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Sections

1. Blood banking
2. Urinalysis and other body fluids
3. Chemistry
4. Hematology
5. Immunology
6. Microbiology
7. Laboratory operations

Section 1: Blood banking

1.1) Antibodies from which antigen system do NOT cause hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

1. ABO
2. Duffy
3. Lewis
4. RhD

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which antibody is only found in people with the Bombay blood group?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-F
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-I

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which immunoglobulin has the most number of subclasses?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Most antibodies produced against Rh antigens are of which class?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which IgG subclass is unable to cross the placenta?

1. IgG1
2. IgG2
3. IgG3
4. IgG4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which test screens maternal blood for the presence of fetal red blood cells?

1. Alpha-fetoprotein screen
2. Chorionic villus sampling
3. Direct antiglobulin test
4. Kleihauer-Betke test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is the sugar of the A antigen?

1. D-galactose
2. Lactose
3. N-acetylgalactosamine
4. N-acetyllactosamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which test detects weak-D antigens?

1. Dᵘ test
2. Kleihauer-Betke Test
3. Microplate test
4. Warm autoadsorption test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Why is hydroxyethyl starch used in leukocytapheresis procedures?

1. To help separate white blood cells from red blood cells
2. To increase the donor’s blood volume
3. To increase the production of white blood cells in the bone marrow
4. To pull granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general circulation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which concentrate carries the lowest risk of HIV and hepatitis?

1. Erythrocyte concentrate
2. Normal serum albumin
3. Platelets concentrate
4. Whole blood transfusion

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. Rhesus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Matching of which three HLA molecules is most important for kidney transplants?

1. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
2. HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR
3. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ
4. HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Low ionic strength saline (LISS) is a potentiator that reduces the _______ potential of red blood cells.

1. alpha
2. beta
3. gamma
4. zeta

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) When administering immune serum globulin therapy, healthcare professionals should be cautious with patients with:

1. AIDS
2. a history of IgA deficiency
3. an immunodeficiency disease
4. idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which of these people is eligible to donate whole blood?

1. A 19-year-old taking antibiotics for acne
2. A man who donated whole blood a month ago
3. A woman who donated whole blood two weeks ago
4. Someone who is HIV positive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Men who want to donate blood need a hematocrit of at least:

1. 9%
2. 19%
3. 29%
4. 39%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) After completing treatment for syphilis or gonorrhea, how long must a donor wait before being eligible to donate blood?

1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?

1. Acute intravascular hemolysis
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Fluid overload
4. Septic shock

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Putting the patient in an upright seated position and providing supplementary oxygen can help for which of the following transfusion reactions?

1. Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)
2. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
3. Transfusion-associated sepsis (TAS)
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) One unit of whole blood should increase the hemoglobin level of a standard adult patient by:

1. 1 g/dL
2. 2 g/dL
3. 3 g/dL
4. 4 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into a patient?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Fresh frozen plasma
3. Frozen washed red cells
4. Granulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Transfusion of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels causes which pathophysiological effect?

1. Decreased carbon dioxide levels
2. Increased cardiac output
3. Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
4. Lower blood viscosity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Leukocyte-reduced blood products reduce the risk of transmitting:

1. HIV
2. cytomegalovirus
3. hepatitis C
4. malaria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) A 35-year-old woman needs three units of red blood cells. The laboratory performs an antibody screen to identify any blood group antibodies. The antibody screen is positive. According to the results of the antibody panel below, which antibody most likely caused the positive result?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Donated blood must be tested for which of these pathogens?

1. Ebola virus
2. Hepatitis A virus
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. West Nile virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which of these questions is found on blood donor questionnaires?

1. Have you been on a plane in the past 6 months?
2. Have you eaten any canned food in the past 48 hours?
3. Have you eaten red meat in the past 12 hours?
4. Have you had a tattoo in the past 3 months?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) A certain gene has two alleles: a dominant allele (A) and a recessive allele (a). If 36% of people in a random population have the homozygous recessive genotype (aa), what is the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?

1. 18%
2. 24%
3. 36%
4. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) The U antigen is part of which antigen system?

1. Duffy
2. Kidd
3. Lewis
4. MNS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) What is the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood group?

1. Jk(a+b+)
2. Jk(a+b-)
3. Jk(a-b+)
4. Jk(a-b-)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) What percentage of Caucasians are positive for the c antigen?

1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 60%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Which of these would result in direct exclusion in paternity testing?

1. Group AB child, group A mother, and group O man
2. Group AB child, group B mother, and group A man
3. Group B child, group B mother, and group AB man
4. Group B child, group O mother, and group AB man

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) If the frequency of a dominant allele in a population is 50%, then what percentage of people are heterozygous?

1. 5%
2. 25%
3. 50%
4. 75%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) If the frequency of a dominant allele in a population is 20%, then what is the frequency of the recessive allele?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 40%
4. 80%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) People with the Jk(a-b-) phenotype are unable to:

1. breathe without the aid of a respirator
2. have children
3. make hemoglobin
4. maximally concentrate urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Anti-G would react with red blood cells with which of these phenotypes?

1. A+ B− C+ D− E−
2. A− B+ C− D− E+
3. A− B+ C− D− E−
4. A− B− C− D− E−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) Besides the ABO and Rh antibodies, what is the most common antibody seen in blood banking?

1. Anti-Fya
2. Anti-Fyb
3. Anti-H
4. Anti-K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Which blood group systems show dosage?

1. ABO, Kidd, P, and Kell
2. ABO, Lutheran, P, and Kell
3. Duffy, Kidd, Rh, and MNS
4. Lewis, Lutheran, Rh, and MNS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Fresh frozen plasma is stored at ____ or colder.

1. −30°C
2. −10°C
3. −6°C
4. 6°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:

1. has clots
2. has white particulate matter
3. is icteric
4. is lipemic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?

1. Glycerol
2. Mannitol
3. Sorbitol
4. Thiol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) At what temperature is cryoprecipitate stored?

1. –18°C or below
2. –2°C to –16°C
3. 2–6°C
4. 21°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?

1. 1 hour
2. 4 hours
3. 24 hours
4. 5 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) According to AABB guidelines, how long can thawed fresh frozen plasma be refrigerated before it must be discarded?

1. 6 hours
2. 12 hours
3. 24 hours
4. 2 days

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) Which donated blood component carries the highest risk for bacterial contamination?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Plasma
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) In a post-delivery maternal blood sample, 40 of 2,000 cells contain fetal hemoglobin. How many vials of Rho(D) immune globulin should be given to the mother?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) Which type of antibody causes hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. IgA
2. IgE
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) Which antigen does Rh immune globulin target to prevent sensitization in Rh-negative mothers?

1. A
2. D
3. E
4. K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) A Rh-negative woman is pregnant with her second child. The first child was Rh-positive. Which test can be used to determine if this second child is at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn?

1. ABO blood typing of the fetus
2. Bilirubin level in umbilical cord blood
3. Direct antiglobulin test on the mother's red cells
4. Indirect antiglobulin test on the mother's serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) A laboratory technician is running a daily positive control to verify the reactivity of Coombs’ control cells. The technician mixes one drop of Coombs’ control cells with anti-IgG and then centrifuges the mixture. The result is an agglutination of 4+. What does this result indicate?

1. The result is abnormal; discard the Coombs’ control cells and prepare a new batch
2. The result is abnormal; discard the anti-IgG and order a new batch
3. The result is abnormal; rerun the control at a faster centrifugation speed
4. The result is normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Which of these substances enhances antibody reactivity in antibody screening tests?

1. EDTA
2. Elution buffer
3. Polyethylene glycol
4. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) If the screening cells, auto control, and all panel cells react during the antihuman globulin phase of antibody screening, it suggests the presence of a specific type of autoantibody. Which autoantibody is it?

