post-hepatic
4. Pre-hepatic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?

1. Celiac disease
2. Hashimoto's disease
3. Multiple sclerosis
4. Myasthenia gravis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) The troponin complex consists of which three subunits?

1. Troponin A, troponin C, and troponin M
2. Troponin I, troponin II, and troponin III
3. Troponin I, troponin T, and troponin C
4. Troponin X, troponin Y, and troponin Z

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which hormone promotes sodium retention?

1. Aldosterone
2. Angiotensin II
3. Anti-diuretic hormone
4. Renin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which of these hormones does the pituitary gland produce?

1. Insulin
2. Prolactin
3. T4
4. TRH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?

1. Parathyroids
2. Pituitary
3. Testes
4. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which gland produces melatonin?

1. Hypothalamus
2. Pancreas
3. Pineal
4. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?

1. Adrenaline
2. Cortisol
3. Testosterone
4. Vasopressin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re-absorption of:

1. glucose
2. oxygen
3. potassium
4. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?

1. 8 am
2. 12 pm
3. 4 pm
4. 8 pm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Thyroid-stimulating hormone is also known as:

1. thyroglobulin
2. thyrotropin
3. thyroxine
4. triiodothyronine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which process converts glucose to energy?

1. Gluconeogenesis
2. Glycogenesis
3. Glycogenolysis
4. Glycolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down:

1. fat
2. protein
3. starch
4. sugars

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which enzyme breaks down protein in the stomach?

1. Amylase
2. Lipase
3. Pepsin
4. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?

1. Glucose
2. Lactose
3. Maltose
4. Sucrose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which of these is colloquially known as bad cholesterol?

1. Fat
2. HDL
3. LDL
4. Triglyceride

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which is the main type of estrogen during pregnancy?

1. Estrone
2. Estradiol
3. Estriol
4. Estetrol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which organ conjugates bilirubin?

1. Kidneys
2. Liver
3. Pancreas
4. Spleen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which two liver enzymes are transaminases?

1. AST and ALP
2. AST and ALT
3. GGT and ALP
4. GGT and ALT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Deficiency of which mineral or vitamin causes pernicious anemia?

1. Folate
2. Iron
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin B6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?

1. Vitamins A and C
2. Vitamins B3 and B6
3. Vitamins B9 and B12
4. Vitamins C and D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Which factor contributes to severe anemia in people with chronic renal failure?

1. Blockage of the blood supply to the brain
2. Decreased renal production of erythropoietin
3. The inability of the intestines to absorb vitamin B12 and iron
4. The inability of the pancreas to produce insulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) In which thyroid disorder are both TSH and T4 elevated?

1. Primary hyperthyroidism
2. Primary hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
4. Secondary hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) A patient has nausea, vomiting and fever. The following are the results of her liver function tests:

Test	Result	Normal range
Total serum bilirubin	14.8 mg/dL	0.1–1.2 mg/dL
ALP	132 IU/L	44–147 IU/L
ALT	739 IU/L	19–25 IU/L
AST	838 IU/L	8–33 U/L
GGT	35 IU/L	5–40 IU/L

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute hepatitis
2. Cirrhosis
3. Hemochromatosis
4. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) A patient has severe abdominal pain and fever. The following are results from a liver function test:

Test	Result	Normal range
Total serum bilirubin	12.8 mg/dL	0.1–1.2 mg/dL
ALP	452 IU/L	44–147 IU/L
ALT	37 IU/L	19–25 IU/L
AST	45 IU/L	8–33 U/L
GGT	140 IU/L	5–40 IU/L

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Autoimmune hepatitis
2. Hepatitis A
3. Obstructive jaundice
4. Wilson's disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Low-carbohydrate diets may cause an increased amount of _____________ in urine.

1. blood
2. ketones
3. leukocytes
4. urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Patients with symptoms of thirst and frequent urination should receive which of the following tests?

1. Basic metabolic panel
2. Fasting blood glucose
3. Prothrombin time
4. Tissue transglutaminase IgA test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Women who have had gestational diabetes have an increased risk of developing:

1. ovarian cysts
2. shingles
3. type I diabetes
4. type II diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Cholesterol belongs to the ___________ group of lipids.

1. phospholipid
2. steroid
3. triacylglycerol
4. wax

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) The Smithline-Gardner formula calculates:

1. creatinine clearance
2. prothrombin time
3. rheumatoid factor
4. serum osmolality

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) What is the Smithline-Gardner formula?

1. (sodium×1.78) + (glucose/16) + (BUN/2.8)
2. (sodium×1.8) + (glucose/16) + (BUN/3.2)
3. (sodium×1.82) + (glucose/18) + (BUN/3.2)
4. (sodium×2) + (glucose/18) + (BUN/2.8)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) Which stain is used to stain glycogen?

1. Gram's stain
2. H&E
3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
4. Sudan IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Bromocresol purple and bromocresol green are dyes used to measure the levels of:

1. Bence Jones protein
2. albumin
3. globulins
4. immunoproteins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis pattern below. Which serum protein is the arrow pointing to?

1. Albumin
2. Alpha-1 globulin
3. Alpha-2 globulin
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) A patient has a potassium result of 7.2 mEq/L. Before reporting the result, the lab technician should:

1. check the age of the patient
2. check the serum for bacterial contamination
3. check the serum for hemolysis
4. test the serum for ketones

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Metformin
3. Sertraline
4. Warfarin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.

1. chloride
2. copper
3. lead
4. phosphatase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?

1. Blood
2. Cerebrospinal fluid
3. Feces
4. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?

1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?

1. Blood culture
2. Cardiac enzymes
3. Complete blood count
4. Glucose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?

1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
2. Centrifuge the urine sample
3. Place a coverslip over the sample
4. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) If a patient's urine is positive for ketones, the patient probably has:

1. advanced liver disease
2. heart disease
3. pernicious anemia
4. uncontrolled diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 31-year-old woman:

Parameter	Result
Color	Pale yellow
Appearance	Cloudy
Specific gravity	1.015
pH	6.0
Glucose	Negative
Protein	1+
Bacteria	Many
WBC casts	Many
WBC/HPF	30

Which disease are these results most compatible with?

1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Pyelonephritis
3. Renal calculus
4. Vaginitis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) What is the normal range for the blood urea nitrogen (BUN) test?

1. 6–20 mg/dL
2. 20–36 mg/dL
3. 36–60 mg/dL
4. 60–80 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) What is the normal range for fasting glucose?

1. 0–50 mg/dL
2. 50–70 mg/dL
3. 70–100 mg/dL
4. 100–125 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) What is the normal ratio of bicarbonate to carbonic acid in blood?

1. 20:1
2. 80:1
3. 200:1
4. 800:1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) What is the normal range for total CO₂ levels in blood?

1. 2–9 mEq/L
2. 12–19 mEq/L
3. 22–29 mEq/L
4. 32–39 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) What is the normal range for 24-hour urine volume?

