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MLT(AAB) Generalist Examination practice questions

Number of questions: 240

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About the MLT(AAB) exam

The MLT(AAB) Generalist Examination is an exam for people who want to practice as medical laboratoy technicians. This exam is set by the American Association of Bioanalysts (AAB).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the MLT(AAB) exam.

This page contains 240 practice questions divided into the six sections of the exam: 1. Chemistry, 2. Hematology, 3. Immunology, 4. Immunohematology, 5. Microbiology, and 6. Basic Knowledge.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Chemistry
  2. Hematology
  3. Immunology
  4. Immunohematology
  5. Microbiology
  6. Basic Knowledge

Section 1: Chemistry

1.1) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?
  1. Parathyroids
  2. Pituitary
  3. Testes
  4. Thyroid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which hormone promotes sodium retention?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Renin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. glucose
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which of these hormones does the pituitary gland produce?
  1. Insulin
  2. Prolactin
  3. T4
  4. TRH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Lysozymes play an important role in which type of immunity?
  1. Humoral
  2. Innate
  3. Passive
  4. Specific
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) How many fatty acids does a triglyceride molecule have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Cholesterol belongs to the ___________ group of lipids.
  1. phospholipid
  2. steroid
  3. triacylglycerol
  4. wax
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which of the following incubation conditions is used to grow Streptococcus pneumoniae?
  1. At 35–37°C, over 3 days in chocolate agar or MacConkey agar, with 20% H₂
  2. At 35–37°C, overnight in media containing blood and sugar, with 5−10% CO₂
  3. At 42°C, over 2 days in media containing electrolytes and peptone water, and under microaerophilic conditions
  4. At 42°C, over 3 days in Luria Bertani agar, and under anaerobic conditions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Staphylococcus aureus grows best in which type of environment?
  1. Aerobic
  2. Anaerobic
  3. Highly alkaline
  4. Microaerobic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which of these bacteria is microaerophilic?
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Helicobacter pylori
  3. Streptococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?
  1. Coagulated
  2. Decalcified
  3. Defibrinated
  4. Frozen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:
  1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
  2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
  3. phosphates and bilirubin
  4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Which test can rule out a false positive result for bilirubin on a urine strip?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. discarded
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) A urine sample tested positive for urine protein by a dipstick test but negative by the sulfosalicylic acid method. What is the probable cause of these conflicting results?
  1. The urine contained crystals
  2. The urine contained ketones
  3. The urine was very alkaline
  4. The urine was very turbid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What is the SI unit for reporting the result of urine glucose tests?
  1. mg/L
  2. mg/dL
  3. mmol/L
  4. mmol/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) A 24-hour urine volume of 4 liters indicates:
  1. anuria
  2. oliguria
  3. polyuria
  4. pyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) What is the medical term for an abnormally low urine volume?
  1. Aciduria
  2. Oliguria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Pyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What is the term for an absence of urine?
  1. Aciduria
  2. Anuria
  3. Oliguria
  4. Polyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
  1. diluted urine
  2. heated urine
  3. refrigerated urine
  4. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) What is the term for an elevated level of white blood cells in urine?
  1. Hematuria
  2. Pyelonephritis
  3. Pyuria
  4. Uremia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Amorphous urates:
  1. disappear if the urine is heated
  2. form blue sediment in acidic urine
  3. form white sediment in alkaline urine
  4. have a non-granular appearance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) During a macroscopic urinalysis, which of these is assessed?
  1. Acidity
  2. Color
  3. Ketones
  4. Specific gravity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Which cast typically indicates nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Fatty
  2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
  3. Waxy
  4. White blood cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which of these is normally present in urine?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Creatinine
  3. Glucose
  4. Protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?
  1. Gout
  2. Kidney disease
  3. Liver disease
  4. Prostate cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Which of these is a liver function test?
  1. AST test
  2. Creatine kinase test
  3. Creatinine test
  4. Troponin test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Estrogen and progesterone receptor testing are used to assess the prognosis and guide the treatment of:
  1. breast cancer
  2. endometriosis
  3. hepatoma
  4. ovarian cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) The HCV antibody test screens patients for which disease?
  1. HIV
  2. Hepatitis C
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Shingles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) What does the PKU test detect?
  1. A genetic defect in metabolism
  2. A sex-linked anemia
  3. A viral disease
  4. Severe kidney disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Elevation of which isoenzyme is typical of muscle disease?
