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ASCP MLA Exam: Practice Questions

Number of questions: 400

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About the ASCP MLA exam

The ASCP Medical Laboratory Assistant (MLA) exam assesses the knowledge required for entry-level laboratory roles. The American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) administers the exam. Successful candidates are awarded ASCP MLA certification, which can result in improved job prospects and a higher salary.

The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and lasts 2 hours and 30 minutes. The exam fee is $145.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the ASCP MLA exam.

This page contains 400 practice questions divided into the five sections of the exam: 1. Patient registration and specimen collection, 2. Specimen preparation and processing, 3. Support for clinical testing, 4. Waived and point-of-care testing, and 5. Laboratory operations.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Patient registration and specimen collection
  2. Specimen preparation and processing
  3. Support for clinical testing
  4. Waived and point-of-care testing
  5. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Patient registration and specimen collection

1.1) Which specimen request has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) You have to collect specimens from three patients. The specimens are routine, preop, and fasting. What is the correct order of priority for collecting these specimens?
  1. Fasting, Preop, Routine
  2. Fasting, Routine, Preop
  3. Preop, Fasting, Routine
  4. Routine, Fasting, Preop
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Two patients are in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
  2. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
  3. Proceed as usual
  4. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) When drawing blood from a frightened child, you should:
  1. explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
  2. say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
  3. tell the child that the needle won't hurt
  4. tell the child to be brave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) You have to draw blood from a nervous patient. What should you do?
  1. Be friendly and confident
  2. Cancel the requisition and send them home
  3. Tell the patient the needle won't hurt
  4. Tell the patient to calm down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient. However, the patient is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Come back later when the patient is awake
  3. Draw the sample while the patient is asleep
  4. Wake up the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient. However, the inpatient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them, "What is your name?"
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?
  1. The antecubital fossa
  2. The back of the knee
  3. The feet
  4. The neck
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?
  1. A vein in the left hand
  2. An earlobe
  3. The left median cubital vein
  4. The right median cubital vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient?
  1. Check the patient's white blood cell count first
  2. Do not draw blood from the right arm
  3. Make sure the patient is lying down
  4. Make sure the patient is sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which vein is the median cubital in the image below?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) For venipuncture, tourniquets should be:
  1. applied very tightly to the arm
  2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
  3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
  4. tight enough to slow venous flow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?
  1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
  2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
  3. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
  4. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To remove microorganisms
  4. To remove oil and sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is too tight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) For venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied ________________ the needle insertion point.
  1. 1-2 inches above
  2. 1-2 inches below
  3. 3-4 inches above
  4. 3-4 inches below
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What can happen if a phlebotomist releases the tourniquet after removing the needle from the arm?
  1. Angina
  2. Bleeding
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Edema
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. The needle may enter above the vein
  3. The needle may go completely through the vein
  4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) What can happen if an angle of 35 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. The needle may go completely through the vein
  2. The needle may miss the vein completely
  3. The needle will enter above the vein
  4. The sample may be rejected due to hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?
  1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
  2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
  3. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
  4. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm?
  1. Downwards
  2. To the left
  3. To the right
  4. Upwards
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Collect it by arterial puncture
  4. Try to draw it one more time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Which of these is a sign of a needle puncturing an artery during venipuncture?
  1. Blood spurting into the tube
  2. Breathing difficulties
  3. Dark blue blood
  4. Intense pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) What causes reflux during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Probing with the needle
  3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  4. Using the wrong order of draw
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
  1. Change to pediatric tubes
  2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
  3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
  4. Try adjusting the needle slightly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release their fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen?
  1. A needle stick injury
  2. Adulteration of the specimen
  3. Bacterial contamination
  4. Hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Which test result is most affected when collected from a crying infant?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Lead level
  4. White blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) What is the angle of insertion for venipuncture?
  1. 15−30 degrees
  2. 30−45 degrees
  3. 45−60 degrees
  4. 60−75 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?
  1. Electrolyte panel
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Lithium levels
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) A phlebotomist has to collect a lavender top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from a patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, lavender, light blue
  2. Green, light blue, lavender
  3. Lavender, green, light blue
  4. Light blue, green, lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) What are cross-match tubes used for?
  1. Blood compatibility testing
  2. Coagulation studies
  3. Glucose tests
  4. Trace element studies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Which anticoagulant is used to collect arterial blood gas specimens?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Trisodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which vacutainer tube is used for hemoglobin testing?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Lavender
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) Which anticoagulant is in gray top vacutainers?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) Which vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) For which vacutainer tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red top, green top, light blue top, and lavender top. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue top tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Collect the SST first then the light blue tube
  2. Collect the light blue tube first then the SST
  3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue tube, then collect the SST
  4. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue tube, then finish the SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-colored tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) What color is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) What is the main purpose of tiger top tubes?
  1. Preventing clots
  2. Preventing glycolysis
  3. Separating plasma from blood cells
  4. Separating serum from blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?
  1. Gold
  2. Gray
  3. Lavender
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) Which vacutainer tube is used for blood smears?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) Venipuncture needles are color-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) Which tool is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.
  1. Milliner's
  2. butterfly
  3. straight
  4. universal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. obese patients
  4. patients with AIDS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?
  1. 15-gauge
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 21-gauge
  4. 24-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) The gauge size of a needle indicates the diameter of the needle's:
  1. bevel
  2. hub
  3. lumen
  4. shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which part of a needle enters the skin first?
  1. Bevel
  2. Hub
  3. Lumen
  4. Shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) What is this device?
  1. Microtainer tube
  2. Multi-sample blood collection needle
  3. Safety trainer device
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe?
  1. Bevel
  2. Hub
  3. Lumen
  4. Shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) 18-gauge needles are typically used for:
  1. blood donations
  2. routine blood draws
  3. children
  4. small adult veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Multisample needles are typically available in which gauges?
  1. 18–20
  2. 20–22
  3. 22–24
  4. 24–26
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) After a blood draw, patients should avoid:
  1. driving
  2. eating a large meal
  3. heavy lifting
  4. lying down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) After use, venipuncture needles should be:
  1. discarded into a sharps container
  2. discarded into an autoclave bag
  3. discarded into the garbage
  4. reused
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) After a blood draw, which of these instructions should you tell the patient?
  1. Bend your arm a few times
  2. Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes
  3. Refrain from drinking fluids for the next 2–3 hours
  4. Walk around if you feel lightheaded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do?
  1. Ask the patient to schedule another appointment
  2. Perform a second collection for the missing tube
  3. Redraw all the tubes
  4. Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) Why are gauze pads better than cotton balls for holding pressure on a puncture site?