1. 40–80 mL
2. 100–200 mL
3. 200–800 mL
4. 800–2,000 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) What is the normal range for AST in adult blood?

1. 1–5 units/L
2. 10–40 units/L
3. 63–90 units/L
4. 79–102 units/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) What is the normal range for ALT in adult blood?

1. 7–56 units/L
2. 35–79 units/L
3. 74–100 units/L
4. 78–107 units/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) What is a healthy level of triglycerides for an adult?

1. <150 mg/dL
2. 150 to 200 mg/dL
3. 200 to 299 mg/dL
4. 300 to 499 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) What is the optimal LDL cholesterol level in adults?

1. <100 mg/dL
2. 100 to 200 mg/dL
3. 200 to 300 mg/dL
4. 300 to 400 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) The normal value for glomerular filtration rate is _____ or above.

1. 30
2. 90
3. 150
4. 210

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine?

1. 0.930–0.955
2. 0.955–0.980
3. 0.980–1.005
4. 1.005–1.030

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) What is the role of the buffering system in the blood?

1. Controlling blood glucose levels
2. Maintaining pH balance
3. Regulating hormone levels
4. Transporting oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) Which cardiac glycoside is used to treat congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing cardiac output?

1. Digoxin
2. Furosemide
3. Minoxidil
4. Spironolactone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Which type of acidosis best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	6.91
PaCO₂	40 mmHg
Bicarbonate	16 mEq/L

1. Compensated metabolic
2. Compensated respiratory
3. Uncompensated metabolic
4. Uncompensated respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Emphysema can cause which abnormal state?

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) Oxazepam is a metabolite of which type of medication?

1. Antibiotics
2. Antihistamines
3. Benzodiazepines
4. Statins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) Which liver enzyme is used to diagnose liver and bone diseases?

1. ALP
2. ALT
3. AST
4. GGT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) uPA a marker for which cancer?

1. Bladder
2. Breast
3. Colorectal
4. Ovarian

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) Which of these tests indicates the health of the kidneys?

1. ALT
2. Bilirubin
3. Creatinine clearance
4. TSH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) A patient's serum gives the following results:

Test	Result
TSH	Normal
Calcium	High
Phosphate	Low
Parathyroid hormone	High

The patient most likely has which disorder?

1. Hyperparathyroidism
2. Hyperthyroidism
3. Hypoparathyroidism
4. Hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

1. glomerular filtration rate
2. glomerular secretion of creatinine
3. renal glomerular and tubular mass
4. tubular secretion of creatinine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) Elevation of which isoenzyme is typical of muscle disease?

1. ALT
2. CK-BB
3. CK-MB
4. CK-MM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) The following blood results are from a 55-year-old male suffering from headaches and fatigue:

Test	Result
Glucose	81 mg/dL
HDL cholesterol	75 mg/dL
LDL cholesterol	80 mg/dL
Sodium	105 mEq/L
Creatinine	0.9 mg/dL

The blood test results suggest which disease?

1. Hypercholesterolemia
2. Hyponatremia
3. Kidney disease
4. Type II diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) In the glucose oxidase reaction, glucose oxidase reacts with glucose, water, and oxygen to form:

1. gluconic acid and hydrogen peroxide
2. gluconic acid nitric acid
3. glycogen and carbonic acid
4. glycogen and sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?

1. Gout
2. Kidney disease
3. Liver disease
4. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) Estrogen and progesterone receptor testing are used to assess the prognosis and guide the treatment of:

1. breast cancer
2. endometriosis
3. hepatoma
4. ovarian cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) Which organ does the bile acid test assess?

1. Bladder
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) Calculate the anion gap from the following results:

Test	Result
Sodium	150 mEq/L
Chloride	90 mEq/L
Bicarbonate	20 mEq/L

1. 40 mEq/L
2. 80 mEq/L
3. 220 mEq/L
4. 260 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) The anion gap is used to identify errors in the measurement of:

1. electrolytes
2. red blood cells
3. urea
4. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) Use the results below to calculate the osmolal gap.

Test	Result
Sodium	140 mEq/L
Glucose	90 mg/dL
BUN	28 mg/dL
Measured osmolality	301 mOsm/kg

1. 1 mOsm/kg
2. 3 mOsm/kg
3. 6 mOsm/kg
4. 9 mOsm/kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) What does headspace gas chromatography analyze?

1. Hydrogen
2. Noble gases
3. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
4. Volatile organic compounds

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) Glomerular filtration rate measures the health of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Gallbladder
3. Kidneys
4. Liver

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) In the second trimester of pregnancy, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels ________ and estrogen levels ________.

1. decrease, decrease
2. decrease, increase
3. increase, decrease
4. increase, increase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) Blood ammonia levels are usually measured to evaluate the health of which organ?

1. Digestive tract
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) The Friedewald equation estimates the level of:

1. LDL cholesterol
2. lipoproteins
3. total cholesterol
4. triglycerides

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) Which condition is most consistent with the results below?

Test	Result
Osmolality	290 mOsm/kg
Sodium	125 mEq/L
Total cholesterol	1,381 mg/dL

1. Cushing's syndrome
2. Hyperaldosteronism
3. Hypothyroidism
4. Pseudohyponatremia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.89) A patient has the following lipid panel results:

Test	Result
Total cholesterol	160 mg/dL
LDL	100 mg/dL
VLDL	20 mg/dL
HDL	40 mg/dL
Triglycerides	150 mg/dL

Calculate the cholesterol ratio.

1. 0.25
2. 4
3. 50
4. 150

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.90) If a blood sample has high levels of urea, it is also likely to have high levels of:

1. albumin
2. catalase
3. creatinine
4. fibrinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.91) The parathyroid hormone test investigates abnormal levels of which mineral?

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.92) Which tests are elevated in acute pancreatitis?

1. ALP and GGT
2. AST and LDH
3. Amylase and lipase
4. Pepsin and enterokinase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.93) Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?

1. Niacin
2. Thiamine
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.94) What type of vitamins are thiamin, riboflavin, and niacin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.95) A woman has symptoms of weakness and fatigue. The results of a serum electrolyte test are as follows:

Electrolyte	Result
Sodium	140 mEq/L
Potassium	4.3 mEq/L
Chloride	65 mEq/L
Magnesium	2.0 mg/dL
Phosphate	3.9 mg/dL

Which of the results is abnormal?

1. Sodium
2. Potassium
3. Chloride
4. Magnesium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.96) Vitamin C is essential for the synthesis of:

1. cholesterol
2. collagen
3. hemoglobin
4. insulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.97) Retinol, retinal, and retinoic acid are the three active forms of which vitamin?

1. A
2. B12
3. B6
4. C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.98) Rickets is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin C
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.99) Vitamin K:

1. converts prothrombin to thrombin
2. destroys fibrin which allows a clot to dissolve gradually
3. is essential for the liver's production of prothrombin
4. is water soluble

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.100) Beta-carotene is a precursor to which vitamin?