1. Anti-D
2. Anti-K
3. Cold
4. Warm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) What does a positive result on the direct antibody test indicate?

1. Antibodies or complement are bound to the red blood cells
2. Normal result
3. The patient has a specific antibody in their serum or plasma
4. The serum contains anti-HBc and/or anti-HBcAb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) A patient's blood sample has a negative result on a direct antiglobulin test. To verify the result, the technician adds Coombs control cells to the test. When the Coombs control cells are added, no agglutination is observed. Which of these is a correct interpretation?

1. The original negative test result is valid
2. The patient has antibodies against their own red blood cells
3. The saline washings were adequate
4. The test needs to be repeated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) Why is incubation omitted in the direct antiglobulin test?

1. Incubation will cause hemolysis
2. The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
3. The direct antiglobulin test is used if there is not enough time to perform the indirect test
4. The direct antiglobulin test only detects IgM antibodies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) Which type of anemia does the direct antiglobulin test identify?

1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. Iron deficiency anemia
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. Vitamin deficiency anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) Which of these medications can cause a false positive result on the direct antiglobulin test?

1. Aspirin
2. Clopidogrel
3. Levothyroxine
4. Penicillin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) A patient with type B+ blood requires an emergency blood transfusion. He receives three units of packed red blood cells from an O– donor. Shortly after the transfusion, he starts experiencing fever, nausea, hypotension, and shock. His condition worsens and he begins showing signs of hemoglobinuria, DIC, and kidney failure. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Circulatory overload
3. Febrile
4. Septic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Which of these transfusion reactions is delayed?

1. Transfusion-associated circulatory overload
2. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
3. Transfusion-associated sepsis
4. Transfusion-related acute lung injury

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) A patient returns to the hospital one week after a blood transfusion with symptoms of unexpected bleeding. A complete blood count reveals a platelet count of 8,600 uL. What is the most likely cause?

1. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
2. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
3. Post-transfusion purpura
4. Transfusion-associated graft vs. host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) Which of these is a symptom of transfusion-associated circulatory overload?

1. High oxygen levels in the blood
2. Low blood pressure
3. Shortness of breath
4. Slow heart rate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) A patient's temperature rises by 2°C while receiving a blood transfusion. There are no abnormal results in the transfusion reaction investigation. Which transfusion reaction is the patient experiencing?

1. Allergic
2. Anaphylactic
3. Febrile non-hemolytic
4. Hemolytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which transfusion reaction can chelating agents prevent?

1. Delayed serologic/hemolytic transfusion reaction
2. Iron overload
3. Post-transfusion purpura
4. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) Six hours after a blood transfusion, a patient presents with pain at the infusion site, back, chest, and flank. The patient's urine is dark brown. Tests reveal the patient has hemoglobinemia, hemoglobinuria, and hypotension. What is the likely cause?

1. Acute hemolytic reaction
2. TRALI
3. Transfusion-associated graft-versus-host disease
4. Transfusion-associated sepsis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) What is the most common Rh phenotype in African Americans?

1. DCe/dce
2. DcE/DcE
3. Dce/dce
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) A patient has the Rh genotype R¹R¹. What is the patient's genotype in the Fisher-Race nomenclature?

1. DCe/DCe
2. dCe/dCe
3. dcE/dcE
4. dce/dce

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Which red blood cell abnormality is associated with the Rh-null phenotype?

1. Acanthocytosis
2. Elliptocytosis
3. Schistocytosis
4. Stomatocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) What percentage of people in the United States are Rh-negative?

1. 15%
2. 30%
3. 50%
4. 70%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which Rh antigen has the highest frequency in Blacks and Caucasians?

1. D
2. E
3. c
4. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) On which chromosome are the RHD and RHCE genes?

1. Chromosome 1
2. Chromosome 3
3. Chromosome 5
4. Chromosome 7

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) A patient with an Rh genotype of DCe/DCe receives a transfusion of red blood cells from a donor with an Rh genotype of Dce/Dce. Which alloantibody is the patient most likely to produce in response to the donor blood?

1. Anti-C
2. Anti-D
3. Anti-E
4. Anti-c

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-A₁		A₁ cells	B cells
4+	0	0		2+	4+

What is the patient's ABO subtype?

1. A₁
2. A₂
3. A₁B
4. A₂B

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) A patient's blood type testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping				Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B	anti-D		A₁ cells	B cells
0	4+	0		4+	0

What is the patient's blood group?

1. A+
2. A−
3. B+
4. B−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows:

Red cell grouping			Serum grouping
anti-A	anti-B		A cells	B cells
4+	1+		0	4+

What is the likely cause of these results?

1. Acquired B
2. Chimerism
3. Hypogammaglobulinemia
4. Immunosuppression

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) The pedigree chart below shows a type AB father, a type O mother, and their four children: How many of the four children would be expected to have type A blood?

1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) A man has the genotype AO and a woman has the genotype AB. What are the possible phenotypes of their offspring?

1. A and B
2. AB and B
3. AB, A and B
4. AB, B and A

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	+	0	+	+

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype in Fisher-Race notation?

1. DCe/DCe
2. DCe/DcE
3. DCe/dce
4. Dce/dCe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.77) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows:

anti-D	anti-C	anti-E	anti-c	anti-e
+	0	+	+	0

What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype in Wiener notation?

1. R²R²
2. R²r''
3. R¹R¹
4. R¹r

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Section 2: Urinalysis and other body fluids

2.1) Which term means the abnormal build-up of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?

1. Ascites
2. Cellulitis
3. Edema
4. Paracentesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) Which of the following causes of nephrotic syndrome is most commonly seen in children?

1. AL amyloidosis
2. Focal segmental glomerular sclerosis
3. Membranous nephropathy
4. Minimal change disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Which two amino acids cause alkaptonuria?

1. Histidine and methionine
2. Threonine and tryptophan
3. Tyrosine and phenylalanine
4. Valine and isoleucine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Bence Jones proteins are:

1. monoclonal free heavy chains
2. monoclonal free light chains
3. polyclonal free heavy chains
4. polyclonal free light chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) People with maple syrup urine disease cannot break down which three amino acids?

1. Alanine, tyrosine, and histidine
2. Glycine, glutamine, and serine
3. Leucine, isoleucine, and valine
4. Proline, threonine, and phenylalanine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?

1. Angle head
2. Cytocentrifuge
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Cerebrospinal fluid is collected by:

1. amniocentesis
2. lumbar puncture
3. paracentesis
4. thoracentesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Which test can rule out a false positive result for bilirubin on a urine strip?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) The presence of Bence-Jones protein in a urine sample most likely indicates:

1. Fanconi syndrome
2. multiple myeloma
3. renal osteodystrophy
4. uremic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) The presence of which of these substances is abnormal in synovial fluid?

1. Fibrin
2. Hyaluronan
3. Lubricin
4. Proteinase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What is the specific gravity of isosthenuric urine?

1. 0.998–1.002
2. 1.000–1.004
3. 1.004–1.008
4. 1.008–1.012

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which urinary cast is associated with strenuous exercise?

1. Granular
2. Hyaline
3. Red blood cell
4. Waxy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) A urine specimen is positive for white blood cells and white blood cell casts but negative for bacteria. This most likely indicates:

1. diabetes mellitus
2. interstitial nephritis
3. nephrotic syndrome
4. pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) The presence of red blood cell casts in urine is most indicative of which disease?