  1. ALT
  2. CK-BB
  3. CK-MB
  4. CK-MM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:
  1. glomerular filtration rate
  2. glomerular secretion of creatinine
  3. renal glomerular and tubular mass
  4. tubular secretion of creatinine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T4 test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?
  1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
  2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
  3. Just after drug administration
  4. Just before drug administration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) A patient's cortisol levels are higher in the morning than in the evening. This is:
  1. indicative of Addison's disease
  2. indicative of Cushing syndrome
  3. indicative of hypopituitarism
  4. normal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Hematology

2.1) What is macrocytosis?
  1. A blood cancer
  2. A high concentration of white blood cells
  3. A platelet deficiency
  4. Abnormally large red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What protein forms a mesh that holds blood clots in place?
  1. Fibrin
  2. Globulin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What is the sequence of hemostasis?
  1. Coagulation, vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation
  2. Platelet plug formation, coagulation, vasoconstriction
  3. Vasoconstriction, coagulation, platelet plug formation
  4. Vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, coagulation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) What is the name for the series of reactions that stop blood flow after a cut?
  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hemostasis
  4. Homeostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?
  1. Vitamins A and C
  2. Vitamins B3 and B6
  3. Vitamins B9 and B12
  4. Vitamins C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) The icterus index is a measure of which color of serum?
  1. Green
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Which test counts the number of immature red blood cells in a blood sample?
  1. Differential
  2. Osmotic fragility test
  3. Red blood cell count
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Which of these diseases causes a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate?
  1. Bone marrow disease
  2. Carcinoma
  3. Leukemia
  4. Polycythemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) An anticoagulated blood sample is centrifuged, separating it into three layers: Which layer is the arrow pointing to?
  1. Buffy coat
  2. Clot
  3. Plasma
  4. Serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) In what unit is erythrocyte sedimentation rate reported?
  1. Millimeters cubed
  2. Millimeters per hour
  3. Millimoles per liter
  4. Nanograms per deciliter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Why is ammonium oxalate added to blood samples before platelet counts?
  1. To force the blood to clot
  2. To lyse the red blood cells
  3. To prevent hemodilution
  4. To stain the platelets blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRP
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which anticoagulant works by inactivating thrombin?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) The hematocrit test is also known as the:
  1. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. hemoglobin test
  3. packed-cell volume test
  4. red blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What is the ESR?
  1. How quickly red blood cells settle in whole blood
  2. The average size of red blood cells
  3. The proportion of blood that is made up of cells
  4. The ratio of erythrocytes to leukocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) What is the hematocrit?
  1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
  2. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
  3. The time it takes for blood to clot
  4. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What color is lipemic plasma?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Clear red
  3. Milky
  4. Straw-colored
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:
  1. a fasting specimen is used
  2. the ESR tubes are vertical
  3. the sample is completely thawed
  4. the water bath is exactly 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?
  1. CBC
  2. ESR
  3. Hct
  4. Hgb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?
  1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
  2. To oxygenate the sample
  3. To prevent clots
  4. To prevent platelets from clumping together
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What is the term for the yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes due to high bilirubin levels?
  1. Hemolysis
  2. Icterus
  3. Intergeneric
  4. Lipemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What does the blood differential test measure?
  1. The number of all cells
  2. The number of red blood cells
  3. The percentage of each type of white blood cell
  4. The volume percentage of red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Which of these tests is included in a complete blood count?
  1. ALP
  2. CRP
  3. Hb
  4. PT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Which of these is higher in capillary blood than in venous blood?
  1. Calcium
  2. Carotene
  3. Glucose
  4. Total protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using transfused blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukorrhea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is the term for a platelet count of 120 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Anemia
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Thrombocytosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) A man has the following blood test results:
Test Result
Red cell count 5.4 × 10¹²/L
White cell count 6.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets 660 × 10⁹/L
Which term applies to these results?
  1. Anemia
  2. Polycythemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Thrombocytosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:
  1. anemia
  2. erythremia
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) In serum protein electrophoresis, which globulin is closest to the negative electrode?
  1. Alpha-1
  2. Alpha-2
  3. Beta-1
  4. Gamma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) The lab technician notes an abnormally high level of red blood cells in a blood sample. This health condition is called:
  1. leukocytosis
  2. leukopenia
  3. polycythemia
  4. sickle cell anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:
  1. ESR
  2. FBS
  3. Hgb
  4. PT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) A patient complains of pain in her big toe. Her blood is high for uric acid. What disease does this indicate?