1. A
2. B6
3. B12
4. K

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Section 4: Hematology

4.1) Which type of immunoglobulin is the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is most commonly seen in:

1. children
2. elderly people
3. newborns
4. pregnant women

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) What word means the production of lymphocytes?

1. Lymphadenitis
2. Lymphedema
3. Lymphocytopenia
4. Lymphopoiesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which term means a condition where red blood cells are of different sizes?

1. Anisocytosis
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Heterocytosis
4. Pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) In which disorder, commonly known as iron overload, does the body store too much iron?

1. Hemochromatosis
2. Polycythemia vera
3. Thalassemia
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Factor I is also known as:

1. fibrinogen
2. proaccelerin
3. prothrombin
4. tissue thromboplastin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) In which disease does overactive clotting lead to uncontrolled bleeding?

1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
2. Hemophilia
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Von Willebrand Disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which leukemia best correlates with these results?

Test	Result
WBC	2.3 x 10⁹/L
RBC	3.2 x 10¹²/L
Platelets	35 x 10⁹
Blasts in bone marrow:	41%

1. Acute lymphoblastic
2. Acute monoblastic
3. Chronic myelogenous
4. Chronic myelomonocytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Blood tests reveal high levels of lymphoblasts and low levels of red blood cells and platelets. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) A patient is positive for the Philadelphia chromosome and negative for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Auer rods are characteristically found in which leukemia?

1. Acute lymphocytic
2. Acute myeloid
3. Chronic lymphocytic
4. Chronic myeloid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which marker helps distinguish acute lymphocytic leukemia from malignant lymphoma?

1. Acid phosphatase
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin
3. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows:

Score	Neutrophils
0	95
+1	3
+2	2
+3	0
+4	0

Which condition best explains the result?

1. Chronic myeloid leukemia
2. Leukemoid reaction
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Blood tests reveal high levels of lymphocytes. Under a microscope, the lymphocytes look small and abnormal. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Which type of acute myeloid leukemia is characterized by minimal maturation of myeloid cells?

1. FAB M1
2. FAB M2
3. FAB M3
4. FAB M4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Which of these patients has anemia?

	HCT	RBC (x10¹²/L)	Hemoglobin (g/dL)
Patient 1	50%	4.6	14.1
Patient 2	41%	6.2	16.8
Patient 3	38%	4.8	10.6
Patient 4	42%	7.2	13.5

1. Patient 1
2. Patient 2
3. Patient 3
4. Patient 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) Which type of anemia best correlates with the following test results?

Test	Result
Hemoglobin	5.7 g/dL
Hematocrit	25%
Ferritin	736 ng/mL
Iron	314 mcg/dL
Transferrin	813 mg/dL
Transferrin saturation	75%

1. Anemia of chronic diseases
2. Hemolytic anemia
3. Iron-deficiency anemia
4. Sideroblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) What abnormal form of hemoglobin causes sickle cell anemia?

1. HbA
2. HbA2
3. HbF
4. HbS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Which anemia best fits these results?

Test	Result
Hemoglobin	7.9 g/dL
Neutrophil count	452/mm³
Platelet count	23,100/mm³

1. Aplastic anemia
2. Folic acid deficiency
3. Hemolytic anemia
4. Pernicious anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Which of these anemias is hypochromic and microcytic?

1. Hemolytic
2. Megaloblastic
3. Sickle cell
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) Vitamin B9 and B12 deficiencies cause the body to produce which type of abnormal red blood cells?

1. Megaloblasts
2. Sickle cells
3. Spherocytes
4. Stomatocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) What is the most common type of anemia?

1. Aplastic
2. Induced related
3. Iron deficiency
4. Sickle cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:

1. bone marrow findings
2. mean cell volume
3. presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor
4. presence of hypersegmented neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Along with the mean cell volume, which other test is used to morphologically classify anemias?

1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin
3. Red blood count
4. Red cell blood distribution width

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) Which of these results best correlates with sickle cell anemia?

1. Hgb 10.0 g/dL, Hct 10%, WBC 8.0×10⁹/L
2. Hgb 11.0 g/dL, Hct 31%, WBC 11.0×10⁹/L
3. Hgb 5.0 g/dL, Hct 17%, WBC 13.0×10⁹/L
4. Hgb 8.0 g/dL, Hct 42%, WBC 10.0×10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which of these hematocrit values correlates with untreated pernicious anemia?

1. 29%
2. 43%
3. 64%
4. 81%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) What is the most severe type of thalassemia?

1. Alpha thalassemia major
2. Alpha thalassemia minor
3. Beta thalassemia major
4. Beta thalassemia minor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) Which of these conditions causes high iron levels and a decreased total iron binding capacity (TIBC)?

1. Anemia of chronic disease
2. Hemochromatosis
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) New methylene blue reagent is used to stain:

1. Heinz bodies
2. eosinophils
3. platelets
4. reticulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) When a smear is too red, neutrophil granules look:

1. blue-red
2. brilliant red
3. indistinct
4. light blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Identify the false statement about the preparation of reticulocyte smears.

1. Reticulocyte smears are used to determine the number of white blood cells in a sample
2. The dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
3. The stain and the cells must be left to react for 15 minutes before making the smear
4. The staining technique is called supravital staining

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) What color is lipemic plasma?

1. Brownish-yellow
2. Clear red
3. Milky
4. Straw-colored

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) What does the blood differential test measure?

1. The number of all cells
2. The number of red blood cells
3. The percentage of each type of white blood cell
4. The volume percentage of red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) Which test counts the number of immature red blood cells in a blood sample?

1. Differential
2. Osmotic fragility test
3. Red blood cell count
4. Reticulocyte count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) Which of these is needed to prepare defibrinated blood?

1. Filter paper
2. Glass beads
3. UV light
4. Vacuum pump

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Which cytochemical stain is used to diagnose hairy cell leukemia?

1. Chloroacetate esterase
2. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
3. Myeloperoxidase
4. Tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Calculate the corrected reticulocyte percentage from the following results.

Test	Result
RBC (cells/L)	4.7×10¹²
WBC (cells/L)	4.5×10⁹
PLT (cells/L)	310×10⁹
Hct	30% (normal Hct = 45%)
Reticulocyte count	1.5%

1. 0.5%
2. 1%
3. 1.5%
4. 2%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Capillary blood composition most closely resembles:

1. arterial blood
2. lymph fluid
3. tissue fluid
4. venous blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) The hemoglobin solubility test is a screening test for which disease?

1. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2. Polycythemia vera
3. Secondary myelofibrosis
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

1. Aggregates of beta-globin chains
2. Basophilic iron deposits
3. Clumps of denatured hemoglobin
4. Remnants of DNA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Hematology analyzers use which principle for counting red blood cells?

1. Campbell
2. Coulter
3. Stewart
4. Thompson

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?