1. Glomerulonephritis
2. Lower urinary tract obstruction
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Pyelonephritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:

1. a Proteus infection
2. a yeast infection
3. diabetes
4. hepatitis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 45-year-old male:

Parameter	Result
Color	Pale yellow
Appearance	Foamy
Specific gravity	1.030
pH	6.5
Glucose	Negative
Protein	2+
Bacteria	Negative
WBC	Negative
Fatty casts	Many
Oval fat bodies	Many

What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Cystitis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Polycystic kidney disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) In which kidney disease are large numbers of neutrophils seen in the kidney tubules, interstitium, and collecting ducts?

1. Acute pyelonephritis
2. Chronic glomerulonephritis
3. Nephrotic syndrome
4. Renal agenesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:

1. dissolved solids
2. salt content
3. sugar content
4. turbidity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) A patient with fatigue and nausea has the following urinalysis results:

Test	Result
pH	5.5
Glucose	0 mg/dL
GFR	31
UACR	61 mg/g

No blood or abnormal cells can be seen in the urine. Based on these results, which disease does the patient most likely have?

1. Bladder cancer
2. Diabetes
3. Kidney disease
4. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?

1. Catecholamines
2. Creatinine clearance
3. Ketones
4. Ketosteroids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) The presence of epithelial cell casts in urine indicates:

1. liver disease
2. nephrotic syndrome
3. pyelonephritis
4. renal tubular damage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) In serum protein electrophoresis tests, M spikes are most commonly seen in which region?

1. Alpha 2
2. Beta 1
3. Beta 2
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) A 45-year-old patient begins a course of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Two days later he presents with symptoms of an allergic reaction, including fever, rash, and arthralgia. The patient's urine is positive for proteinuria, hematuria, and pyuria. Microscopic urinalysis reveals white blood cell casts. Staining of the urine reveals eosinophiluria. What type of kidney damage do these results suggest?

1. Acute interstitial nephritis
2. Acute tubular necrosis
3. Glomerulonephritis
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Rice bodies are most commonly found in which health disorder?

1. Crohn's disease
2. Iron deficiency
3. Lung carcinoma
4. Rheumatoid arthritis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Oligoclonal bands in cerebrospinal fluid suggest which health problem?

1. Acromegaly
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Hydrocephalus
4. Multiple sclerosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Lamellar body count assesses:

1. Down syndrome
2. fetal lung maturity
3. hemolytic disease of the newborn
4. spina bifida

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) The red blood cell count in the first tube of cerebrospinal fluid collected is significantly higher than in the last tube collected. Which complication should be suspected?

1. Infection
2. Nerve damage
3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4. Traumatic tap

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) What does green amniotic fluid indicate?

1. Cervical stenosis
2. Failure of the cervical mucus to develop into a plug
3. Meconium in the womb
4. Premature detachment of the placenta from the uterus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which of these crystals is abnormal in urine?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) The following crystals were found in a patient's urine: What are these crystals?

1. Acyclovir
2. Cystine
3. Indinavir
4. Struvite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in a urine sample are most likely:

1. ammonium biurate
2. calcium oxalate
3. hippuric acid
4. uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Microscopic examination of the urine of a patient with kidney stones reveals amber, barrel-shaped crystals. The pH of the urine is 5.5. What are the crystals?

1. Calcium carbonate
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Triple phosphate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) If a patient is admitted with ethylene glycol poisoning, what crystals would you expect to find in the patient's urine?

1. Ammonium biurate
2. Calcium oxalate
3. Hippuric acid
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) The following crystal was found in a patient's urine: From this finding, which medication can you assume the patient is taking?

1. Fluticasone
2. Sulfadiazine
3. Testosterone
4. Tizanidine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Identify these urine crystals:

1. Calcium phosphate
2. Cystine
3. Hippurate
4. Uric acid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Which drug is benzoylecgonine a metabolite of?

1. Benzodiazepine
2. Cocaine
3. Marijuana
4. Methamphetamine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) Which type of microscope is best for viewing crystals in a sample of joint fluid?

1. Fluorescent light
2. Light
3. Polarized light
4. Ultraviolet

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Section 3: Chemistry

3.1) Calculate the pH value of a buffer solution composed of 0.20 M acetic acid and 0.50 M acetate ion, given that the acid dissociation constant for acetic acid is 1.8 x 10⁻⁵.

1. 2.55
2. 3.48
3. 4.82
4. 5.14

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Kernicterus is caused by an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in which organ?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lung

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct?

1. Hepatocellular
2. Neonatal
3. Post-hepatic
4. Pre-hepatic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Most cases of tetany are caused by a deficiency of which mineral?

1. Calcium
2. Phosphorous
3. Potassium
4. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) CK-MB is found mostly in which organ?

1. Brain
2. Heart
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Which gland secretes cortisol?

1. Adrenal
2. Pineal
3. Pituitary
4. Thymus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which hormone increases calcium levels?

1. Calcitonin
2. Corticotropin
3. Epinephrine
4. Parathyroid hormone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?

1. T0
2. T1
3. T2
4. T3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme is found mainly in the lungs?

1. LDH-1
2. LDH-2
3. LDH-3
4. LDH-4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) During pregnancy, estriol is synthesized from:

1. 16a-hydroxyl-DHEA-s
2. cholesterol sulfate
3. estrogen
4. pregnenolone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which organ is the main secretor of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Vitamin B9 and B12 deficiencies cause the body to produce which type of abnormal red blood cells?

1. Megaloblasts
2. Sickle cells
3. Spherocytes
4. Stomatocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) A 22-year-old man complains of anxiety, weight loss, and fatigue. The results of a thyroid function test are as follows:

Test	Result	Reference range
TSH	<0.1 mIU/L	0.5–5.0 mIU/L
T4	32.0 pmol/L	8.0–18.0 pmol/L

Which thyroid problem best fits these results?

1. Primary hyperthyroidism
2. Primary hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
4. Secondary hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Women who have had gestational diabetes have an increased risk of developing:

1. ovarian cysts
2. shingles
3. type I diabetes
4. type II diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) High levels of which lipoprotein are associated with a decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?

1. Chylomicrons
2. HDL
3. LDL
4. VLDL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
Total protein level	8.3 g/dL
Albumin level	3.4 g/dL

What is the patient's calculated globulin?

1. 0.4 g/dL
2. 2.4 g/dL
3. 4.9 g/dL
4. 11.7 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) A patient has the following test results:

Test	Result
Sodium	140 mEq/L
Glucose	360 mg/dL
BUN	5.6 mg/dL

Using the Dorwart and Chalmers formula, calculate the patient's serum osmolality.

1. 107.4 mOsm/kg
2. 193.9 mOsm/kg
3. 282.4 mOsm/kg
4. 382.9 mOsm/kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) A patient has a CK-MB of 25.0 ng/mL and a total CK of 500 U/L. Calculate the relative index.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) A patient has an A1c of 10.0%. To the nearest mg/dL, calculate an estimate of the patient's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.

1. 220 mg/dL
2. 240 mg/dL
3. 260 mg/dL
4. 280 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which stain is used to stain lipids?

1. Gram's stain
2. H&E
3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
4. Sudan IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which of these conditions can cause hyperalbuminemia?

1. Dehydration
2. Kidney disease
3. Liver cirrhosis
4. Thyroid disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Refer to the serum protein electrophoresis patterns below. Which disease does the abnormal pattern indicate?

1. Hepatic cirrhosis
2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
3. Monoclonal gammopathy
4. Nephrotic syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Metformin
3. Sertraline
4. Warfarin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) If a potassium calibration standard is under-diluted, patient results would be:

1. falsely high
2. falsely low
3. less precise
4. more precise

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) A patient with leukocytosis has an extremely high serum potassium result. An ECG shows none of the abnormalities that would be expected for hyperkalemia. What is the most likely cause of the abnormal potassium result?