  1. Gout
  2. Liver disease
  3. Pheochromocytoma
  4. Prostatic cancer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Polycythemia makes the blood:
  1. appear blue
  2. more acidic
  3. thicker
  4. thinner
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Where is blood generally stored?
  1. In a dark cupboard at room temperature
  2. In a water bath
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) What is the reference range for serum albumin?
  1. 35–55 g/L
  2. 45–65 g/L
  3. 65–80 g/L
  4. 80–95 g/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Plasma is obtained by centrifuging:
  1. a red top tube
  2. a tube containing an anticoagulant
  3. an SST tube
  4. clotted blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) What is the major form of hemoglobin in adults?
  1. Hemoglobin A
  2. Hemoglobin F
  3. Hemoglobin H
  4. Hemoglobin S
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) What is the main type of hemoglobin in fetuses and newborn babies?
  1. Hemoglobin A
  2. Hemoglobin A2
  3. Hemoglobin F
  4. Hemoglobin S
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) What term means the destruction of red blood cells?
  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hemorrhage
  4. Hemostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Target cells are also known as:
  1. codocytes
  2. dacrocytes
  3. echinocytes
  4. spherocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Immunology

3.1) What does "leukopoiesis" mean?
  1. High levels of white blood cells
  2. Low levels of platelets
  3. The breakdown of platelets
  4. The synthesis of white blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What is the term for an antigen able to elicit an immune response?
  1. Adjuvent
  2. Epitope
  3. Hapten
  4. Immunogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which of these vaccines would most likely evoke the best and most long-lasting protective immune response?
  1. Attenuated
  2. DNA
  3. Extract
  4. Killed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Which enzyme, found in bodily secretions such as tears, saliva, and milk, functions as an antimicrobial agent by cleaving the peptidoglycan component of bacterial cell walls?
  1. Endopeptidase
  2. Heparin
  3. Lysozyme
  4. Transferase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which of these a primary lymphoid organ?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymph nodes
  3. Spleen
  4. Tonsils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the term for a molecule that can only elicit an immune response when attached to a carrier?
  1. Adjuvant
  2. Epitope
  3. Hapten
  4. Immunogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) In which order are complement components activated in the classical complement pathway?
  1. C1, C2, C3, C4
  2. C3, C4, C1, C2
  3. C4, C1, C3, C2
  4. C4, C3, C1, C2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) The presence of autoantibodies to double-stranded DNA is suggestive of which autoimmune disease?
  1. Chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy
  2. Myasthenia gravis
  3. Scleroderma
  4. Systemic lupus erytematosus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these bacteria can cause cold agglutinin disease?
  1. Campylobacter jejuni
  2. Mycoplasma pnuemoniae
  3. Staphylococcus epidermidis
  4. Streptococcus agalactiae
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) The antibodies in pemphigus are directed against which antigen?
  1. Desmogleins
  2. Elastin
  3. Proteolipid protein
  4. Ribosomes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which term means the total binding strength between an antibody with an antigen?
  1. Affinity
  2. Agility
  3. Apogamy
  4. Avidity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) How many antigen-binding sites do monomer antibodies have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which type of bond joins light chains and heavy chains of antibodies together?
  1. Allene
  2. Disulfide
  3. Hydrogen
  4. Ionic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What is the term for the part of an antibody that recognizes an antigen?
  1. Antitope
  2. Epitope
  3. Paratope
  4. Syntope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Antibodies bind to which part of the antigen?
  1. Effector region
  2. Epitope
  3. Hinge
  4. Variable region
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Vaccination is what type of immunity?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What type of immunity occurs when a person is injected with someone else's antibodies?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Skin is which type of immunity?
  1. Acquired
  2. Active
  3. Auto
  4. Innate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What is another name for the innate immune system?
  1. Adaptive
  2. Cellular
  3. Humoral
  4. Nonspecific
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Which antibody does the body make first when it fights a new infection?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which antibody class is a pentamer?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which class of antibody has γ chains?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) What is the main antibody in breast milk?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which antibody causes asthma?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which antibody primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes, such as the eyes and intestines?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which white blood cell is most likely to be elevated in acute appendicitis?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
  1. acids and bases
  2. antigens and antibodies
  3. lysing agents and red blood cells
  4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) What type of T cells are CD4+ T cells?