1. How long blood takes to form a clot
2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
4. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) Which of these is a plasma protein involved in coagulation?

1. Albumin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Gamma globulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:

1. a fasting specimen is used
2. the ESR tubes are vertical
3. the sample is completely thawed
4. the water bath is exactly 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) What is the hematocrit?

1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
2. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
3. The time it takes for blood to clot
4. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) Calculate the corrected WBC count from the following results.

Test	Result
Uncorrected WBC count	30,000/uL
Nucleated RBC/100 WBC	100

1. 500/uL
2. 10,000/uL
3. 15,000/uL
4. 18,000/uL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. ESR
3. Hct
4. Hgb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) The icterus index is a measure of which color of serum?

1. Green
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) Which anticoagulant works by inactivating thrombin?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium citrate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) Why is ammonium oxalate added to blood samples before platelet counts?

1. To force the blood to clot
2. To lyse the red blood cells
3. To prevent hemodilution
4. To stain the platelets blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) Which platelet function test measures the time it takes for platelets to form a clot and plug a hole in a tube?

1. Closure time
2. Lumiaggregometry
3. Platelet aggregometry
4. Viscoelastometry

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) What is the preferred source of DNA for DNA testing?

1. Plasma proteins
2. Platelets
3. Red blood cells
4. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) What is the term for the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to high bilirubin levels?

1. Hemolysis
2. Icterus
3. Intergeneric
4. Lipemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Which of these diseases causes a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate?

1. Bone marrow disease
2. Carcinoma
3. Leukemia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) The presence of schistocytes in the peripheral blood indicates which of the following processes?

1. Extravascular hemolysis
2. Intravascular hemolysis
3. Iron deficiency anemia
4. Megaloblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) Which of these is higher in capillary blood than in venous blood?

1. Calcium
2. Carotene
3. Glucose
4. Total protein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows:

Score	Neutrophils
0	40
+1	40
+2	15
+3	5
+4	0

Calculate the LAP score.

1. 25
2. 45
3. 65
4. 85

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows:

Score	Neutrophils
0	10
+1	40
+2	30
+3	10
+4	10

Which condition most likely explains the result?

1. Chronic myeloid leukemia
2. Leukemoid reaction
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?

1. A small drop size
2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
3. Spreading the blood too slowly
4. Using transfused blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) Which of these is a sign of a poorly prepared blood smear?

1. Covers the majority of the slide
2. Fills half to three-quarters the length of the slide
3. Has a consistent thickness throughout
4. Has feathered edges

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) Bone marrow cells that contain the Philadelphia chromosome are most often found in which type of leukemia?

1. Acute lymphocytic
2. Acute myelogenous
3. Chronic lymphocytic
4. Chronic myelogenous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) What is the term for a platelet count of 120 × 10⁹/L?

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Thrombocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) In serum protein electrophoresis, which globulin is closest to the negative electrode?

1. Alpha-1
2. Alpha-2
3. Beta-1
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.65) A microscopic analysis of a patient's blood sample reveals neutrophils with six-lobed nuclei. Which illness does this indicate?

1. Acute myelogenous leukemia
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Hemochromatosis
4. Megaloblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.66) A man has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	5.4 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	6.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	660 × 10⁹/L

Which term applies to these results?

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Thrombocytopenia
4. Thrombocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.67) What is the term for a red cell count of 3.6 × 10¹²/L in men?

1. Anemia
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.68) Which of the following clinical signs is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

1. Abnormal aggregation with ADP
2. Increased platelet count
3. Large platelets
4. Shortened bleeding time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.69) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?

1. Leukocytosis
2. Leukodystrophy
3. Leukopenia
4. Leukorrhea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.70) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:

1. ESR
2. FBS
3. Hgb
4. PT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.71) A prolonged PT and a prolonged PTT suggest a defect in which coagulation pathway?

1. Common
2. Extrinsic
3. Fibrinolytic
4. Intrinsic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.72) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?

1. Coagulated
2. Decalcified
3. Defibrinated
4. Frozen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.73) The result of a patient's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is >300 seconds. What is the most likely cause?

1. The patient had a high-fat meal before the blood draw
2. The patient has a vitamin K deficiency
3. The sample was contaminated with heparin
4. The sample was shaken vigorously

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.74) Which red blood cell morphology is associated with folate (B9) deficiency?

1. Macrocytic normochromic
2. Microcytic hyperchromic
3. Normocytic hyperchromic
4. Normocytic hypochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.75) What two parameters are needed to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

1. HCT and Hgb
2. RBC and HCT
3. RBC and Hgb
4. RBC and WBC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.76) Which red blood cell index is the average amount of hemoglobin in a single red blood cell?

1. MCH
2. MCV
3. RBC
4. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.77) What is the formula for calculating mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?

1. (HGB / Hct) × 10
2. (HGB / RBC) × 10
3. (Hct / RBC) × 10
4. RBC/10 × MCV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.78) A patient has the following hematology results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.68×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin	133 g/L
Hematocrit	0.451

Calculate the patient's mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH).

1. 0.035 pg
2. 10.4 pg
3. 28.4 pg
4. 59.85 pg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.79) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?

1. 10x
2. 40x
3. 50x
4. 70x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.80) What color do red blood cells appear when stained with a Romanowsky stain?

1. Green
2. Purple
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.81) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
RBC	2.8 × 10¹²/L
WBC	13.1 × 10⁹/L
Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation	Positive

Which condition best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
3. Polycythemia vera
4. Primary myelofibrosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.82) A patient has symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and difficulty breathing. Blood tests reveal high iron, high ferritin, and a normal total iron binding capacity (TIBC). A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic and have basophilic stippling. Pappenheimer bodies are also observed inside the red blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute intermittent porphyria
2. Porphyria cutanea tarda
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. Sideroblastic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.83) A patient has a decreased factor VIII assay, a normal factor IX assay, and a prolonged aPTT. Which condition does the patient have?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Hemophilia A
4. Hemophilia B

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.84) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?

1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.85) Which of these is a normal RBC result for men?

1. 5.6 × 10⁶ cells/μL
2. 6.9 × 10⁶ cells/μL
3. 7.5 × 10⁶ cells/μL
4. 8.3 × 10⁶ cells/μL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.86) Which of these red blood cell counts is normal?

1. 2.2 × 10¹²/L
2. 4.9 × 10¹²/L
3. 8.9 × 10¹²/L
4. 10.3 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.87) What is the reference range for serum albumin?

1. 35–55 g/L
2. 45–65 g/L
3. 65–80 g/L
4. 80–95 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.88) What is the normal adult range for leukocyte count?

1. 0.5–7.0 × 10⁹/L
2. 2.5–9.0 × 10⁹/L
3. 4.5–11.0 × 10⁹/L
4. 6.5–13.0 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.89) When evaluating a blood smear under a microscope, a lab technician sees a white blood cell with no cytoplasmic granules. This white blood cell is most likely a:

1. eosinophil
2. lymphocyte
3. monocyte
4. neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.90) Which plasma protein helps maintain blood volume by pulling tissue fluid into capillaries?