  1. Cotton balls can stick to the puncture site
  2. Cotton balls contain latex which is dangerous for people with latex allergies
  3. Cotton balls have a higher risk of causing a compression nerve injury
  4. Gauze pads are more sterile
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) Immediately after blood collection, how many times must tubes be inverted to ensure proper mixing of blood and additives?
  1. 1 or 2
  2. 8 to 10
  3. 10 to 15
  4. 15 to 20
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) Which of these analytes is photosensitive?
  1. Albumin
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Iron
  4. Phosphate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should:
  1. be off antibiotics for several days before collection
  2. come to the lab first thing in the morning
  3. fast for 12 to 14 hours
  4. have all x-rays done before collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.77) Which of the following can cause hemolysis in a blood sample?
  1. Collecting the sample in a serum separator tube
  2. Shaking the sample vigorously
  3. Using a large needle to draw the blood from the vein
  4. Withdrawing the needle before removing the tourniquet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.78) Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively from a venipuncture site?
  1. A herbal medicine
  2. An anticoagulant
  3. Birth control pills
  4. Medicine for high cholesterol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.79) A phlebotomist draws blood for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches the phlebotomist and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. The phlebotomist should:
  1. call the police
  2. inform his colleague he has no right to know which test was ordered
  3. lie and tell his colleague the test was a complete blood count
  4. reassure his colleague that he has nothing to worry about
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.80) You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight-year-old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do?
  1. Force the swab into her mouth
  2. Scold her for behaving badly
  3. Swab her nose instead
  4. Talk to her about the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.81) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:
  1. SAF fixative
  2. agar
  3. saline
  4. sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.82) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?
  1. Fish
  2. Popcorn
  3. Red meat
  4. Whole wheat bread
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.83) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.84) Which organ does hydrogen breath testing investigate?
  1. Intestine
  2. Liver
  3. Lungs
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.85) What is the preferred site for bone marrow aspiration in adults?
  1. Femur
  2. Iliac crest
  3. Sternum
  4. Tibia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.86) Which test involves taking a tissue sample from a placenta to test for chromosomal abnormalities in a fetus?
  1. Amniocentesis
  2. Chorionic villus sampling
  3. Cordocentesis
  4. Maternal serum screening
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.87) According to CDC guidelines, how far back should you tilt the patient’s head when performing a nasopharyngeal swab for COVID-19 testing?
  1. 20 degrees
  2. 45 degrees
  3. 70 degrees
  4. 100 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.88) When collecting a semen sample, the patient should:
  1. collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops
  2. keep the sample on ice during transport
  3. use a latex condom
  4. use a lubricant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.89) What is the best time to collect a sputum specimen?
  1. An hour before the patient has dinner
  2. In the middle of the day
  3. Just after the patient wakes up
  4. Just before the patient goes to bed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.90) How far into the nasal cavity must a swab be inserted to reach the nasopharynx?
  1. 3–4 cm
  2. 5–6 cm
  3. 7–8 cm
  4. 9–10 cm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.91) At what stage of pregnancy is amniocentesis typically performed?
  1. 5–10 weeks of gestation
  2. 10–15 weeks of gestation
  3. 15–20 weeks of gestation
  4. 20–25 weeks of gestation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.92) Which area is swabbed to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.93) The H. pylori breath test detects which gas?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.94) Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true?
  1. The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
  2. The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
  3. The specimen is tested within 24 hours
  4. The test requires an arterial sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.95) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:
  1. a butterfly needle
  2. a tourniquet
  3. alcohol wipes
  4. ice water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.96) Where is the first choice for an arterial puncture?
  1. The antecubital area of both arms
  2. The brachial artery
  3. The femoral artery
  4. The thumb side of the wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.97) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?
  1. 10
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 28
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.98) When performing a radial artery puncture, the needle should enter the skin:
  1. at a 20-degree angle, at the exact point where the pulse is felt
  2. at a 20-degree angle,1 cm lateral to where the pulse is felt
  3. at a 45-degree angle, 1 cm distal to where the pulse is felt
  4. at a 45-degree angle, at the exact point where the pulse is felt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.99) Which of these is a patient identifier?
  1. Date of collection
  2. Patient name
  3. Specimen type
  4. Time of collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.100) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
  2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
  3. Continue regardless
  4. Retake both specimens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.101) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cross-match
  3. Drug screen
  4. TDM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.102) What is the best action if a laboratory requisition form is unclear or ambiguous?
  1. Cancel the order and inform the physician
  2. Contact the ordering physician for clarification
  3. Perform a different test that could yield similar results
  4. Proceed with the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.103) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.104) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. glucose
  3. occult blood
  4. protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.105) Which urine collection technique collects urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.106) A patient needs to collect urine in a container for urinalysis. However, the patient is nervous and says he is having trouble producing the urine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Offer the patient a drink of water and ask him to try again
  3. Take a blood sample instead and make a note on the requisition form
  4. Tell the patient he is not trying hard enough
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.107) Which type of urine specimen is taken after eating?
  1. Clean catch midstream
  2. Pediatric
  3. Postprandial
  4. Random
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.108) Which preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. HCl
  3. NaHCO₃
  4. No preservative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.109) What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. HCl
  3. NaHCO₃
  4. No preservative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.110) Which of these chemicals is used to preserve urine samples for microbiology?
  1. Ammonia
  2. Boric acid
  3. Calcium hydroxide
  4. Potassium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.111) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.112) What does sulfosalicylic acid detect in urine?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Glucose
  3. Protein
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.113) Which of these is an acceptable preservative for the phosphorus 24-hour urine test?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.114) Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup?
  1. 24-hour
  2. Clean-catch
  3. Random
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.115) Which of these statements about 24-hour urine collections is true?
  1. If the container contains a preservative, the preservative must be thrown away
  2. If the patient leaves their house, they should take the container with them
  3. Night-time specimens are discarded
  4. The patient should keep the container in a warm place
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.116) A doctor orders a 2-hour PC glucose test. What does PC mean?
  1. After a meal
  2. After an operation
  3. Before a meal
  4. Before an operation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.117) An inpatient is eating breakfast when a phlebotomist arrives to collect a specimen for a fasting blood glucose test. Which of these would be the best action for the phlebotomist to take?