1. Contamination with a gadolinium MRI contrast agent
2. Interference from a blood pressure medication such as furosemide
3. Low level of magnesium in the blood
4. Rupture of blood cells in the blood sample

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which of these tests should be kept away from the light?

1. Magnesium
2. Magnesium
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) A 40-year-old man weighing 70 kg has a serum creatinine level of 1.00 mg/dL. Using the Cockroft-Gault equation, estimate the man's creatinine clearance in mL per minute.

1. 97.2
2. 102.7
3. 107.3
4. 112.9

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What is the normal range for blood sodium levels?

1. 76–85 mEq/L
2. 96–105 mEq/L
3. 116–125 mEq/L
4. 136–145 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) The results of which patient are consistent with fluid overload?

Patient	Gender	Creatinine	BUN
1	Male	1.5 mg/dL	33 mg/dL
2	Female	0.4 mg/dL	1.4 mg/dL
3	Female	1.1 mg/dL	9.5 mg/dL
4	Male	0.8 mg/dL	19.9 mg/dL

1. Patient 1
2. Patient 2
3. Patient 3
4. Patient 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

1. 0.4–5 mU/L
2. 5.4–10 mU/L
3. 10.4–15 mU/L
4. 15.4–20 mU/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) The normal oxygen saturation in blood is ____ or higher.

1. 50%
2. 66%
3. 90%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which of these blood test results is abnormal and could indicate dehydration?

1. Glucose: 95 mg/dL
2. BUN: 15 mg/dL
3. Chloride: 135 mEq/L
4. Sodium: 140 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Which of these serum electrolyte results is abnormal?

1. Calcium: 9.1 mg/dL
2. Chloride: 110 mEq/L
3. Potassium: 6.5 mEq/L
4. Sodium: 140 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which protein is most iron in the body bound to?

1. Ferritin
2. Fibrin
3. Hemoglobin
4. Myoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?

1. Albumin
2. Heme
3. Urobilin
4. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which condition best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	High
PaCO₂	Low
Bicarbonate	Low
Base excess	Low

1. Decreased bicarbonate absorption
2. Hyperventilation
3. Hypoventilation
4. Increased bicarbonate absorption

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) What blood gas results would be expected for a patient with kidney failure?

1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) What is the Henderson-Hasselbach equation?

1. ph = pKa + log(conjugate base/acid)
2. PAO₂ = PiO₂ − PaCO₂/R
3. O₂ saturation = Hb × 1.34 + pO₂ × 0.003
4. pCO₂ = 1.5 [HCO₃] + 8

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which type of alkalosis best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	8.15
PaCO₂	41.3 mmHg
Bicarbonate	49 mEq/L

1. Compensated metabolic
2. Compensated respiratory
3. Uncompensated metabolic
4. Uncompensated respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. What should the laboratory do?

1. Perform the test ASAP
2. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
3. Request a new sample
4. Request a venous blood specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Which type of acidosis best explains the arterial blood gas results below?

Test	Result
pH	7.15
PaCO₂	59 mmHg
Bicarbonate	39 mEq/L

1. Compensated metabolic
2. Compensated respiratory
3. Uncompensated metabolic
4. Uncompensated respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) An arterial blood sample has a pCO₂ of 50 mm Hg and a bicarbonate level of 20 mmol/L. Calculate the pH of the sample.

1. 7.1
2. 7.3
3. 7.5
4. 7.7

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) A 35-year-old man undergoes an annual blood test. His results are as follows:

Test	Result
Glucose	93 mg/dL
Creatinine	1.6 mg/dL
Urea	14 mg/dL
Sodium	141 mEq/L
Potassium	3.9 mEq/L
AST	276 U/L
ALT	134 U/L
GGT	51 U/L
PAL	91 U/L

These results suggest:

1. diabetes mellitus
2. hemorrhagic rectocolitis
3. hepatic cytolysis
4. muscular cytolysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) Which cancer does the cancer antigen 27-29 test monitor?

1. Breast
2. Liver
3. Ovarian
4. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which organ does the bile acid test assess?

1. Bladder
2. Kidney
3. Liver
4. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) What is the formula for calculating the percent transmittance of a solution from its absorbance?

1. antilog (1 – absorbance)
2. antilog (2 – absorbance)
3. log (1 + absorbance)
4. log (2 + absorbance)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Beer's Law states that absorbance =

1. concentration × (molar attenuation coefficient / path length)
2. concentration × (path length / molar attenuation coefficient)
3. molar attenuation coefficient × (concentration / path length)
4. molar attenuation coefficient × concentration × path length

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Which enzyme, found mainly in skeletal muscle, the heart, and the brain, is associated with muscle damage and myocardial infarction?

1. ALT
2. AST
3. Creatine kinase
4. Lipase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) In total bilirubin assays, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:

1. azobilirubin
2. bilirubin glucuronide
3. biliverdin
4. diazobilirubin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Refer to the illustration below: What is the name of this type of plot?

1. Eadie-Hofstee plot
2. Hanes–Woolf plot
3. Lineweaver-Burk plot
4. Michaelis-Menten plot

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) A patient has low cortisol. After an adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) injection, the patient's cortisol levels are still low. The patient most likely has:

1. Addison's disease
2. Cretinism
3. Cushing‘s syndrome
4. Cushing’s disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) What does a high value on the anion gap test indicate?

1. Acidosis
2. Alkalosis
3. Anemia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Triglycerides	230 mg/dL
Cholesterol	280 mg/dL
HDL	55 mg/dL

Calculate the patient's LDL.

1. 119 mg/dL
2. 149 mg/dL
3. 159 mg/dL
4. 179 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) Which of these analytes can be analyzed by headspace gas chromatography?

1. Folate
2. Hemoglobin
3. Methanol
4. Oestrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) Which of these is a liver function test?

1. AST test
2. Creatine kinase test
3. Creatinine test
4. Troponin test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) What does the PKU test detect?

1. A genetic defect in metabolism
2. A sex-linked anemia
3. A viral disease
4. Severe kidney disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) The Biuret test detects the presence of which chemical bond?

1. Disulfide
2. Hydrogen
3. Ionic
4. Peptide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) The graph below shows the levels of phosphatidylinositol and phosphatidylglycerol in the amniotic fluid of a pregnant woman from weeks 20 to 40 of her pregnancy. The graph indicates that the fetus:

1. has omphalocele
2. has Down syndrome
3. has lung immaturity
4. is normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?

1. 5.0
2. 5.6
3. 6.5
4. 8.6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) A patient has a measured osmolality of 283 mOsm/kg and a calculated osmolality of 275 mOsm/kg. Calculate the osmolal gap.

1. 0.97 mOsm/kg
2. 1.03 mOsm/kg
3. 8 mOsm/kg
4. 556 mOsm/kg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?

1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
3. Just after drug administration
4. Just before drug administration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:

1. arrhythmia
2. kidney function impairment
3. pregnancy
4. prolonged hypothermia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) High levels of troponin indicate damage to which organ?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) A 36-year-old woman complains of fatigue, depression, and weight gain. The results of a thyroid function test are as follows:

Test	Result	Reference range
TSH	10.2 mIU/L	0.5–5.0 mIU/L
T4	2.1 pmol/L	8.0-18.0 pmol/L

Which thyroid problem best fits these results?

1. Primary hyperthyroidism
2. Primary hypothyroidism
3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
4. Secondary hypothyroidism

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) How does the Friedewald formula calculate LDL cholesterol?