1. Albumin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Gamma globulin
4. Prothrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.91) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?

1. Renin
2. Secretin
3. Serotonin
4. Thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.92) What is the main type of hemoglobin in fetuses and newborn babies?

1. Hemoglobin A
2. Hemoglobin A2
3. Hemoglobin F
4. Hemoglobin S

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.93) What is the major form of hemoglobin in adults?

1. Hemoglobin A
2. Hemoglobin F
3. Hemoglobin H
4. Hemoglobin S

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.94) Blood clots are made of platelets and:

1. fibrin
2. fibrinogen
3. prothrombin activator
4. thrombin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.95) Plasma makes up around _____ of the total blood.

1. 55%
2. 65%
3. 75%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.96) Which hemoglobin variant is a tetramer of β chains and causes a form of alpha-thalassemia?

1. Hb Barts
2. HbA2c
3. HbAS
4. HbH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.97) Which hemoglobin variant is due to a variation in the β-globin gene, occurs mostly in people with African or Black American ancestry, and causes mild chronic hemolytic anemia?

1. HbC
2. HbE
3. HbF
4. HbA

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Section 5: Immunology

5.1) Which of these diseases is a viral infection of the liver?

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis B
3. Syphilis
4. Tuberculosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What is the most common type of lupus?

1. Drug-induced lupus
2. Lupus dermatitis
3. Neonatal lupus
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most common in:

1. baby boys
2. baby girls
3. men
4. women

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which process involves coating pathogens with antibodies to increase their susceptibility to phagocytosis?

1. Agglutination
2. Antiperistalsis
3. Chemotaxis
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Complement can be activated through three pathways: classical, lectin, and:

1. alternative
2. contemporary
3. modern
4. tertiary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which of these vaccines would most likely evoke the best and most long-lasting protective immune response?

1. Attenuated
2. DNA
3. Extract
4. Killed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Which type of hypersensitivity is associated with allergies?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Which of these laboratory results is consistent with systemic lupus erythematosus?

1. Platelet count: 700 × 10⁹/L
2. Red blood cell count: 7.5 × 10¹²/L
3. Serum creatinine: 1.9 mg/dL
4. White blood cell count: 625 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Which of these is NOT a test used to diagnose systemic lupus erythematosus?

1. Antinuclear antibody test
2. Complete blood count
3. Skin test
4. Urinalysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Which term means the total binding strength between an antibody with an antigen?

1. Affinity
2. Agility
3. Apogamy
4. Avidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) What is the term for the part of an antibody that recognizes an antigen?

1. Antitope
2. Epitope
3. Paratope
4. Syntope

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) Which type of bond joins light chains and heavy chains of antibodies together?

1. Allene
2. Disulfide
3. Hydrogen
4. Ionic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) How many antigen-binding sites do monomer antibodies have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Which class of antibody has γ chains?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?

1. IgD
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Which antibody class is a pentamer?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) What is the main antibody in breast milk?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) Which antibody causes asthma?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Which white blood cell is most likely to be elevated in acute appendicitis?

1. Eosinophils
2. Lymphocytes
3. Monocytes
4. Neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) A patient has symptoms of tiredness, joint pain, and headaches. The patient's percent of CD4+ cells is 6% of total leukocytes. The CD4+ cell count is 167 cells/µL of blood. These results are consistent with:

1. AIDS
2. Advanced HIV disease
3. Antiphospholipid syndrome
4. Immunodeficiency with hyper-IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Which white blood cell secretes antibodies?

1. Monocyte
2. Neutrophil
3. Plasma cell
4. T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) Dendritic cells, macrophages, and which other cells present antigens to T helper cells?

1. B cells
2. Basophils
3. Eosinophils
4. Mast cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) Which lymphocyte stimulates activity in antigen encounters?

1. Helper T cell
2. Killer T cell
3. Memory cell
4. Suppressor T cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which of these cells is a granulocyte?

1. Dendritic cell
2. Macrophage
3. Natural killer cell
4. Neutrophil

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which of these white blood cells has HLA class II molecules?

1. B cells
2. Eosinophils
3. Naive T cells
4. Neutrophils

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Carcinoembryonic antigen is a protein primarily associated with:

1. cancer
2. heart disease
3. liver failure
4. pregnancy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in acute interstitial nephritis (AIN)?

1. Type I
2. Type II
3. Type III
4. Type IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) Calculate the absolute lymphocyte count from the following data.

Test	Result
% lymphocytes	30%
WBC	2.5 × 10⁹ cells/L

1. 0.75 cells/µL
2. 1.25 cells/µL
3. 750 cells/µL
4. 1,250 cells/µL

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Section 6: Microbiology

6.1) Which of these could cause stain precipitation?

1. Excessive buffer
2. Excessive humidity in the air
3. Insufficient staining time
4. Use of aged staining solutions

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain identify?

1. Acid-fast
2. Facultative anaerobic
3. Gram-negative
4. Spore-forming

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains?

1. Hematoxylin and eosin
2. Methenamine silver and mucicarmine
3. Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur
4. Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Giemsa's solution is a mixture of:

1. eosin, methylene blue, and azure B
2. eosin, safranin, and hematoxylin
3. phloxine, methylene blue, and hematoxylin
4. safranin, azure B, and hematoxylin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) In regressive staining, tissue sections are ___________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached.

1. dehydrated
2. hydrated
3. overstained
4. sectioned

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Masson's trichrome staining stains muscle fibers which color?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Pink
4. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) What is the decolorizing agent in the Ziehl Neelsen stain?

1. Absolute alcohol
2. Acetone
3. Acid alcohol
4. Xylol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria?

1. Acetone
2. Ethanol
3. Iodine
4. Safranin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) What term describes microorganisms that do not produce disease?

1. Apathogens
2. Aseptic organisms
3. Nonpathogens
4. Normal flora

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) Which of these tests is used to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?

1. Catalase test
2. Coagulase test
3. Oxidase test
4. Urase test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) The Elek test tests for toxigenicity of which strain of bacteria?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Clostridium botulinum
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) The Widal test is used to diagnose which bacteria?

1. E. coli
2. Proteus
3. Salmonella
4. Shigela

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) Which Plasmodium species has a distinctive band-like or sash-like structure in the trophozoite stage?

1. Falciparum
2. Malariae
3. Ovale
4. Vivax

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?

1. ABO typing
2. Indirect antiglobulin test
3. Mononucleosis test
4. Rh and antibody screen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A sample for the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) test is best collected using a:

1. cough plate
2. expectorated sputum
3. nasal aspirate
4. throat swab

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) What color does the methylene blue strip turn when an anaerobic environment has been achieved in an anaerobic jar?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. White

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should:

1. be off antibiotics for several days before collection
2. come to the lab first thing in the morning
3. fast for 12 to 14 hours
4. have all x-rays done before collection

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?