  1. Ask the patient to vomit into a sink or emesis basin before taking the sample
  2. Ask the patient's nurse if the specimen should still be collected
  3. Draw the specimen quickly before the patient finishes eating
  4. Give the patient a dose of insulin to counteract the food they have eaten
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.118) Which additive is preferred for collecting blood culture specimens?
  1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium heparin
  4. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.119) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?
  1. Adequately filling two media vials
  2. Asepsis of the collection site
  3. Selecting the collection site
  4. Timing of the second set of cultures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.120) A patient is receiving a course of antibiotics. His last dose was at 2 pm. His next doses will be at 10 pm and 6 am. When is the best time to draw a blood culture?
  1. At 2 am
  2. At 6 am
  3. Just after his next dose
  4. Just before his next dose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.121) How many bottles are drawn for a blood culture set?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.122) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fetal fibronectin
  3. Free light chains test
  4. Legal paternity test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.123) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?
  1. Only the courier
  2. Only the laboratory technician
  3. The courier and the laboratory technician
  4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.124) Why is it crucial to follow chain-of-custody procedures in forensic testing?
  1. To ensure test results are confidential
  2. To maintain the integrity of evidence
  3. To prevent post-analytical errors
  4. To verify the patient’s insurance information
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.125) What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container?
  1. To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced
  2. To prevent air from entering the container
  3. To show whether the container has been tampered with
  4. To show who currently has custody of the container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.126) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?
  1. The name of the patient's doctor
  2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
  3. The time the specimen was collected
  4. The type of specimen collected
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.127) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?
  1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
  2. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
  3. Perform the test anyway
  4. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.128) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  3. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  4. "What is your name?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.129) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?
  1. Arm
  2. Finger
  3. Heel
  4. Thigh
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.130) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.131) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.132) The image below shows a blood sample label. What was the most likely test ordered?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. International normalized ratio
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Potassium test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.133) Which of the following information is typically required on a specimen label?
  1. Name of the ordering physician
  2. Patient's address
  3. Patient's blood type
  4. Patient's date of birth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.134) CPT codes have how many digits?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.135) The two-digit additions to CPT codes that describe extra details of a procedure are called:
  1. ICD-10 codes
  2. modifiers
  3. service codes
  4. supplemental codes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.136) _____________ is the illegal practice of billing for procedures separately that are normally covered by a single CPT code.
  1. Bundling
  2. Kickbacking
  3. Unbundling
  4. Upcoding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.137) On this patient's wristband, what does 12-19-2016 mean?
  1. Admission date
  2. Date of birth
  3. Date of death
  4. Date the patient started taking medication
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.138) What is the most widely used specimen for drug testing?
  1. Blood
  2. Hair
  3. Saliva
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Specimen preparation and processing

2.1) Why must pipette tips be changed after each sample?
  1. To prevent bubbles from forming in the pipette
  2. To prevent cross-contamination between samples
  3. To prevent wear and tear on the pipette
  4. To reduce the time spent pipetting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?
  1. Postop complete blood count
  2. Preop pregnancy test
  3. Routine urinalysis
  4. Timed glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Why are STAT specimens prioritized over routine specimens?
  1. They are cheaper to process
  2. They are likely to be from critically ill patients
  3. They need to be sent to an outside laboratory
  4. They require more specialized equipment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) A urine sample, an oral swab, and a blood culture arrive for microbiology processing at the same time. In which order should they be processed?
  1. Blood culture, oral swab, urine sample
  2. Blood culture, urine sample, oral swab
  3. Oral swab, blood culture, urine sample
  4. Oral swab, urine sample, blood culture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) What do the double rings mean on this pipette?
  1. The last drop must be blown out
  2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
  3. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
  4. The volume is measured at this point
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What does "10 mL TD 25 SEC" on a pipette mean?
  1. The pipette can be filled with 10 mL in 25 seconds
  2. The pipette can deliver 10 mL in its primary tube and 25 mL in its secondary tube
  3. The pipette will deliver 10 mL when left to drain for 25 seconds
  4. You should wait 25 seconds between filling and dispensing the pipette
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) How long does blood in a red-top tube take to clot?
  1. 10–15 seconds
  2. 25–30 seconds
  3. 5–10 minutes
  4. 30–60 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?
  1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
  2. To oxygenate the sample
  3. To prevent clots
  4. To prevent platelets from clumping together
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which of these specimens is unacceptable for testing?
  1. A blood specimen collected for coagulation testing in a citrate tube
  2. A blood specimen in an EDTA tube that is three-quarters full
  3. A clotted blood specimen for HbA1c testing
  4. A sputum specimen containing 52 leukocytes and 5 epithelial cells per LPF
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  4. An icteric bilirubin specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) When whole blood is centrifuged in a gray top tube, what does it separate into?
  1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
  2. Plasma, clot, and red blood cells
  3. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
  4. Serum, clot, and red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Remove gloves and wash hands
  4. Seal one end of the tube with clay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 15
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) How does a centrifuge operate?
  1. By measuring scattered light
  2. By pushing molecules through an electrical field
  3. By spinning at high speeds
  4. With pressure and steam
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which centrifuge counters heat generated during high speeds?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytospin
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What is the centrifuge duration for separating serum from blood?
  1. 1–2 minutes
  2. 5–10 minutes
  3. 10–15 minutes
  4. 15–20 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which part of a centrifuge holds the sample tubes?
  1. Drive shaft
  2. Lid
  3. Motor
  4. Rotor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Preventive maintenance for a centrifuge includes:
  1. cleaning under the centrifuge
  2. ensuring the centrifuge is balanced
  3. inspecting the power cords for damage
  4. moving the centrifuge to a new location
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) This centrifuge needs to be balanced. Two of the tubes have already been placed. In which position would a third tube balance the centrifuge?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which of these centrifuges is balanced?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What does RPM stand for in centrifuging?
  1. Radial positioning mechanism
  2. Relative power mode
  3. Revolutions per minute
  4. Rotational pressure measurement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) How long should you centrifuge a urine sample to separate the sediment?
  1. 5 minutes
  2. 10 minutes
  3. 15 minutes
  4. 20 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What temperature is thawed plasma stored at?
  1. −20°C or colder
  2. −6°C to −18°C
  3. 1 to 6°C
  4. 20 to 24°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Blood samples for ammonia tests must be transported:
  1. at body temperature
  2. at room temperature
  3. in a light-protected container
  4. on ice
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) How many mL of specimen is needed to make ten aliquots of 5 mL each?
  1. 100 mL
  2. 25 mL
  3. 5 mL
  4. 50 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What visual sign suggests a plasma sample is hemolyzed?