1. Total cholesterol – HDL cholesterol – triglycerides
2. Total cholesterol – HDL cholesterol – triglycerides/5
3. Total cholesterol – HDL cholesterol/2.2 – triglycerides/10
4. Total cholesterol – HDL cholesterol/8.8 – triglycerides

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) The colorimetric method uses bromcresol purple to measure:

1. albumin
2. calcium
3. globulin
4. magnesium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) Calculate the anion gap from these results:

Test	Result
Sodium	130 mEq/L
Potassium	5 mEq/L
Chloride	100 mEq/L
Bicarbonate	25 mEq/L

1. 5 mEq/L
2. 10 mEq/L
3. 15 mEq/L
4. 20 mEq/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) Which type of chemical bond is the arrow pointing to in the illustration below?

1. Disulfide bridge
2. Hydrogen bond
3. Ionic bond
4. Peptide bond

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) Which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high when taken in high doses?

1. Biotin
2. Cobalamin
3. Thiamine
4. Vitamin D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) Which vitamins are fat-soluble?

1. A, B, C, D, and K
2. A, C, and E
3. A, D, E, and K
4. B, C, D, and K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) Which vitamin is essential for blood coagulation?

1. A
2. C
3. E
4. K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) Niacin deficiency results in which disease?

1. Ariboflavinosis
2. Pellagra
3. Rickets
4. Scurvy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) Which B vitamin is involved in the transamination of amino acids?

1. B1
2. B2
3. B6
4. B9

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Section 4: Hematology

4.1) Which term means a condition where red blood cells are of different sizes?

1. Anisocytosis
2. Erythrocytosis
3. Heterocytosis
4. Pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) In a platelet aggregation study, a patient's platelets aggregate normally in response to adenosine diphosphate, epinephrine, and collagen. However, the platelets do not aggregate in response to ristocetin, even after normal plasma is added. Which clotting disorder does the patient have?

1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
2. Hereditary factor Xa deficiency
3. Parahemophilia
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Which marker helps distinguish acute lymphocytic leukemia from malignant lymphoma?

1. Acid phosphatase
2. Human chorionic gonadotropin
3. Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which leukemia best correlates with these results?

Test	Result
WBC	2.3 x 10⁹/L
RBC	3.2 x 10¹²/L
Platelets	35 x 10⁹
Blasts in bone marrow:	41%

1. Acute lymphoblastic
2. Acute monoblastic
3. Chronic myelogenous
4. Chronic myelomonocytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A patient is positive for the Philadelphia chromosome and negative for acute lymphoblastic leukemia. What is the most likely diagnosis?

1. Chronic lymphoblastic leukemia
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Blood tests reveal high levels of lymphocytes. Under a microscope, the lymphocytes look small and abnormal. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Blood tests reveal high levels of immature white blood cells, many of which are myeloblasts. Red blood cell levels are low and platelet levels are low. Which type of leukemia best fits these results?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Acute myeloid leukemia
3. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) ZAP-70 is a prognostic marker for which type of leukemia?

1. Acute lymphoblastic
2. Acute myelogenous
3. Chronic lymphocytic
4. Chronic myeloid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Which FAB group of acute lymphoblastic leukemias has basophilic cells with prominent cytoplasmic vacuoles?

1. L1
2. L2
3. L3
4. L4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Which factor contributes to severe anemia in people with chronic renal failure?

1. Blockage of the blood supply to the brain
2. Decreased renal production of erythropoietin
3. The inability of the intestines to absorb vitamin B12 and iron
4. The inability of the pancreas to produce insulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Along with the mean cell volume, which other test is used to morphologically classify anemias?

1. Hematocrit
2. Hemoglobin
3. Red blood count
4. Red cell blood distribution width

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which of these results best correlates with sickle cell anemia?

1. Hgb 10.0 g/dL, Hct 10%, WBC 8.0×10⁹/L
2. Hgb 11.0 g/dL, Hct 31%, WBC 11.0×10⁹/L
3. Hgb 5.0 g/dL, Hct 17%, WBC 13.0×10⁹/L
4. Hgb 8.0 g/dL, Hct 42%, WBC 10.0×10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) Which of these hematocrit values correlates with untreated pernicious anemia?

1. 29%
2. 43%
3. 64%
4. 81%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Which morphological classification best describes hemolytic anemia?

1. Macrocytic and hypochromic
2. Macrocytic and normochromic
3. Microcytic and hypochromic
4. Normocytic and normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) What causes anemia in chronic kidney disease patients?

1. Atypical hemoglobin shape
2. Destruction of red blood cells earlier than normal
3. Inadequate erythropoietin production
4. Iron deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Which type of hemolytic anemia is caused by the Donath-Landsteiner antibody?

1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
2. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
3. Sickle cell anemia
4. Thalassemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) A 23-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weakness, and heart palpitations. The results of a serum iron test are as follows:

Test	Result	Normal range
Serum iron concentration	28 mcg/dL	60–170 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity	789 mcg/dL	240–450 mcg/dL

Based on these results, which type of anemia does the patient most likely have?

1. Hemolytic
2. Iron deficiency
3. Sickle cell
4. Vitamin deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) A 36-year-old man complains of tiredness and headaches. Blood tests reveal low vitamin B12 levels, low erythrocyte levels, and the presence of antibodies to intrinsic factor. The patient's MCHC is normal but the MCV is high. Which disease does the patient most likely have?

1. Aplastic anemia
2. Pernicious anemia
3. Polycythemia
4. Sickle-cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) A patient's serum iron test results are as follows:

Test	Result
Serum iron concentration	110 mcg/dL
Total iron-binding capacity	440 mcg/dL

Calculate the percentage transferrin saturation.

1. 4%
2. 5%
3. 10%
4. 25%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. ESR
3. Hct
4. Hgb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What does the term "left shift" mean in hematology?

1. A decrease in the average size of red blood cells
2. A genetic disorder affecting the structure of hemoglobin
3. An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
4. The presence of glomerular-type red blood cells in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Which of these enzymes is assayed in acute myocardial infarction?

1. Acetylcholinesterase
2. Creatine kinase
3. DNA polymerase
4. Trypsin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) Blood test results from an automated analyzer show a low red blood cell count, a low hematocrit, and a high MCV, MCH, and MCHC. Under a microscope, agglutination of red blood cells is observed. What step should be taken next?

1. Add kanamycin to the specimen and rerun the analysis
2. Dilute the specimen with isotonic diluent by a factor of 1:2 and rerun the analysis
3. Incubate the blood specimen at 37°C for 10–15 minutes and rerun the analysis
4. Mix the blood by vortex at the highest setting for 1–2 minutes and rerun the analysis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) An anemic patient has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
RBC	3.6×10⁶ cells/mcL
WBC	6.7×10⁹ cells/L
Hct	15%
Hgb	11.2 g/dL
Reticulocyte percentage	9%

Given a maturation correction of 2.5 and assuming a normal hematocrit of 45%, calculate the reticulocyte production index.

1. 1.2%
2. 1.5%
3. 1.8%
4. 2.1%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) A patient has the following results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.3 × 10¹²/L
Hematocrit	43%
Hemoglobin	21 g/dL
MCH	39 pg
MCHC	45 g/dL

Which condition explains the results?

1. Fluid overload
2. Lipemia
3. Polycythemia
4. Thrombocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) The image below shows the changes in the production of five globin chains during an infant's perinatal and early postnatal period. Which color line represents beta globin production?

1. Dark blue
2. Light blue
3. Red
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:

1. changes in cell electrical currents
2. color absorption changes
3. diffusion
4. high-frequency sound waves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows:

Score	Neutrophils
0	10
+1	40
+2	30
+3	10
+4	10

Which condition most likely explains the result?

1. Chronic myeloid leukemia
2. Leukemoid reaction
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) Platelet satellitism can occur in blood samples containing which additive?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium fluoride
4. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which disorder correlates with these findings?