1. To maximize spore formation
2. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
3. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
4. To stop the specimen from escaping

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) How many Risk Groups are microorganisms classified into?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) The oxidase test detects which enzyme?

1. Cytochrome oxidase
2. Heme oxygenase
3. NADPH oxidase
4. Tryptophan 2,3 dioxygenase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) Which fluorescent stain binds strongly to adenine–thymine-rich regions in DNA?

1. Alexa Fluor
2. DAPI
3. GFP
4. Rhodamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) The VDRL test detects which bacterial infection?

1. Candida
2. Pneumonia
3. Salmonella
4. Syphilis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) What is the purpose of susceptibility testing?

1. To determine if a patient has an allergy to a drug
2. To determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
3. To identify which antibiotic will kill a pathogen
4. To identify which organism is in a specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing:

1. HIV
2. Hepatitis A
3. Rubella virus
4. tuberculosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of these tests differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species?

1. Catalase
2. Coagulase
3. Oxidase
4. Urase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) Which test detects antibodies to the Epstein-Barr virus?

1. C-reactive protein test
2. Influenza test
3. Monospot test
4. Rapid Group A Streptococcus test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) A urine culture was plated with a 0.001 mL loop. To report the colony count in colonies per mL, the number of colonies on the plate must be multiplied by:

1. 100
2. 200
3. 1,000
4. 2,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which fluorescent dye glows green under blue light?

1. Alexa Fluor
2. DAPI
3. GFP
4. Rhodamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Given the results below, what is the minimum inhibitory concentration of the organism?

Volume of microbial-rich broth (mL)	200	200	200	200	200	200	200
Amount of antimicrobial agent (mg)	0	1	2	3	4	5	6
Result	turbid	turbid	turbid	turbid	clear	clear	clear

1. 3.33 mg/L
2. 5 mg/L
3. 20 mg/L
4. 80 mg/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) assay is performed on an organism. Given the results below, what is the minimum inhibitory concentration of the organism?

Antibiotic concentration (μg/mL)	64	32	16	8	4	2	0
Result	clear	clear	clear	turbid	turbid	turbid	turbid

1. 2 μg/mL
2. 4 μg/mL
3. 8 μg/mL
4. 16 μg/mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) A bacteria that can metabolize peptones both aerobically and anaerobically but cannot ferment glucose, sucrose, or lactose would give what result on the Triple Sugar Iron test?

1. A/K
2. K/A
3. K/K
4. K/NC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) A lab technician observes mucoid colonies growing on a blood agar plate. This finding tells you that the organism:

1. has a capsule
2. has a permeable plasma membrane
3. produces acetic acid
4. produces beta-galactosidase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Which of these bacteria lacks a cell wall?

1. Archaebacteria
2. Eubacteria
3. Mycobacteria
4. Mycoplasma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Which of these bacteria is oxidase-positive?

1. Acinetobacter
2. Klebsiella
3. Neisseria
4. Proteus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) Which parasite is passed in the feces as a noninfective rhabditiform larva?

1. Dipylidium caninum
2. Hymenolepis nana
3. Schistosoma mansoni
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Staphylococcus aureus grows best in which type of environment?

1. Aerobic
2. Anaerobic
3. Highly alkaline
4. Microaerobic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) Which animal is the definitive host of T. gondii?

1. Cat
2. Deer
3. Dog
4. Pig

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) What is the term for an organism that grows best at high salt concentrations?

1. Capnophile
2. Halophile
3. Osmophile
4. Xerophile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Polioviruses, echoviruses, and coxsackieviruses are all:

1. DNA viruses
2. double-stranded RNA viruses
3. enteroviruses
4. enveloped viruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) What is the term for round bacteria that grow in clusters?

1. Bacillococci
2. Diplococci
3. Staphylococci
4. Streptococci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) Toxoplasma gondii is a:

1. bacteria
2. mold
3. protozoa
4. virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) The cell wall of bacteria is made predominantly of which substance?

1. Cellulose
2. Chitin
3. Peptidoglycan
4. Starch

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) Which of the following incubation conditions is used to grow Streptococcus pneumoniae?

1. At 35–37°C, over 3 days in chocolate agar or MacConkey agar, with 20% H₂
2. At 35–37°C, overnight in media containing blood and sugar, with 5−10% CO₂
3. At 42°C, over 2 days in media containing electrolytes and peptone water, and under microaerophilic conditions
4. At 42°C, over 3 days in Luria Bertani agar, and under anaerobic conditions

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Which agar is used to isolate gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus species and Streptococcus species?

1. Chocolate
2. MacConkey
3. Phenylethyl alcohol
4. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) What organisms grow on MacConkey agar?

1. Acid-fast
2. Gram-negative
3. Gram-positive
4. Non-acid fast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) Colistin-nalidixic acid agar selects for which type of bacteria?

1. Bacteria that ferment lactose and sucrose
2. Gram-negative
3. Gram-positive
4. Lac operon mutants

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) What does modified Thayer-Martin agar contain that Thayer-Martin agar does not?

1. Peptone water
2. Potassium dihydrogen phosphate
3. Trimethoprim lactate
4. Vancomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) What is reducing media used for in microbiology?

1. Cultivating organisms that only grow in blood
2. Growing anaerobic bacteria
3. Isolating fungi and yeasts
4. Testing pathogens for antibiotic susceptibility

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) Where should agar plates be stored before use?

1. In a cupboard
2. In a dry oven
3. In the freezer
4. In the fridge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) Bacteria are grown on a blood agar plate. The lab technician observes greenish-gray discoloration around each bacterial colony. Which type of hemolysis is this?

1. Alpha
2. Alpha-prime
3. Beta
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) What is the goal of streaking an agar plate?

1. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium
2. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose and/or lactose
3. To determine the number of organisms in the sample
4. To produce isolated colonies for further study

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) What type of broth is used to differentiate between aerobes and anaerobes?

1. Glucose
2. Selenite F
3. Thioglycolate
4. Tryptic soy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) Which of these types of agar is used to isolate and differentiate species of Salmonella and Shigella?

1. Hektoen enteric
2. Chocolate
3. CLED
4. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) CLED agar is used to isolate bacteria from which type of specimen?

1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Urine
4. Vaginal swab

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) What is the sequence of steps for Gram staining?

1. Primary stain, decolorizing, counterstain, mordant
2. Primary stain, decolorizing, mordant, counterstain
3. Primary stain, mordant, counterstain, decolorizing
4. Primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) In Gram staining, what will happen if the decolorizer is not left on long enough?

1. All organisms will appear colorless
2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
4. No cells will appear on the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) After Gram staining, what color are gram-negative organisms?

1. Dark blue
2. Light blue
3. Purple or brown
4. Red or pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) What is the Gram stain appearance of Clostridium perfringens?