  1. Air bubbles
  2. Blood clots
  3. Cherry red color
  4. Decreased transparency
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) A specimen expires in 5 days. The specimen is split into 5 small aliquots. Each aliquot must be labeled as expiring in:
  1. 2 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 1 day
  4. 5 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) After a semen sample is collected, within how many hours must it be tested?
  1. 1 hour
  2. 6 hours
  3. 12 hours
  4. 24 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is an aliquot?
  1. A dilution of a sample
  2. A smaller amount taken from an original specimen
  3. The leftover unusable part of a sample after testing
  4. The minimum amount of sample required for a specific test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which of these tests is centrifuged?
  1. Blood gas
  2. Blood smear
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Hematocrit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Aliquots must be taken from a __________ solution.
  1. buffered
  2. concentrated
  3. homogeneous
  4. precipitated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?
  1. To absorb toxic substances
  2. To kill non-pathogens
  3. To maintain a neutral pH
  4. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) At what temperature are cryofibrinogen specimens transported?
  1. −20°C or lower
  2. 4–6°C
  3. 21°C
  4. 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Blood specimens for sodium testing must be transported at which temperature?
  1. –20°C
  2. 1–6°C
  3. 20–24°C
  4. 37–40°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Blood samples for complete blood counts must be transported:
  1. in a Styrofoam-lined box with dry ice
  2. in a vacuum-sealed container at room temperature
  3. in an insulated container with a cold pack
  4. wrapped in metal foil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Which of these specimens should be rejected for testing?
  1. A blood glucose sample exposed to light
  2. A refrigerated blood sample for TSH testing
  3. A urine creatinine sample transported at room temperature
  4. A urine culture sample transported on ice
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) Blood specimens for which of these tests require cooling during transport?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cold agglutinin
  3. Cryoglobulin
  4. Homocysteine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) When urine is left at room temperature, which of these increases?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Nitrites
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which of these chemicals can preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Potassium chloride
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) When a blood sample is left at room temperature, which of these increases?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Glucose
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Potassium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) At what temperature are cold agglutinin samples stored before testing?
  1. –6°C
  2. 6°C
  3. 20°C
  4. 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) A patient produces a semen sample at home. When bringing the sample to the clinic, the patient should keep the sample:
  1. at room temperature
  2. next to a hot water bottle
  3. on ice
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) A urine specimen arrives at the laboratory five hours after it was collected. To be acceptable for culture testing, the specimen must have been:
  1. kept at room temperature
  2. kept frozen
  3. kept refrigerated
  4. mixed with a preservative additive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Serum specimens for vitamin K should be:
  1. kept at 37–40°C
  2. kept away from light
  3. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
  4. mixed with glass beads
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Which test result becomes falsely increased by removing the stopper from a blood specimen?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Glucose
  3. pCO2
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) At which of these temperatures is purified ribonucleic acid stored?
  1. –20°C
  2. 6°C
  3. 21°C
  4. 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Why are urine samples refrigerated?
  1. To agglutinate the red blood cells
  2. To increase the levels of ammonia
  3. To prevent bacterial growth
  4. To prevent urine from turning acidic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) What action should be taken if a specimen label has been filled in incorrectly?
  1. Correct the label and proceed with testing
  2. Discard the specimen and close the request
  3. Notify the healthcare provider
  4. Perform the test but document the labeling error
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?
  1. A610
  2. A630
  3. P620
  4. P650
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) In Type P650 packaging, the primary and secondary receptacles must be:
  1. dustproof
  2. heatproof
  3. leakproof
  4. sunproof
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) The Herpes B virus and Ebola virus must be transported as:
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. genetically modified organisms
  4. solid medical waste
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Type 1B
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) When shipping infectious substances, where should you write the technical name of the infectious agent?
  1. Air waybill
  2. Outside packaging
  3. Primary container
  4. Shipper’s Declaration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as:
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Class 1
  4. Class 2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Category B infectious substances must be shipped with a label that says:
  1. UN2814 – Infectious Substance, Category B, Affecting Humans
  2. UN3291 – Clinical Waste, Category B
  3. UN3373 – Biological Substance, Category B
  4. UN3549 – Medical Waste, Category B, Affecting Humans
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which category of hazardous goods does this label represent?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Miscellaneous
  3. Oxidizing
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) A doctor calls the laboratory and asks for an additional test on an existing specimen. What is the term for this kind of test?
  1. Add-on test
  2. Addendum test
  3. Amendment test
  4. Repeat test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) Which factor should be considered first when an add-on request is received?
  1. The availability of the lab technician
  2. The cost of the additional test
  3. The original test result
  4. The specimen's stability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) A 24-hour urine volume of 4 liters indicates:
  1. anuria
  2. oliguria
  3. polyuria
  4. pyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Which federal agency regulates the transport of hazardous materials?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Department Of Transportation (DOT)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) What is a disadvantage of pneumatic tube systems over hand-delivery of samples?
  1. Decreased sample delivery time
  2. Greater staff requirement
  3. Lysis of cells during transportation
  4. More prone to human error
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) Which of these specimens should be hand-delivered to the laboratory rather than by a pneumatic tube system?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid
  3. Swabs
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) A pneumatic tube system:
  1. delivers medications or saline to the body
  2. drains waste material from the body such as urine
  3. provides nutrition to patients who cannot eat
  4. sends materials to the laboratory quickly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Pneumatic tube systems can transport:
  1. glass containers
  2. lipid panel specimens
  3. specimens on ice
  4. syringes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Support for clinical testing

3.1) For which test are Westergren tubes used?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 250 cm³ of solution. What is the concentration in mol/dm³?
  1. 0.002 mol/dm³
  2. 2 mol/dm³
  3. 12.5 mol/dm³
  4. 125 mol/dm³
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) How do you calculate the mass of a solute in a solution?
  1. Concentration × volume
  2. Volume + concentration
  3. Volume − concentration
  4. Volume/concentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which of these is a unit of molarity?
  1. L/mol
  2. g/mol
  3. mol/L
  4. mol/g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?
  1. 1/128
  2. 1/256
  3. 1/512
  4. 1/1024
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) A dilution factor of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?
  1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
  2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
  3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
  4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) You are making a solution of 1 part solute and 9 parts water. How many milliliters of water are needed to make 500 mL of the solution?
  1. 50
  2. 59
  3. 400
  4. 450
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) You need a liter of 5% concentration of hydrochloric acid but you only have a 40% concentration. How can you make the 5% concentration?