Test	Result
PLT	35 × 10⁹/L
HGB	72 g/L
INR	1.5
D-Dimer	22 mg/L

1. Acquired B
2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
3. Folate deficiency anemia
4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) A patient has a high red blood cell count, a high hematocrit, a high hemoglobin level, and a low erythrocyte sedimentation rate. Which of the following terms best describes the patient's condition?

1. Anemia
2. Polycythemia
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Tuberculosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) A patient has a leukocyte count of 2.9 × 10⁹/L. What is the term for this type of cell count?

1. Leukemia
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukodystrophy
4. Leukopenia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) A woman has the following blood test results:

Test	Result
Red cell count	7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count	7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets	242 × 10⁹/L

What term applies to these results?

1. Hypererythrocytosis
2. Leukocytosis
3. Leukopenia
4. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) Which factor deficiency correlates with the following results?

Test	Result
PT	22 seconds
APTT	79 seconds
Fibrinogen	0.5 g/L

1. Factor I
2. Factor IV
3. Factor III
4. Factor VI

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) The following lab results were obtained:

Test	Result
Bleeding time	Prolonged
Platelet adhesiveness	Abnormal
PT	Normal
APTT	Normal
CBC	Normal

These findings are most consistent with which inherited autosomal dominant trait?

1. Factor X deficiency
2. Factor XI deficiency
3. Hemophilia A
4. Von Willebrand disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Deficiency of which of the following factors would lead to a prolonged prothrombin time?

1. Factor IX
2. Factor V
3. Factor VIII
4. Factor XI

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Patients with which of the following diseases would have a normal partial thromboplastin time (PTT)?

1. Factor V Leiden
2. Hemophilia A
3. Hemophilia B
4. Vitamin K deficiency

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) What are the PT and aPTT results of a patient with factor II deficiency?

1. Normal PT and normal aPTT
2. Normal PT and prolonged aPTT
3. Prolonged PT and normal aPTT
4. Prolonged PT and prolonged aPTT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which red blood cell morphology is associated with iron deficiency anemia?

1. Macrocytic hypochromic
2. Macrocytic normochromic
3. Microcytic hypochromic
4. Normocytic normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which red blood cell morphology is seen in acute blood loss?

1. Macrocytic hyperchromic
2. Macrocytic normochromic
3. Microcytic hypochromic
4. Normocytic normochromic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) What does a wide distribution curve on a blood cell histogram indicate?

1. The blood cells are all roughly the same size
2. The blood cells are larger than normal
3. The blood cells are smaller than normal
4. The blood cells are unequal in size

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) In healthy individuals, the hematocrit is roughly equal to three times the:

1. hemoglobin
2. mean corpuscular volume
3. red blood cell count
4. white blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) Which red blood cell index is the average amount of hemoglobin in a single red blood cell?

1. MCH
2. MCV
3. RBC
4. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) Calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) from these results.

Test	Result
RBC	5.0 × 10¹²/L
WBC	8.5 × 10⁹/L
PLT	320 × 10⁹/L
Hct	40%
Hgb	14.5 g/dL

1. 20 fL
2. 30 fL
3. 50 fL
4. 80 fL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) A patient has the following hematology results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.21×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin	133 g/L
Hematocrit	0.397

Use the results to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC).

1. 10.9 g/dL
2. 25.1 g/dL
3. 31.6 g/dL
4. 33.5 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?

1. 10x
2. 40x
3. 50x
4. 70x

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) A blood smear is performed for a neonate with low hemoglobin levels: Based on the blood smear, which disease does the neonate have?

1. Acute lymphocytic leukemia
2. Hemophilia A
3. Multiple myeloma
4. Sickle cell anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) Which abnormal red blood cells are in the blood smear below?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) Which type of red blood cell is the arrow pointing to in the blood smear below?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) Which white blood cell contains granules that stain orange?

1. Eosinophil
2. Mature neutrophil
3. Monocyte
4. Small lymphocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) Which abnormal red blood cells are in the blood smear below?

1. Acanthocytes
2. Dacrocytes
3. Echinocytes
4. Schistocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) A 42-year-old man with liver cirrhosis presents to the emergency ward with confusion and anemia. A peripheral blood smear is performed: Which abnormal red blood cells are in the blood smear?

1. Burr
2. Sickle
3. Spur
4. Target

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) A 70 kg non-bleeding man has a hematocrit of 31%. How many units of red blood cells are needed to raise his hematocrit to 40%?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?

1. Hemolysis
2. Hyperbilirubinemia
3. Hyperthyroidism
4. Hypertriglyceridemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Which of these hematology tests is outside the normal range?

1. PLT: 257 × 10⁹/L
2. RBC: 7.2 × 10¹²/L
3. WBC: 5.4 × 10⁹/L
4. WBC: 8.1 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) The normal adult range for platelet count is ______________ per nanoliter of blood.

1. 150–450
2. 250–550
3. 350–650
4. 450–750

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?

1. Hematocrit: 36%
2. MCH: 32 pg
3. MCV: 90 80 fL
4. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) Which protein binds to free hemoglobin?

1. Cryoglobulin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Haptoglobin
4. Methemoglobin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) How many oxygen molecules can bind to a hemoglobin molecule?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) Hemoglobin A consists of:

1. five alpha chains
2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
3. three delta chains
4. two alpha chains and two beta chains

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) Which hemoglobin provides a measure of average blood glucose levels over the past three months?

1. HbA1c
2. HbA2c
3. HbC
4. HbS

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) In which disease is hemoglobin A2 elevated?

1. Alpha-thalassemia
2. Alport Syndrome
3. Beta-thalassemia
4. Hemolytic anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) A patient has an anion gap of 10.0 mEq/L. This indicates:

1. alkalosis
2. hypercalcemia
3. hypocalcemia
4. normal health

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) In high levels, which vitamin causes false negative results on the fecal occult blood test?

1. Vitamin A
2. Vitamin B6
3. Vitamin B12
4. Vitamin C

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Section 5: Immunology

5.1) What is the main molecule responsible for transplant rejection?

1. Interferon alpha
2. Interleukin-8
3. Major histocompatibility complex
4. Transforming growth factor alpha

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which type of hypersensitivity do IgE antibodies mediate?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) What is the main function of C3b?

1. Cytotoxicity
2. Immune adherence
3. Inflammation induction
4. Opsonization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of these laboratory results is consistent with systemic lupus erythematosus?

1. Platelet count: 700 × 10⁹/L
2. Red blood cell count: 7.5 × 10¹²/L
3. Serum creatinine: 1.9 mg/dL
4. White blood cell count: 625 × 10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Which type of immunity produces antibodies in response to antigens?

1. Active
2. Innate
3. Maternal
4. Passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) If skin is cut with a piece of glass contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, which component of the immune system responds first?

1. B cells
2. Neutrophils
3. Platelets
4. T cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) What type of immunity occurs when a person is injected with someone else's antibodies?

1. Artificial active
2. Artificial passive
3. Natural active
4. Natural passive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Which antibody can cross the placenta?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) Which antibody is abnormal in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgG
4. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) What is the main antibody in mucus?

1. lgA
2. lgD
3. lgE
4. lgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) What is the main antibody in blood?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) A peripheral pattern on the antinuclear antibody (ANA) test suggests which autoimmune disease?

1. Lupus
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Scleroderma
4. Sjögren syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) The antinuclear antibody (ANA) pattern below suggests which autoimmune disease?

1. Limited scleroderma
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Sjögren syndrome
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) Which white blood cell condition often indicates an allergy?

1. Eosinophilia
2. Leukemia
3. Lymphocytosis
4. Neutrophilia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) The __________ effect is when an excess of antibodies causes an immunoassay to produce a false-negative result.