  1. Cytotoxic
  2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
  3. Helper
  4. Regulatory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which white blood cells recognize foreign antigens and produce antibodies?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Dendritic cells, macrophages, and which other cells present antigens to T helper cells?
  1. B cells
  2. Basophils
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Mast cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) What is the name of the protein released by natural killer cells and cytotoxic T cells that forms pores in the membranes of pathogenic cells, thus lysing and killing them?
  1. Cytokine
  2. Granzyme
  3. Inteferon
  4. Perforin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Which blood cell has a nucleus with two to five lobes?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Mast cells
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which type of patient does the CD4 test assess?
  1. Cancer
  2. Elderly
  3. HIV-positive
  4. Terminally ill
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) A lab technician performs a VDRL test. Under a microscope, the sample shows medium to large clumps. Which result should the lab technician report?
  1. Nonreactive
  2. Reactive
  3. Test invalid
  4. Weakly reactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Which of these is NOT a type of T cell?
  1. Cytotoxic
  2. Helper
  3. Phagocytic
  4. Regulatory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) What kind of T cells have CD8+ co-receptors?
  1. Cytotoxic
  2. Delayed type hypersensitivity
  3. Helper
  4. Regulatory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Immunohematology

4.1) Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs due to:
  1. ABO incompatibility
  2. Rh incompatibility
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) 1,000 cc of blood is equivalent to how many milliliters?
  1. 450 mL
  2. 750 mL
  3. 850 mL
  4. 1,000 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which of these situations could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. Rh+ mother, Rh+ fetus
  2. Rh+ mother, Rh− fetus
  3. Rh− mother, Rh+ fetus
  4. Rh− mother, Rh− fetus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:
  1. acetic acid
  2. ethanol
  3. normal saline
  4. sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Complete histocompatibility is found in:
  1. humans
  2. identical twins
  3. mice
  4. siblings
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which of these people should NOT donate blood?
  1. A breastfeeding mother with a six-week-old newborn
  2. Someone who had wisdom teeth removed a week ago
  3. Someone who received a measles immunization two months ago
  4. Someone with an aspirin allergy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) To donate blood, women need a hemoglobin level of at least:
  1. 2.5 g/dL
  2. 12.5 g/dL
  3. 22.5g/dL
  4. 32.5g/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Blood donors should weigh at least:
  1. 50 kg
  2. 70 kg
  3. 80 kg
  4. 90 kg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) An O+ patient needs an emergency transfusion but the laboratory does not have any O+ blood available. Which type of blood could be given to the patient instead?
  1. AB+
  2. AB−
  3. B+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Which blood group system is the most important for blood transfusions?
  1. ABO
  2. Lutheran
  3. MNS
  4. P
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) What is the second-most important blood group system for blood transfusions?
  1. Lutheran
  2. MNS
  3. P
  4. Rh
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) The antiglobulin test is also known as the _________ test.
  1. Coombs
  2. Gastrell
  3. Loughty
  4. Sallow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:
  1. leukoextraction
  2. leukorebation
  3. leukoreduction
  4. leukotransference
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) People with O− blood can only receive blood that is:
  1. AB+
  2. A−
  3. B+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) An AB− patient requires a blood transfusion but no AB− is available. Blood from which of these blood types could be given to the patient instead?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. A−
  4. O+
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) A patient at risk for transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease needs a blood transfusion of red blood cells. The red blood cells for this patient should be:
  1. centrifuged
  2. frozen and deglycerolized
  3. irradiated
  4. saline washed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) If a donor faints, which of the following actions should be taken?
  1. Administer 95% oxygen and 5% carbon dioxide
  2. Place a warm towel on the donor’s forehead
  3. Raise the donor’s legs above the level of the head
  4. Restrain the donor to prevent injury
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Whole blood is stored between:
  1. −12°C and −18°C
  2. −6°C and 3°C
  3. 2°C and 6°C
  4. 8°C and 16°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?
  1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
  2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise four hours after donating blood
  3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?
  1. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
  2. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  3. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?
  1. Glycerol
  2. Mannitol
  3. Sorbitol
  4. Thiol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?
  1. 1 hour
  2. 4 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 5 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which donated blood component carries the highest risk for bacterial contamination?