  1. Mix 125 mL of hydrochloric acid with 875 mL of water
  2. Mix 175 mL of hydrochloric acid with 825 mL of water
  3. Mix 200 mL of hydrochloric acid with 800 mL of water
  4. Mix 225 mL of hydrochloric acid with 775 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) A lab machine gives a result of 0.8731. What is this rounded to one significant figure?
  1. 0.1
  2. 0.87
  3. 0.9
  4. 1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) An automated cell counter gives a result of 6,500 cells/mm³. However, the doctor's clinic requires the result in cells/L. What result should you report to the doctor?
  1. 6.5 x 10⁶ cells/L
  2. 6.5 x 10⁷ cells/L
  3. 6.5 x 10⁸ cells/L
  4. 6.5 x 10⁹ cells/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) The chart below shows a patient's blood carbon dioxide levels over one week. What type of trend does the chart demonstrate?
  1. Exponential
  2. Linear
  3. Logarithmic
  4. Polynomial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The number the data tends to cluster around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.
Mean 5.8
Median 6.0
Mode 5.7
Range 1.5–20.2
Standard deviation 0.25
If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?
  1. 5.30–6.30
  2. 5.35–6.25
  3. 5.50–5.90
  4. 5.60–5.90
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which acceptable range do laboratories typically use for quality control results?
  1. One standard deviation from the mean
  2. The middle 68% of the results
  3. The outer 5% of the results
  4. Two standard deviations from the mean
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) A thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) quality control chart has the following data for the normal control:
Statistic Value
Count 43
Mean 2.4 mIU/L
2 SD 1.2 mIU/L
Calculate the coefficient of variation for the control.
  1. 25%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Tube A contains 24 mL of blood. Tube B contains 20 mL of blood. This means tube A contains ____% more blood than tube B.
  1. 4
  2. 16
  3. 20
  4. 25
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?
  1. pH 1
  2. pH 4
  3. pH 7
  4. pH 10
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What is deionized water?
  1. Water containing alkaline minerals
  2. Water containing carbon dioxide
  3. Water containing extra minerals
  4. Water with ions removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) What is the reading of this pipette?
  1. 10.4
  2. 10.45
  3. 10.5
  4. 10.55
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) How is a 10% solution of stock formalin made?
  1. 1 part stock formalin with 10 parts water
  2. 1 part stock formalin with 9 parts water
  3. 9 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
  4. 10 parts stock formalin with 1 part water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) How many milliliters of formalin are needed to make 500 mL of 10% formalin?
  1. 10 mL
  2. 50 mL
  3. 90 mL
  4. 100 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which fixative do Pap stains use?
  1. 10% buffered formalin
  2. 95% ethanol
  3. Helly's fixative
  4. Methanol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Identify the false statement about the preparation of reticulocyte smears.
  1. Reticulocyte smears are used to determine the number of white blood cells in a sample
  2. The dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
  3. The stain and the cells must be left to react for 15 minutes before making the smear
  4. The staining technique is called supravital staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) What color is hematoxylin?
  1. Blue-purple
  2. Orange
  3. Pink-purple
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) For how long should a blood smear be stained with 3% Giemsa solution?
  1. 15–30 seconds
  2. 2–8 seconds
  3. 5–10 minutes
  4. 45–60 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
  2. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
  3. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
  4. To remove alcohol from the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which of these could cause stain precipitation?
  1. Excessive buffer
  2. Excessive humidity in the air
  3. Insufficient staining time
  4. Use of aged staining solutions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What are the two main components of Wright's stain?
  1. Alcian blue and nuclear fast red
  2. Crystal violet and safranin
  3. Eosin and methylene blue
  4. Ethanol and iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) What color is acid fuchsin?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) What does the H&E staining method use as a dewaxing agent?
  1. Eosin
  2. Formalin
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) What is the ratio of eosin to methylene blue in eosin methylene blue?
  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 3:1
  4. 6:1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) A histologist has stained a blood sample with Wright's stain but the basophils have poor definition. The histologist decides to repeat the stain. Which of these actions would improve the definition?
  1. Decrease the concentration of the stain/buffer solution
  2. Dilute the stain with methanol or water
  3. Reduce the time between preparing the smear and fixation
  4. Wash the slide before fixation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) A slide stained with H&E stain appears cloudy. What is the cause?
  1. Excessive exposure of the specimen to alcohol
  2. Insufficient clearing
  3. The stain was cold
  4. The stain was too hot
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) When exposed to acid, acid-fast bacteria:
  1. decolorize at the same rate as other bacteria
  2. decolorize faster than other bacteria
  3. do not decolorize
  4. move faster
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) What is the usual temperature for an incubator used for culture and sensitivity?
  1. 15–17°C
  2. 25–27°C
  3. 35–37°C
  4. 45–47°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which of these counts is reported as number per LPF?
  1. Casts
  2. Crystals
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) A representative sample of uninoculated culture media is incubated for 2-5 days at 35-37°C as part of sterility testing. What is the expected result?
  1. A change in the media's color
  2. Growth across the entire agar plate
  3. Individual colonies
  4. No microbial growth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) In Gram staining, which of these situations can cause gram-negative cells to appear colorless?
  1. Omission of the counterstain step
  2. Omission of the iodine treatment step
  3. Over-decolorizing
  4. Under-decolorizing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) What is the sequence of steps for Gram staining?
  1. Primary stain, decolorizing, counterstain, mordant
  2. Primary stain, decolorizing, mordant, counterstain
  3. Primary stain, mordant, counterstain, decolorizing
  4. Primary stain, mordant, decolorizing, counterstain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) In Gram staining, what can happen if the decolorizer is left on too long?
  1. All organisms will appear colorless
  2. Gram-negative organisms will look gram-positive
  3. Gram-positive organisms will look gram-negative
  4. No cells will appear on the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) What can happen if the heat fixation step is skipped in Gram staining?
  1. All organisms will appear colorless
  2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
  3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
  4. No cells will appear on the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) A lab technician is performing a Gram stain. After flooding the slide with crystal violet and letting the slide stand for approximately one minute, the technician should rinse the slide with:
  1. acetone
  2. ethanol
  3. iodine
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) A lab technician performs Gram staining of a urine specimen. Under a microscope, the lab technician sees gram-negative cocci in chains. What mistake did the lab technician make?
  1. Forgot the iodine treatment step
  2. Forgot to bring the urine specimen to room temperature
  3. Performed the safranin counterstain too quickly
  4. Used too much crystal violet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) What are the three common types of acid-fast staining?