1. dosage
2. excess
3. hook
4. recrement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) What type of white blood cells are natural killer cells?

1. Basophils
2. Eosinophils
3. Lymphocytes
4. Monocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Which type of patient does the CD4 test assess?

1. Cancer
2. Elderly
3. HIV-positive
4. Terminally ill

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) A technician wants to check if the antigen has anti-complementary activity in a complement fixation test. To do this, the technician should perform the test:

1. with a serum diluted to 2-5 of the usual concentration
2. with unsensitised red blood cells
3. without complement
4. without serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) Which of these enzymes is a marker for acute lymphocytic leukemia?

1. Adenosine deaminase
2. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase
3. Purine nucleoside phosphorylase
4. Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Which type of hypersensitivity is autoimmune hemolytic anemia, Goodpasture's syndrome, and Graves' disease?

1. I
2. II
3. III
4. IV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) The precipitin pattern below was obtained using the Ouchterlony double immunodiffusion technique: The pattern shows:

1. identity
2. non-identity
3. partial identity
4. the presence of three different antigens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) T cells exert their actions by secreting soluble proteins named:

1. antigens
2. complement factors
3. cytokines
4. interferons

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Section 6: Microbiology

6.1) Which three bacteria most often cause conjunctivitis in children?

1. Haemophilus influenzae, Streptococcus pneumoniae, and Moraxella catarrhalis
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae, Salmonella enterica, and Neisseria gonorrhea
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis, Escherichia coli, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. Staphylococcus aureus, Listeria monocytogenes, and Enterococcus faecalis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) What is the correct order of reagents in Gram staining?

1. Crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
2. Crystal violet, safranin, acetone-alcohol, iodine
3. Iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol, safranin
4. Safranin, iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple, or black?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Mitochondria
4. Nuclei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) A disk diffusion test is performed for Staphylococcus aureus. No zone of growth inhibition is observed around the ampicillin disk. What does this indicate?

1. Ampicillin is an effective inhibitor of Staphylococcus aureus
2. Staphylococcus aureus is resistant to ampicillin
3. The antibiotic disc has moved around the plate
4. The plate was poorly inoculated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which of these quality control results is acceptable for the triple sugar iron test?

1. Escherichia coli: yellow slant, yellow butt, no H₂S produced
2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: yellow slant, yellow butt, H₂S produced
3. Salmonella enterica: yellow slant, red butt, H₂S produced
4. Shigella sonnei: yellow slant, red butt, no H₂S produced

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) What is the best time to collect specimens for pinworm ova?

1. Before going to bed
2. Before the morning bowel movement
3. Immediately following a bowel movement
4. In the early afternoon

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) An organism from a lung biopsy grows as a mold at room temperature and as yeast at 37°C. What is the most appropriate way to interpret these results?

1. Dimorphic fungus present
2. The specimen is contaminated
3. Two pathogens are present and both are significant
4. Two pathogens are present but only the mold is significant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) The urease test determines whether an organism can:

1. digest urease
2. produce urea
3. split urea
4. transport urea into its cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) A negative result on the nitrate reduction test is demonstrated when the broth ________________ when nitrate I and nitrate II are added and ________________ when zinc is added.

1. remains colorless, remains colorless
2. remains colorless, turns blue
3. remains colorless, turns red
4. turns red, turns blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) The presence of a black precipitate on the Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) test indicates the bacteria produced:

1. carbon dioxide
2. glucose
3. hydrogen sulfide
4. lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Bartonella henselae causes which disease?

1. Cat scratch disease
2. Diphtheria
3. Oroya fever
4. Verruga peruana

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) A gram-negative rod is found in a midstream urine sample. The organism swarms over a blood agar plate and covers the entire surface of the agar. Further tests show the organism is oxidase-negative, nitrate-positive, indole-negative, and H₂S-positive. What is the organism?

1. Edwardsiella hoshinae
2. Morganella morganii
3. Proteus mirabilis
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) Which of these organisms is phenylalanine deaminase positive?

1. Enterobacter aerogenes
2. Escherichia coli
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
4. Proteus mirabilis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which of these organisms can be used as a positive control for the spot indole test?

1. Enterobacter cloacae
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella enterica
4. Shigella sonnei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) Which of the following is true about Mycobacterium leprae?

1. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood culture
2. It can be grown in artificial media
3. It is an acid-fast bacillus
4. It stains pink or red in the Gram-stain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) Which group of viruses is the most frequent cause of viral meningitis in the United States?

1. Adenoviruses
2. Enteroviruses
3. Rhabdoviruses
4. Rhinoviruses

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Which type of worm is Ascaris lumbricoides?

1. Pinworm
2. Roundworm
3. Threadworm
4. Whipworm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Which of these bacteria produces a red pigment called prodigiosin?

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Francisella tularensis
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
4. Serratia marcescens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) Which antibiotic would be ineffective against a bacteria that produces β-lactamase?

1. Ampicillin
2. Colistin
3. Gentamicin
4. Vancomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) Which bacteria produces a blue-green pigment and a fruity odor when cultured?

1. Klebsiella pneumoniae
2. Proteus mirabilis
3. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
4. Staphylococcus aureus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) Which of these bacteria is spread through inhalation of respiratory droplets?

1. Coxiella burnetii
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella typhi
4. Sporothrix schenckii

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) Streptococcus pneumoniae is normal flora of the:

1. large intestine
2. respiratory tract
3. skin
4. small intestine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) Bile esculin agar is used mainly to differentiate which two organisms?

1. Campylobacter and Helicobacter
2. Enterococcus and Streptococcus
3. Legionella and Bordetella
4. Shigella and Klebsiella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) Which agar is most commonly used for antibiotic susceptibility testing?

1. Chocolate
2. MacConkey
3. Mannitol salt
4. Mueller-Hinton

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of these bacteria grow on Colistin-nalidixic acid agar?

1. Haemophilus influenzae
2. Neisseria gonorrhea
3. Salmonella
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) Which type of bacteria is Löwenstein-Jensen media used to isolate?

1. Escherichia
2. Haemophilus
3. Listeria
4. Mycobacteria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) What bacteria is BBE agar used to detect?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Bacillus cereus
3. Bacteroides fragilis
4. Bordetella pertussis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which bacteria is Thayer-Martin agar used to culture and isolate?

1. E. coli
2. Neisseria
3. Staphylococcus
4. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) TCBS agar isolates what pathogen from stool cultures?

1. Plesiomonas
2. Salmonella
3. Shigella
4. Vibrio

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) Bacteria are grown on a blood agar plate. The lab technician observes a clear zone of hemolysis under and around the bacterial colonies. What type of hemolysis is this?

1. Alpha
2. Alpha-prime
3. Beta
4. Gamma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Nutrient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) Haemophilus influenzae grows on chocolate agar but not on blood agar because it requires:

1. hemoglobin and colistin
2. sucrose and egg yolk
3. hemin and NAD
4. glucose and casein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Middlebrook 7H10 agar and Middlebrook 7H11 agar are used to culture:

1. Bacillus
2. Mycobacterium
3. Pseudomonas
4. Staphylococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:

1. ability to ferment lactose
2. ability to hydrolyze starch
3. ability to utilize the safranin dye
4. hemolytic activity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) A Gram stain reveals gram-negative rods with a gullwing shape, like the wings of a seagull. What is the bacteria?

1. Bordetella
2. Campylobacter
3. Enterobacteriaceae
4. Enterococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) The acid-fast stain is most commonly used to diagnose which disease?

1. Meningococcal disease
2. Tuberculosis
3. AIDS
4. Strep throat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) A yeast was grown on cornmeal agar at 25°C. The image below shows the microscopic appearance of the yeast after 72 hours: Which yeast is in the image?