1. Gram-negative coccus
2. Gram-negative rod
3. Gram-positive coccus
4. Gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) What color are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?

1. Orange
2. Purple
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) What is the Gram stain appearance of Streptococcus pneumoniae?

1. Gram-negative helical rod
2. Gram-negative ovoid-shaped coccus
3. Gram-positive crescent-shaped rod
4. Gram-positive lancet-shaped coccus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) What is the Gram stain appearance of E. coli?

1. Gram-negative coccus
2. Gram-negative rod
3. Gram-positive rod
4. Gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?

1. Gram-negative bacillus
2. Gram-negative cocci
3. Gram-positive bacillus
4. Gram-positive cocci

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) Which acid-fast staining method is known as the hot method?

1. Auramine-Rhodamine
2. Fluorochrome
3. Kinyoun
4. Ziehl-Neelsen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) What is the term for bacterial cells used to start a new culture on a streak plate?

1. Colonies
2. Inoculum
3. Prime culture
4. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) Which of these organisms is a strict anaerobe?

1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Escherichia coli
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
4. Nocardia brasiliensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.66) A man cuts his hand while doing yard work. The wound becomes infected. A Gram stain reveals the wound contains gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. Which media can be used to selectively isolate each organism?

1. Columbia-CNA and Chocolate
2. KV-laked agar and Thayer-Martin
3. PEA and MacConkey
4. Sheep blood and Chocolate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.67) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	Colorless colonies
Cetrimide agar	Green colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.68) Which parasite is 2 mm long, slender, and cylindrical?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.69) Based on the following test results, what is the most likely organism? Microscope: Cocci growing in clusters Gram stain: Gram-positive Catalase: Positive

1. Bacillus
2. Clostridia
3. Staphylococcus
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.70) An HIV-positive patient has symptoms of meningitis. An encapsulated budding yeast is found in a sample of the patient's spinal fluid. Which organism is this most likely to be?

1. Candida albicans
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Malassezia furfur
4. Paracoccidioides brasiliensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.71) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	Pink colonies
Eosin methylene blue agar	Metallic green colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Salmonella enterica
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.72) Which parasite is pear-shaped, 10–20 micrometers long, and has one or two transverse, claw-shaped median bodies?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.73) Which parasite is a small white worm with a pointed tail that resembles a pin?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Strongyloides stercoralis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.74) Which parasite is pear-shaped, is 7–30 µm long, and has five flagella?

1. Dientamoeba fragilis
2. Enterobius vermicularis
3. Schistosoma hematobium
4. Trichomonas vaginalis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.75) Which bacteria correlates with the results below?

Agar	Result
Blood agar	Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar	No growth
Mannitol salt agar	Yellow colonies

1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.76) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?

1. E. coli
2. Proteus
3. Pseudomonas
4. Salmonella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.77) Which of these bacteria is gram-positive and forms spores?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Candida albicans
3. Corynebacterium diphtheria
4. Escherichia coli

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.78) What virus causes hepatitis C?

1. HAV
2. HBC
3. HCV
4. HPC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.79) Which Streptococcus species causes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?

1. S. aureus
2. S. epidermidis
3. S. pneumonia
4. S. pyogenes

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Section 7: Laboratory operations

7.1) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 72 mg/dL. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?

1. 12 mg/dL
2. 72 mg/dL
3. 432 mg/dL
4. 720 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?

1. 4.8
2. 5.2
3. 25
4. 26

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) A molar solution is:

1. 1 mL of solute in one mole of solution
2. one gram of solute in 1 mL of solution
3. one gram of solute in one mole of solution
4. one mole of solute in 1 liter of solution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) A dilution ratio of 1:15 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 15 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 16 parts diluent
3. 15 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 16 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) If a dilution ratio of 7:10 is used to make an acetic acid solution and the final volume of the solution is 950 mL, what is the volume of the solute?

1. 58 mL
2. 101 mL
3. 391 mL
4. 559 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) What is one part chemical to five parts water expressed as a dilution factor?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio?

1. 1:4
2. 1:5
3. 1:6
4. 5:1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 1 liter of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in mol/cm³?

1. 0.0005
2. 0.02
3. 2
4. 200

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Given a solute volume of 20 mL and a dilution factor of 3, calculate the volume of solvent needed.

1. 40 mL
2. 60 mL
3. 120 mL
4. 160 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) 100 mL of 20% hydrochloric acid can make how many mL of 4% hydrochloric acid?

1. 50 mL
2. 80 mL
3. 100 mL
4. 500 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) A lab technician has an 8% solution of hypochlorite and needs to make 700 mL of a 4% solution of hypochlorite. What volume of solute and solvent does the technician need to use?

1. 300 mL of the 8% solution in 400 mL of solvent
2. 350 mL of the 8% solution in 350 mL of solvent
3. 400 mL of the 8% solution in 300 mL of solvent
4. 450 mL of the 8% solution in 250 mL of solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) What does 5% w/v mean?

1. 5 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solution
2. 5 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent
3. 5 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solution
4. 5 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) A pH of 2 is how many times more acidic than a pH of 5?

1. 3
2. 6
3. 256
4. 1,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) A mean value of 100 mg/dL and a standard deviation of 1.8 mg/dL were obtained from a set of glucose measurements. What range of results falls within 2 standard deviations from the mean?

1. 94.6–105.4 mg/dL
2. 96.4–103.6 mg/dL
3. 97.3–102.7 mg/dL
4. 98.2–101.8 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?

1. Mean / standard deviation
2. Standard deviation / mean
3. Standard deviation / variance
4. Variance / mean

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) What is the mean of 1, 10, 20, 50, 50, 80, 90 and 99?

1. 45
2. 50
3. 55
4. 60

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) For data distributed normally, what percentage of cases is below the mean?

1. 25%
2. 50%
3. 75%
4. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) The rounding rule for the mean states that:

1. the answer should be rounded to a whole number
2. the answer should be rounded to one decimal place greater than the raw data
3. the answer should be rounded to two decimal places greater than the raw data
4. the answer should have the same number of decimal places as the raw data

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) The following values were obtained from a quality control test: 0, 0, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 7. Calculate the mean of these values.

1. 3
2. 3.25
3. 3.5
4. 3.75

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) Which statistic is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion of a set of values?

1. Mean
2. Median
3. Mode
4. Standard deviation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) To find the median of an even number of numbers, arrange the set in order and:

1. subtract the smallest number from the largest number
2. take the mean of the two middle numbers
3. use the larger of the two middle numbers
4. use the smaller of the two middle numbers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.24) What is the median of 1, 17, 2, 8, and 11?

1. 2
2. 5
3. 8
4. 11

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.25) When incinerating medical waste:

1. disinfect all articles beforehand
2. ensure complete burning takes place
3. ensure the temperature reaches at least 12,000°C
4. sanitize all articles beforehand

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.26) Used needles should be discarded in:

1. a biohazard sharps container
2. a glass disposal bucket
3. a glass recycling bin
4. the regular garbage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.27) Which of these is the most flammable?