  1. Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort
  2. Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck
  3. Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) What is the primary stain in acid-fast staining?
  1. Carbol fuchsin
  2. Eosin
  3. Malachite green
  4. Methylene blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) What is the final step in acid-fast staining?
  1. Cover the smear with the counterstain
  2. Cover the smear with the primary stain
  3. Decolorize the smear with alcohol
  4. Heat fix the smear
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  4. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what action must be taken after streaking each quadrant?
  1. Allow the colonies to rest for 15–20 seconds
  2. Flame the inoculating loop
  3. Invert the plate
  4. Take another loopful of inoculum from the original sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) Which of these agar plates has been streaked correctly?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what would happen if you forget to sterilize your loop in between each quadrant streak?
  1. A lack of individual colonies
  2. Growth in only the first quadrant
  3. Growth in quadrants 3 and 4 but no growth in quadrants 1 and 2
  4. No growth in any quadrant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) Where should you label a Petri plate?
  1. On the bottom of the plate
  2. On the inside of the lid
  3. On the side of the lid
  4. On the top of the lid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) In the nitrate reduction test, what color would you expect when reagents A and B are added to an uninoculated control tube?
  1. Blue
  2. Colorless
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) What unit are hemoglobin values expressed in?
  1. %
  2. g/dL
  3. mm/hour
  4. mol/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) When using a standard white blood cell pipette for determining a white blood cell count, you draw the blood to the 0.5 mark. You should then draw the diluting fluid to which mark?
  1. 1.0
  2. 1.5
  3. 11
  4. 101
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) What is Wright's stain used primarily for?
  1. Blood
  2. Fat
  3. Nervous tissue
  4. Elastic fibers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) Red blood cell counts are reported in what unit?
  1. Cells/cm²
  2. Cells/gram
  3. Cells/leukocyte
  4. Cells/liter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Complete blood counts
  3. Malaria
  4. Phenylketonuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) A doctor orders a blood smear for malaria. After collecting an EDTA blood specimen from the patient, the lab technician should prepare the blood smear within:
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle?
  1. 15 degrees
  2. 30 degrees
  3. 45 degrees
  4. 60 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) What is the first step to preparing a peripheral blood smear?
  1. Applying a drop of blood to the slide
  2. Fixing the slide with methanol
  3. Pushing the spreader forward
  4. Staining the slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) Which stain differentiates types of blood cells?
  1. Gram
  2. H&E
  3. Papanicolaou
  4. Romanowsky
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) Which chemical is used to fix blood smears?
  1. Eosin
  2. Methanol
  3. Methylene blue
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) Which of these is a sign of a poorly prepared blood smear?
  1. Covers the majority of the slide
  2. Fills half to three-quarters the length of the slide
  3. Has a consistent thickness throughout
  4. Has feathered edges
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) What does it mean if a lab value is critical?
  1. The patient has a life-threatening condition
  2. The test is malfunctioning and needs calibrating
  3. The value is needed to calculate other lab results
  4. The value must be reported to the doctor within 24 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) Which of these hematology results is critical?
  1. Hemoglobin: 5 g/dL
  2. INR: 2.9 seconds
  3. Neutrophils: 7×10⁹/L
  4. Platelets: 320×10⁹/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Which of these situations would cause random errors?
  1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
  2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
  3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
  4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) Random errors mainly affect:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal validity
  4. precision
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.
  1. Calibration
  2. Drift
  3. Offset error
  4. Unpredictability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?
  1. Environmental
  2. Instrumental
  3. Observational
  4. Theoretical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?
  1. Laboratory quality manual
  2. Safety data sheet
  3. Safety manual
  4. Standard operating procedure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) What kind of chart is a graphical presentation of run-to-run or day-to-day quality control values?
  1. Eadie–Hofstee
  2. Hanes–Woolf
  3. Levey–Jennings
  4. Lineweaver–Burk
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?
  1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
  2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
  3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
  4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance indicator?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Keep thorough records of exposure incidents
  3. Laboratory staff must work under a fume hood when dealing with toxic chemicals
  4. Laboratory turnaround time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) The process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument is called:
  1. calibration
  2. estimation
  3. graduation
  4. mensuration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) A specimen with a known value that is used to ensure the validity and accuracy of test results is called a:
  1. control
  2. norm
  3. result
  4. source
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) During daily quality control for a prothrombin time test, the results fall consistently three standard deviations above the mean. After repeating the test using new reagents and fresh quality control material, the results remain three standard deviations above the mean. What should be the next course of action?
  1. Check the coagulation analyzer
  2. Perform patient testing and multiply all results by 3
  3. Perform patient testing on STAT samples only
  4. Reduce the number of quality control runs to minimize variability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) An acid buffer can be made by mixing a:
  1. strong acid with a strong base
  2. weak acid with a strong base
  3. weak acid with a weak base
  4. weak acid with its salt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) Which equipment is used to measure large amounts of liquids to make reagents?
  1. Centrifuge
  2. Pipette
  3. Test tube
  4. Volumetric flask
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) What color is the anti-human globulin reagent?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) A laboratory technician is running a daily positive control to verify the reactivity of Coombs’ control cells. The technician mixes one drop of Coombs’ control cells with anti-IgG and then centrifuges the mixture. The result is an agglutination of 4+. What does this result indicate?
  1. The result is abnormal; discard the Coombs’ control cells and prepare a new batch
  2. The result is abnormal; discard the anti-IgG and order a new batch
  3. The result is abnormal; rerun the control at a faster centrifugation speed
  4. The result is normal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) Which blood type is used to make Coombs control cells?
  1. AB+
  2. AB−
  3. O+
  4. O−
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?
  1. Daily
  2. Weekly
  3. Monthly
  4. Every three months
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) Which abbreviation applies to a sample of insufficient quantity?
  1. QA
  2. QC
  3. QLA
  4. QNS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) Which of the following is a critical value in an adult?
  1. Cholesterol level of 250 mg/dL
  2. Glucose level of 45 mg/dL
  3. Hemoglobin A1c of 6.5%
  4. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) What is the first action a laboratory professional should take upon identifying a critical value?
  1. Check the test equipment is working correctly
  2. Document the result in the patient's chart
  3. Notify the healthcare provider
  4. Retest the sample to confirm the result
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) Which of these biochemistry results is critical?