  1. Cryoprecipitate
  2. Plasma
  3. Platelets
  4. Red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. A+ mother and O− fetus
  2. AB+ mother and O− fetus
  3. O+ mother and A− fetus
  4. O− mother and O+ fetus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which blood type is used to make Coombs control cells?
  1. AB+
  2. AB−
  3. O+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?
  1. To ensure the antibodies bind to the antigens
  2. To neutralize excess AHG reagent
  3. To remove hemolyzed cells
  4. To remove unbound serum globulins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) One of the most common transfusion reactions is urticaria. What is urticaria?
  1. A cough
  2. A rash
  3. Light-headedness
  4. Throat swelling
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) Shortly after a blood transfusion is started, the patient experiences erythema and hives. What type of transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?
  1. Acute hemolytic
  2. Delayed hemolytic
  3. Febrile nonhemolytic
  4. Urticarial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?
  1. RhC
  2. Rhc
  3. RhD
  4. RhE
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Which two genes produce the Rh antigens?
  1. DCE and DHCE
  2. RH1 and RH2
  3. RHA and RHAG
  4. RHD and RHCE
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) DCe/dCe is an example of which Rh nomenclature?
  1. Fisher-Race
  2. ISBT
  3. Rosenfield
  4. Wiener
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) Women who are pregnant and Rh-negative are given ______________ to prevent hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.
  1. IgA and IgD
  2. anti-D immunoglobulin
  3. red blood cells from the father
  4. red blood cells from the fetus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) A patient's red blood cells plus anti-A antisera result in agglutination. However, his red blood cells plus anti-B antisera result in no agglutination. Therefore, the patient has what type of antigens and is what blood type?
  1. Type A antigens and type A blood
  2. Type A antigens and type B blood
  3. Type B antigens and type A blood
  4. Type B antigens and type B blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) A B− patient requires a blood transfusion but no B− blood is available. From which of these donors could the patient safely receive blood?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Refer to the blood typing test results below.
anti-A anti-B anti-D Rh type
+ O + DCe/dce
What is the patient's blood type?
  1. A+
  2. A−
  3. B+
  4. B−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) A blood sample is tested with anti-A antibodies and anti-B antibodies. No clots form. What is the blood type?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) If a patient's ABO blood group genotype is BO, then what is the patient's blood type?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB–
  2. A–
  3. B+
  4. O–
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) A person with B and D antigens on their red blood cells is called:
  1. A negative
  2. A positive
  3. B negative
  4. B positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Microbiology

5.1) Which of these reagents contains mercuric chloride?
  1. Bouin's fluid
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Picric acid
  4. Zenker's fluid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Buffered commercial formalin is approximately ____ formaldehyde gas by weight/volume.
  1. 4%
  2. 10%
  3. 40%
  4. 70%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Which of these is a fixative?
  1. Cytospray
  2. Giemsa
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Wright's stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate
  2. To melt the bacteria so they release their toxins
  3. To prevent cells from being washed off during staining
  4. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria?
  1. Acetone
  2. Ethanol
  3. Iodine
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
  2. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
  3. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
  4. To remove alcohol from the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Before staining, paraffin sections must be:
  1. dewaxed
  2. left underwater for at least an hour
  3. refrigerated
  4. submerged in a chlorine solution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Which cytological technique involves passing a urine sample through a biological filter containing pores of a specific diameter?
  1. Centrifugation
  2. Clean-catch
  3. Flow cytometry
  4. Millipore filtration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) What is the usual temperature for an incubator used for culture and sensitivity?
  1. 15–17°C
  2. 25–27°C
  3. 35–37°C
  4. 45–47°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?
  1. To maximize spore formation
  2. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
  3. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
  4. To stop the specimen from escaping
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?
  1. Anaerobe
  2. Captious
  3. Fastidious
  4. Obligate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) Which microbes require oxygen levels that are lower than in the atmosphere?
  1. Aerotolerant anaerobes
  2. Facultative aerobes
  3. Facultative anaerobes
  4. Microaerophlies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) The Widal test is used to diagnose which bacteria?
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Salmonella
  4. Shigela
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) What is the purpose of susceptibility testing?