1. Acids
2. Organic solvents
3. Strong oxidizers
4. Strong reducers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.28) Class B fires occur with:

1. electrical equipment
2. flammable liquids
3. ordinary combustibles
4. reactive metals

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.29) CO₂ fire extinguishers are effective against which type of fire?

1. Flammable gas
2. Flammable liquid
3. Paper
4. Wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.30) What is the term for a chemical that immediately damages human tissue on contact?

1. Carcinogenic
2. Combustible
3. Corrosive
4. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.31) A lab assistant accidentally drinks a beaker of Zenker's fluid. He says he feels a burning sensation in his mouth and throat. The lab manager phones 911. While waiting for the ambulance to arrive, which of these other first-aid measures should be taken?

1. Give the lab assistant water to drink
2. Place the lab assistant in the recovery position
3. Take the lab assistant outside for fresh air
4. Tell the lab assistant to rinse his eyes with water for several minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.32) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?

1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
2. Before loading the autoclave
3. Before using a restroom
4. For cleaning a chemical spill

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.33) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?

1. During blood collections
2. During reagent and specimen preparation
3. While inspecting reagent supplies
4. While transporting sealed waste containers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.34) Which of these must be worn by staff visiting a patient in enteric isolation?

1. Gown
2. Hazard suit
3. Lead apron
4. Shoe covers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.35) The three basic protective measures against radiation are time, distance, and:

1. lead
2. radiation suit
3. shielding
4. speed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.36) What should be your first action if a patient's body fluid splashes into your eyes?

1. Call 911
2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
3. Flush the eyes with water
4. Make an entry in the accident log book

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.37) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?

1. Bloodborne pathogens
2. Dangerous chemicals
3. Environmental hazards
4. Radiation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.38) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?

1. Proper handwashing
2. Sneezing into your arm
3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
4. Wearing a lab coat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.39) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.40) How are ethers stored?

1. In airtight bottles
2. In the light
3. In the refrigerator
4. Underwater

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.41) If the word 'Forbidden' is written in column 3 of a Hazardous Materials Table, it means the material should not be:

1. discarded
2. ingested
3. transported
4. used

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.42) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?

1. 1% ethyl alcohol
2. 10% ethyl alcohol
3. 40% ethyl alcohol
4. 70% ethyl alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.43) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?

1. Acetic acid
2. Boric acid
3. Sodium bicarbonate
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.44) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?

1. Make a note in the incident logbook
2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
3. Put on PPE
4. Soak up the spill with paper towels

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.45) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.46) Autoclave tape changes color when:

1. organisms have been killed
2. sterilization has taken place
3. the autoclave is nearing the end of its warranty
4. the autoclave reaches a specific temperature

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.47) Autoclaves work on which principle?

1. Cold sterilization
2. Free-flowing steam
3. Hot water
4. Moist heat sterilization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.48) Superheating steam in an autoclave:

1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
2. helps to dry out the equipment
3. increases its sterilizing power
4. will make the centrifuge spin faster

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.49) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?

1. 12 psi at 115°C
2. 12 psi at 120°C
3. 15 psi at 112°C
4. 15 psi at 121°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.50) What type of water does an autoclave use?

1. Distilled water
2. Mineral water
3. Saltwater
4. Tap water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.51) Which of these methods results in sterilization?

1. Autoclaving
2. Chemical disinfectants
3. Freezing
4. Soap and water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.52) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?

1. 100°C
2. 121°C
3. 140°C
4. 160°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.53) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:

1. analytical balance
2. desiccator
3. pH meter
4. single pan balance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.54) Which of these biomarkers can urine refractometers measure?

1. The presence of nitrates in urine
2. Urine hemoglobin concentration
3. Urine osmolality
4. Urine specific gravity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.55) Microscopes usually have which objective lenses?

1. 10x, 40x, and 100x
2. 10x, 50x, and 100x
3. 20x, 40x, and 80x
4. 20x, 50x, and 80x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.56) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?

1. Iris diaphragm
2. Numerical aperture
3. Ocular lens
4. Stage clip

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.57) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?

1. Dark-field
2. Florescent
3. Light
4. Phase-contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.58) What is the total magnification of a microscope if the eyepiece lens is 10x and the objective lens is 20x?

1. 30x
2. 200x
3. 375x
4. 525x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.59) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.60) Pipettes marked TC are:

1. allowed to drain freely
2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
3. rinsed out after delivery
4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.61) What type of filter in biological safety cabinets removes airborne particles such as bacteria and viruses?

1. Electrostatic
2. Fiberglass
3. HEPA
4. UV light

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.62) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:

1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
2. the centrifuge is balanced
3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
4. the cover is open

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.63) The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?

1. 70% ethanol
2. Antibacterial soap and water
3. Povidone-iodine
4. Sodium bicarbonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.64) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.65) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?

1. Electrical interference
2. Unbalanced tubes
3. Uneven bench surfaces
4. Variable voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.66) Which term means the ability of a procedure to detect only a substance of interest instead of other substances?

1. Analytical sensitivity
2. Analytical specificity
3. Diagnostic sensitivity
4. Diagnostic specificity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.67) Precision indicates the:

1. closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
2. closeness of a result to the median value
3. closeness of a result to the true value
4. repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.68) A screening test detects 700 cases of illness in 1,000 sick people and 400 cases of illness in 1,000 healthy people. Calculate the test's sensitivity.

1. 30%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 70%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.69) A test with low specificity is more likely to give:

1. false negatives
2. false positives
3. true negatives
4. true positives

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.70) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?

1. Accept the run
2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.71) Below is a Levey-Jennings quality control chart representing the control values for 20 consecutive analyzes of serum creatinine levels. Which Westgard rule is violated in this chart?

1. 10ₓ
2. 1₂ₛ
3. 4₁ₛ
4. R₄ₛ

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.72) How many Quality System Essentials (QSE) are there?

1. 6
2. 10
3. 12
4. 16

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.73) Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided?

1. Immediately performing first aid to someone who has been exposed to blood
2. Recapping used needles using both hands
3. Securing used sharps containers during transport
4. Using plasticware instead of glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.74) Class 1 hazardous materials are:

1. explosive
2. infectious
3. poisonous
4. radioactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.75) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:

1. a safe workplace
2. extra training for disabled workers
3. health insurance
4. work breaks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.76) If a worker suffers an accident at work and has to be hospitalized, how soon must the employer notify OSHA?

1. Immediately
2. Within 12 hours
3. Within 24 hours
4. Within 8 hours

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.77) In OSHA's hierarchy of controls, what is the most effective type of hazard control?

1. Administrative controls
2. Elimination
3. Engineering controls
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.78) Which GHS pictogram is optional?

1. Environment
2. Exclamation mark
3. Flame over circle
4. Gas cylinder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.79) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?

1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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