  1. ALT of 12 U/L in a pregnant woman during her third trimester
  2. Creatinine of 8 mg/dL in a 13-year-old
  3. Potassium of 4.2 mEq/L in a pre-dialysis patient
  4. Total bilirubin of 0.9 mg/dL in a 1-day-old newborn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.89) What is a solute?
  1. A homogenous mixture of two substances
  2. A liquid that dissolves a substance
  3. A solid that forms from a solution
  4. A substance that gets dissolved
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Waived and point-of-care testing

4.1) Urine that is _______________ may cause a false negative result on a pregnancy test.
  1. high in glucose
  2. high in ketones
  3. too concentrated
  4. too diluted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Where are used lancets discarded?
  1. Biohazard autoclave bag
  2. Plastic recycling bin
  3. Sharps container
  4. The regular garbage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Which of these point-of-care coagulation results requires immediate attention?
  1. A PT of 10 seconds
  2. A PT of 12 seconds in a patient on anticoagulants
  3. An INR of 1.0
  4. An INR of 4.5 for a patient on anticoagulants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Reagent strips are also known as:
  1. dipsticks
  2. probes
  3. urinometers
  4. void sticks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Where is a specimen for a rapid strep test obtained?
  1. Ear canal
  2. Nasopharynx
  3. Nose
  4. Throat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Urine is applied to a pregnancy strip. After several minutes, the strip shows no lines. This means the result is:
  1. inconclusive
  2. invalid
  3. negative
  4. positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which test can rule out a false positive result for bilirubin on a urine strip?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Which of the following is required for a waived urine dipstick test?
  1. Analysis of the sample by a laboratory
  2. Centrifugation of the urine sample
  3. The use of an automated analyzer
  4. Visual inspection of the reagent strip
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Point-of-care glucose tests are waived because:
  1. non-medical professionals perform them
  2. they are always accurate
  3. they are performed in laboratory settings
  4. they require minimal skill and are low-risk
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. The infant may move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To facilitate blood sample collection
  2. To prevent excessive bleeding
  3. To prevent scar formation
  4. To reduce pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?
  1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
  2. Check the test strips are in date
  3. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
  4. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Glucometers measure the level of:
  1. glucagon
  2. glucose
  3. glycogen
  4. insulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?
  1. Cool the finger using an ice pack
  2. Puncture the site again
  3. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
  4. Squeeze the finger
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Glucose point-of-care testing screens for:
  1. glycemia
  2. glycogenolysis
  3. glycolysis
  4. glycosuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To remove pathogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) Which fingers are used for finger puncture?
  1. Little finger and ring finger
  2. Little finger and thumb
  3. Middle finger and ring finger
  4. Ring finger and thumb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Why are capillary puncture sites warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Which of these tests would be collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) Point-of-care coagulation testing requires what sample?
  1. Capillary whole blood
  2. Plasma
  3. Serum
  4. Venous anticoagulated blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) What do C and T mean on a pregnancy test?
  1. Clarity and time
  2. Color and temperature
  3. Consistency and translucency
  4. Control and test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) Where are urine reagent strips stored?
  1. In a cool, dry place
  2. In a jar, exposed to air
  3. In an incubator (37°C)
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Immunoassay
  3. Peripheral smear
  4. Urine hCG test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Laboratory operations

5.1) What are standards of practice?
  1. A definition of competent behavior for professionals
  2. Measures to ensure work is accurate
  3. Rules for how organizations must treat their employees
  4. Rules for students on work placements
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What does "primum non nocere" mean?
  1. First, do good
  2. First, do no harm
  3. Follow the patient's requests
  4. The patient always comes first
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Refer the request to the supervisor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of these helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) A lab assistant overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this?
  1. Accountability
  2. Infection
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) The statement "All tests performed should serve the patient's interests" exemplifies which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Respect for persons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) What does the autonomy principle of bioethics mean?
  1. Self-awareness
  2. Self-governance
  3. Self-promotion
  4. Selfishness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) What are the four pillars of medical ethics?
  1. Beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, autonomy
  2. Dignity, privacy, compassion, accountability
  3. Professionalism, consequentialism, trust, responsibility
  4. Professionalism, sensitivity, integrity, confidentiality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Under which ethical principle do phlebotomists have a duty to obtain consent from patients before drawing blood?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Speaking quickly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) Who is responsible for being aware of laboratory hazards?
  1. The lab assistant
  2. The lab manager
  3. The lab director
  4. Anyone who works in the laboratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) How should you pick up an item of hot glassware?
  1. By pouring cold water on it to cool it down
  2. With a rag or paper towels
  3. With tongs
  4. With your hands
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) If you weigh out too much of a chemical, you should put the extra:
  1. back in the bottle
  2. in a beaker for other lab assistants to use
  3. in a labelled waste container
  4. the trashcan
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Which federal agency regulates the disposal of hazardous waste produced by laboratories?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Which fire extinguisher is used on class D fires?
  1. CO₂
  2. Dry powder
  3. Foam
  4. Water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:
  1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
  2. steps for first aid
  3. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
  4. warning signs of a stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) Flammable materials, like alcohol, should never be used near:
  1. open doors
  2. open flames
  3. sinks
  4. windows
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Refer to the image below: Which of these fires can this fire extinguisher extinguish?
  1. Electrical equipment
  2. Methanol
  3. Oil bath
  4. Cardboard boxes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can extinguish electrical fires
  2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
  3. carries a risk of electric shock
  4. requires charging before use
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) When mixing acid and water:
  1. add the acid quickly to the water
  2. add the acid slowly to the water
  3. add the water quickly to the acid
  4. add the water slowly to the acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) You accidentally breathe in picric acid. After moving outside to fresh air, what should be your next step?
  1. Ask someone to perform artificial respiration
  2. Drink several glasses of water
  3. Self-induce vomiting
  4. Take several deep breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) A spill of liquid nitrogen is dangerous because it can:
  1. catch fire
  2. cause cancer
  3. deplete oxygen in the air
  4. explode
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) By which route do toxic chemicals enter the body by direct skin contact?
  1. Absorption
  2. Ingestion
  3. Inhalation
  4. Injection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) CAS registry numbers are for:
  1. chemicals
  2. pathogens
  3. radioactive materials
  4. safety symbols
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Which of these should you NOT wear in a lab?
  1. Closed-toe shoes
  2. Contact lenses
  3. Glasses
  4. Hairpin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?
  1. During blood collections
  2. During reagent and specimen preparation
  3. While inspecting reagent supplies
  4. While transporting sealed waste containers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) Which of these is personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A fire extinguisher
  2. A first aid kit
  3. A hand-washing station
  4. Gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) You find a colleague unconscious and not breathing. There is no one around to help. What is the first thing you should do?