  1. To determine if a patient has an allergy to a drug
  2. To determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
  3. To identify which antibiotic will kill a pathogen
  4. To identify which organism is in a specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?
  1. ABO typing
  2. Indirect antiglobulin test
  3. Mononucleosis test
  4. Rh and antibody screen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) When exposed to acid, acid-fast bacteria:
  1. decolorize at the same rate as other bacteria
  2. decolorize faster than other bacteria
  3. do not decolorize
  4. move faster
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Skin scrapings are set up in microbiology to identify:
  1. Corynebacterium
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Neisseria
  4. fungi
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) Which of these tests differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species?
  1. Catalase
  2. Coagulase
  3. Oxidase
  4. Urase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) What type of organism do phages infect?
  1. Animals
  2. Bacteria
  3. Plants
  4. Viruses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Serum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) A lab technician performs a Triple Sugar Iron test. The result is K/A. What does the K stand for?
  1. Alkaline
  2. Ketopentose
  3. Potassium
  4. Unknown
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) If a bacteria ferments glucose, lactose, and sucrose on a triple sugar iron test, what color would be the slant and butt?
  1. Black slant and red butt
  2. Red butt and black slant
  3. Red slant and red butt
  4. Yellow slant and yellow butt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) A lab technician performs a Triple Sugar Iron test on an unknown microorganism. The microorganism turns both the butt and the slant of the medium yellow. What result should the lab technician report?
  1. K/K
  2. G/L
  3. A/A
  4. G/K
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) What is the term for round bacteria that grow in clusters?
  1. Bacillococci
  2. Diplococci
  3. Staphylococci
  4. Streptococci
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. What is this capsule called?
  1. Cyst
  2. Scab
  3. Spore
  4. Tunic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) What is the term for an organism that grows best at high salt concentrations?
  1. Capnophile
  2. Halophile
  3. Osmophile
  4. Xerophile
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Which agar plate can determine hemolysis?
  1. Blood
  2. Chocolate
  3. MacConkey
  4. Sabouraud
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) What is the goal of streaking an agar plate?
  1. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium
  2. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose and/or lactose
  3. To determine the number of organisms in the sample
  4. To produce isolated colonies for further study
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) What type of culture media promotes the growth of one type of organism while slowing the growth of others?
  1. Differential
  2. Enriched
  3. Natural
  4. Selective
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) Which of these will NOT grow on agar plates?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Mold
  3. Protozoa
  4. Viruses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) Agar plates are placed upside down in the incubator to prevent:
  1. contamination from other agar plates
  2. moisture from accumulating on the agar surface
  3. pathogens from overgrowing
  4. the medium from drying out
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) What is the term for bacterial cells used to start a new culture on a streak plate?
  1. Colonies
  2. Inoculum
  3. Prime culture
  4. T cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  4. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?
  1. Facultative aerobe
  2. Microaerophile
  3. Reduced aerobe
  4. Secondary aerobe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Obligate anaerobes are killed by:
  1. carbon dioxide
  2. nitrogen
  3. oxygen
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?
  1. E. coli
  2. Proteus
  3. Pseudomonas
  4. Salmonella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) Which bacteria is shaped like a corkscrew?
  1. Actinomycetes
  2. Bacilli
  3. E. coli
  4. Spirochaetes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) What is the name for the lung secretion that is tested for malignant cells?
  1. Saliva
  2. Simulacrum
  3. Spittle
  4. Sputum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Basic Knowledge

6.1) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 500 mL of water with 4.5 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?
  1. 0.9 g/L
  2. 8 g/L
  3. 8.9 g/L
  4. 9 g/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) You are making a solution of 1 part solute and 9 parts water. How many milliliters of water are needed to make 500 mL of the solution?
  1. 50
  2. 59
  3. 400
  4. 450
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) What is one part chemical to five parts water expressed as a dilution factor?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) A lab technician is making a solution by combining 3 parts of a solute with 7 parts of water. How many milliliters of the solute and water are needed to make 100 mL of the solution?
  1. 7 mL of solute and 3 mL of water
  2. 10 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
  3. 30 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
  4. 70 mL of solute and 30 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) If 100% bleach is diluted 1/5 and then diluted again 1/20, what is the concentration of bleach in the final solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 1.5%
  3. 2%
  4. 2.5%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 200 mL of a 5% m/v sodium chloride solution?
  1. 5 g
  2. 10 g
  3. 15 g
  4. 20 g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) A lab technician has an 8% solution of hypochlorite and needs to make 700 mL of a 4% solution of hypochlorite. What volume of solute and solvent does the technician need to use?