  1. Call 911
  2. Give chest compressions
  3. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  4. Move your colleague into the recovery position
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?
  1. Face, arm, speech and time
  2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
  3. First airway, second temperature
  4. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) What should you do if someone is having a seizure?
  1. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  2. Hold them down
  3. Put something soft under their head
  4. Put something wooden in their mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) What does ABC stand for in first aid?
  1. Active body control
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Always be careful
  4. Attention, beware, check
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) When administering CPR, give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, the next thing he should do is:
  1. apply a burn ointment to his skin
  2. pour baking soda onto his skin
  3. seek emergency medical assistance
  4. use the emergency safety shower
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) A colleague accidentally spills liquid nitrogen on their hands, resulting in minor frostbite to the fingers. What action should you take?
  1. Immerse his hands in very hot water
  2. Rub his hands vigorously using your own hands
  3. Spray his hands with tepid water
  4. Tell him to shake his hands vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) What does this sign mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Do not eat
  3. General warning
  4. Toxic material
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) Gases under pressure have a pictogram of:
  1. a flame
  2. a flame over a circle
  3. a gas cylinder
  4. an exploding test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Flammable
  3. Oxidizer
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) What does this sign mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Laser beam hazard
  3. Poisonous
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?
  1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
  2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  3. Antibacterial soap and water
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Which pathogen cannot be inactivated by conventional sterilization methods such as autoclaving, 70% ethanol, UV disinfection, and gamma irradiation?
  1. Coccidioides immitis
  2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  3. Prions
  4. Smallpox
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:
  1. does not burn
  2. only ignites after considerable preheating
  3. ignites if moderately heated
  4. can be ignited at normal temperatures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 4 in the yellow quadrant means the substance:
  1. is highly radioactive
  2. is extremely contagious
  3. readily burns at normal temperatures
  4. readily explodes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) Which of these is a container used for heating substances over a Bunsen burner?
  1. Beaker
  2. Crucible
  3. Funnel
  4. Graduated cylinder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) Which piece of lab equipment produces a flame for heating substances?
  1. Bulb pipette
  2. Bunsen burner
  3. Centrifuge
  4. Erlenmeyer flask
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) What is a mortar and pestle used for?
  1. Crushing solids into a powder
  2. Heating substances
  3. Measuring volume
  4. Measuring weight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) What lab equipment is used to measure weight?
  1. Balance
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Thermometer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) Triple beam balances give their readings in what unit?
  1. Grams
  2. Kilograms
  3. Liters
  4. Milliliters
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) What is the temperature of a laboratory refrigerator?
  1. −4°C
  2. 0°C
  3. 3°C
  4. 20°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) Which objective should you begin with when focusing a microscope?
  1. 10x
  2. 40x
  3. 100x
  4. 1000x
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?
  1. Base
  2. Nosepiece
  3. Stage
  4. Tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) A ____________ microscope will remain in focus when you zoom in and out.
  1. divergent
  2. focused
  3. parfocal
  4. unifocal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) What part of a microscope focuses light onto the specimen?
  1. Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Objective lens
  4. Ocular lens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) Which pipette is the most accurate?
  1. Bulb
  2. Graduated
  3. Pasteur
  4. Volumetric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.60) Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip?
  1. Disposable
  2. Micropipette
  3. Serological
  4. Volumetric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.61) Which of these glasswares is designed to deliver specific volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Round-bottom flask
  3. Volumetric flask
  4. Volumetric pipette
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.62) Which item of lab equipment is used to guide substances into a container without spilling them?
  1. Beaker
  2. Crucible
  3. Funnel
  4. Test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.63) Which glassware is in this image?
  1. Beaker
  2. Bulb pipette
  3. Erlenmeyer flask
  4. Test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.64) What is a graduated cylinder used for?
  1. Heating substances
  2. Measuring temperature
  3. Measuring volume
  4. Pouring liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.65) Which lab equipment is used to transfer liquids from one place to another?
  1. Pipette
  2. Stirring rod
  3. Test tube
  4. Wire gauze
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.66) What unit is on graduated cylinders?
  1. Degrees Celcius
  2. Milliliter
  3. Millimeter
  4. Millimeters cubed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.67) Pipettes marked TC are:
  1. allowed to drain freely
  2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
  3. rinsed out after delivery
  4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.68) On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the _____________ position.
  1. highest possible
  2. lowest possible
  3. middle
  4. most comfortable
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.69) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?
  1. Ohmmeter
  2. Rheostat
  3. Tachometer
  4. Voltmeter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.70) Where should used microscope slides be disposed of?
  1. Biological waste bin
  2. Clinical waste bin
  3. General waste bin
  4. Sharps container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.71) Which of these is a benefit of laboratory information systems?
  1. Fewer laboratory-acquired infections
  2. Higher patient cooperation
  3. Increased safety
  4. Reduced paperwork
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.72) What is medical negligence?
  1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
  2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
  3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
  4. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.73) Which agency provides procedures and reagents for rapidly detecting biothreats and emerging infectious diseases?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Service (CMS)
  3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.74) Which not-for-profit organization accredits hospitals that meet patient safety and quality of care standards?
  1. The American Medical Association (AMA)
  2. The American Red Cross
  3. The Joint Commission
  4. The World Health Organization (WHO)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.75) Which federal agency requires employers to provide workers with PPE?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.76) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?
  1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
  2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
  3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  4. Privacy Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.77) Which act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?
  1. Health Care Consent Act
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Act
  3. Privacy Act
  4. SAFETY Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.78) Which law requires safeguards when sending health information by email?
  1. CAN-SPAM Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Privacy Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.79) What federal legislation regulates clinical laboratories?
  1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  2. Federal Clinical Laboratory Orders
  3. Good Clinical Laboratory Practice (GCLP) standards
  4. Laboratory Safety and Security Regulations
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.80) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?
  1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.81) What does HIPAA prohibit?
  1. Diverting legal prescriptions for illegal uses
  2. Refusing treatment to patients based on personal dislike
  3. Sharing health information without the patient's consent
  4. Submitting multiple bills for the same service
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.82) What are the three GHS hazard classes?
  1. Biological, chemical, and radiation
  2. Health, physical, and environmental
  3. Physical, psychosocial, and psychological
  4. Slips, trips, and falls
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.83) Who or what does protective isolation protect?
  1. A patient
  2. Lab equipment
  3. Medical personnel
  4. The general public
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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