  1. 300 mL of the 8% solution in 400 mL of solvent
  2. 350 mL of the 8% solution in 350 mL of solvent
  3. 400 mL of the 8% solution in 300 mL of solvent
  4. 450 mL of the 8% solution in 250 mL of solvent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) How many milliliters of formalin are needed to make 1,000 mL of 10% formalin?
  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1,000
  4. 10,000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) A mean value of 100 mg/dL and a standard deviation of 1.8 mg/dL were obtained from a set of glucose measurements. What range of results falls within 2 standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 94.6–105.4 mg/dL
  2. 96.4–103.6 mg/dL
  3. 97.3–102.7 mg/dL
  4. 98.2–101.8 mg/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) In a normal distribution, what percentage of cases are above the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) What is 9/20 expressed as a percentage?
  1. 2.22%
  2. 18%
  3. 22%
  4. 45%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) When trying to fix an electrical machine, you should first:
  1. replace old cables
  2. replace the fuses
  3. turn off all electricity to the lab
  4. turn the machine off
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which of these chemicals is flammable?
  1. Acetone
  2. Carbon tetrachloride
  3. Chloroform
  4. Saline
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) Which of these liquids is flammable?
  1. Bleach
  2. Ethanol
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Saline
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?
  1. OSHA
  2. OSM
  3. SDS
  4. TOSM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Which of these is NOT found on a safety data sheet?
  1. Fire potential
  2. Health hazards
  3. Safe handling measures
  4. Noise level
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) How are ethers stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Underwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) All dangerous goods are assigned a UN number. A UN number is:
  1. a 4-digit United Nations number
  2. an 8-digit number provided by the government
  3. only used for dangerous chemicals
  4. the same as the class number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. Sterilization may not be complete
  4. The oven may get damaged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?
  1. Dry heat autoclaving
  2. Filtration
  3. Microwaving
  4. Moist heat autoclaving
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:
  1. does not burn
  2. only ignites after considerable preheating
  3. ignites if moderately heated
  4. can be ignited at normal temperatures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) Which instrument is used to measure urine hydrogen ion concentration?
  1. Coulter counter
  2. Microscope
  3. Spectrophotometer
  4. pH meter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:
  1. analytical balance
  2. desiccator
  3. pH meter
  4. single pan balance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Automated blood cell counters work on which principle?
  1. Boyle
  2. Coulter
  3. Ferguson
  4. McKenzie
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) What is the term for a solution in which no more solvent can be dissolved?
  1. Concentrated
  2. Diluted
  3. Saturated
  4. Soluted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) For accurate measurements, a volumetric pipette should be viewed:
  1. above eye level
  2. at an angle
  3. at eye level
  4. below eye level
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?
  1. Ohmmeter
  2. Rheostat
  3. Tachometer
  4. Voltmeter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?
  1. Calculating test results incorrectly
  2. Interpreting results incorrectly
  3. Mislabeling a blood specimen
  4. Reporting a result on the wrong patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) Which of these is a post-analytical error?
  1. A hemolyzed specimen
  2. An empty collection tube
  3. Incorrect information on the test request
  4. Results reported in the wrong units
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?
  1. Environmental
  2. Instrumental
  3. Observational
  4. Theoretical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) Data is reliable when:
  1. it answers the research question
  2. it relates to the issue being studied
  3. repeated measurements give similar values
  4. the instrument measurements are precise
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Which of these statements about acids and bases is true?
  1. A base has a lower pH than an acid
  2. A base releases H+ in a solution
  3. An acid added to a base forms a salt
  4. An acid releases OH- in a solution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. Which term describes the potassium oxalate?
  1. Reagent
  2. Solute
  3. Solution
  4. Solvent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?
  1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
  2. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
  3. Perform the test anyway
  4. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) OSHA's Hazard Communication standard requires employers to inform workers about the workplace dangers of:
  1. bloodborne pathogens
  2. dangerous chemicals
  3. general safety hazards
  4. miscommunication
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) What federal legislation regulates clinical laboratories?
  1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  2. Federal Clinical Laboratory Orders
  3. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP) standards
  4. Laboratory Safety and Security Regulations
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) In HIPAA, PHI stands for __________ health information.
  1. patient
  2. personal
  3. private
  4. protected
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) CLIA refers to moderate and high complexity tests collectively as _____________ tests.
  1. cleared
  2. licensed
  3. nonwaived
  4. point-of-care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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