1. Candida albicans
2. Cryptococcus neoformans
3. Malassezia furfur
4. Trichosporon asahii

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) A 29-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a fever. He recently finished a course of chemotherapy for acute leukemia. The doctor performs two blood cultures, a sputum culture, a urine culture, and a chest x-ray. All tests are negative except for one blood culture, which grows a gram-negative bacillus. This bacillus is:

1. an indication that the patient has meningitis
2. most likely a contaminant
3. most likely an organism the patient acquired from the hands of a healthcare provider the last time he was in the hospital
4. the most likely cause of the fever

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) Fluid from a skin lesion was incubated on Tryptose agar containing 0.1 units of penicillin per mL. The image below shows the growth: What is the most likely organism?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Clostridium perfringens
3. Listeria monocytogenes
4. Shigella sonnei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) A 50-year-old inpatient develops a catheter-associated urinary tract infection while in hospital. The urine culture grows >100,000 oxidase-positive gram-negative bacilli. What is the most likely organism?

1. E. coli
2. Enterococcus
3. Klebsiella
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) Which bacteria is gram-negative, aerobic, catalase-positive, oxidase-negative and has the appearance of short rods in the log phase but a coccoid appearance in the stationary phase?

1. Acinetobacter baumannii
2. Aeromonas hydrophila
3. Klebsiella pneumoniae
4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) A 41-year-old woman who breeds pigeons as a hobby has a fever, a headache, a dry hacking cough, and muscle aches. A lung exam reveals bilateral crackles. A physical exam reveals hepatomegaly. Which pathogen is the most likely cause?

1. Chlamydia pneumoniae
2. Chlamydia psittaci
3. Franciscella tularensis
4. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) A 22-year-old woman complains to the doctor of yellow vaginal discharge and pain when urinating. Her urethral discharge Gram stain is shown below: What is the most likely causative organism?

1. Corynebacterium argentoratense
2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Neisseria gonorrhea
4. Neisseria meningitidis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) A stool specimen is inoculated onto xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar. Red colonies form, some of which have black centers. What is the most likely bacteria?

1. Proteus
2. Salmonella
3. Shigella
4. Yersinia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) A patient presents with a gangrenous leg wound, from which an anaerobic, spore-forming, gram-positive bacillus is isolated. Which organism is this most likely to be?

1. Bacillus subtilis
2. Bacteroides fragilis
3. Clostridium perfringens
4. Francisella tularensis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) Pus from a wound was incubated on blood agar. After growth, a bacterial sample was stained and examined under a microscope: The bacteria is most likely:

1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
3. Enterococcus faecalis
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) A Neisseria species is isolated from a patient sample. A carbohydrate utilization test is performed. The results are as follows:

Test	Result
Glucose	+
Maltose	−
Fructose	−
Sucrose	−
Lactose	−

Based on these results, which Neisseria species is in the sample?

1. N. gonorrhea
2. N. lactamica
3. N. meningitidis
4. N. sicca

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Which bacteria can hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and produces CAMP factor?

1. Enterococcus faecalis
2. Streptococcus agalactiae
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
4. Streptococcus pyogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) A patient has a high fever and a headache and seems confused. A small, gram-positive, catalase-positive rod-shaped organism is isolated from the blood. There is a narrow zone of beta hemolysis. What is the organism most likely to be?

1. Bordetella pertussis
2. Clostridium tetani
3. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
4. Listeria monocytogenes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) A patient passes a worm in her stool. The worm is large, white, and round. It is about 20 cm long and has three “lips” at the anterior end of its body. Which parasite matches this description?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Necator americanus
3. Toxocara canis
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) A three-day-old neonate exhibits lethargy, fever, and vomiting. A lumbar puncture reveals bacterial meningitis. A Gram stain of the neonate's spinal fluid shows short gram-positive rods. This organism is most likely:

1. Group B Streptococcus
2. Listeria monocytogenes
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) A 17-year-old boy presents with red, painful, swollen sores on his face. A specimen is taken from one of the sores. A catalase-positive, spot indole-positive, aerotolerant anaerobic organism is isolated from the specimen. Below is the result of a Gram stain: Which organism is the most likely cause?

1. Cutibacterium acnes
2. Neisseria meningitidis
3. Staphylococcus aureus
4. Staphylococcus epidermidis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) A 5-year-old boy is admitted to the hospital with headaches, fever, and muscle pain. His mother says he was bitten by a rat a few days earlier. An anaerobic blood culture is positive for gram-negative, rod-shaped bacteria. What are these bacteria most likely to be?

1. Bacillus mycoides
2. Escherichia coli
3. Neisseria meningitidis
4. Streptobacillus moniliformis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) Corynebacterium diphtheria is a:

1. gram-negative cocci
2. gram-negative rod
3. gram-positive cocci
4. gram-positive rod

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) A sputum sample was incubated on Lowenstein-Jensen agar. After growth, a bacterial sample was stained with acid-fast staining and examined under a microscope: The bacteria is most likely:

1. Edwardsiella tarda
2. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
3. Streptococcus bovis
4. Streptomyces acidiscabies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) A 6-year-old child presents with nausea and diarrhea. The physician orders an O&P stool examination. The following organism is found in the child's stool: Which organism is in the image?

1. Cryptosporidium meleagridis
2. E. coli
3. Giardia duodenalis
4. Shigella dysenteriae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) A 32-year-old woman presents with pain on the right side of her abdomen and a fever of 100.2°F. At first, the physician suspects acute appendicitis, but then the patient says she ate raw pork yesterday as part of a new diet. This leads the physician to suspect food poisoning instead. A Gram stain of a stool sample is performed. The Gram stain is shown below: What is the most likely identification of this organism?

1. Clostridium perfringens
2. Staphylococcus aureus
3. Trichinella
4. Yersinia enterocolitica

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) Which species of Chlamydia causes genital chlamydia?

1. C. muridarum
2. C. pneumoniae
3. C. psittaci
4. C. trachomatis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) Which organism causes rose gardener's disease?

1. Blastomyces dermatitidis
2. Coccidioides immitis
3. Histoplasma capsulatum
4. Sporothrix schenckii

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) Which parasite causes kala-azar?

1. Leishmania donovani
2. Plasmodium
3. Trypanosoma cruzi
4. Wuchereria bancrofti

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) Which disease does the Epstein-Barr virus cause?

1. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
2. Mononucleosis
3. Roseola
4. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) Which virus causes chickenpox?

1. Adenovirus A
2. Human herpesvirus 6
3. Human papilomavirus
4. Varicella-zoster virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) What causes Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease?

1. JC virus
2. Prions
3. Pumuula virus
4. SV40 virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) Which parasite causes amoebic dysentery?

1. Ascaris lumbricoides
2. Entamoeba histolytica
3. Giardia lamblia
4. Shigella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) Which organism causes Hansen's disease?

1. Acinetobacter baumannii
2. Bordetella pertussis
3. Clostridium paraputrificum
4. Mycobacterium leprae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.66) Which bacteria is the most common cause of urinary tract infections?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
3. Proteus mirabilis
4. Staphylococcus saprophyticus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.67) What is the expected quality control result on the nitrate reduction test for P. aeruginosa? Assume P. aeruginosa can reduce nitrate to nitrogen gas.

1. Blue after nitrate A and B reagents are added
2. Colorless after nitrate A and B reagents are added, colorless after zinc is added
3. Colorless after nitrate A and B reagents are added, red after zinc is added
4. Red after nitrate A and B reagents are added

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.68) Quality control for the novobiocin disk test uses which two organisms?

1. Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus fecium
2. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis
3. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.69) A lab technician runs controls for the L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamid (PYR) test. The results are as follows:

Organism	Result
Streptococcus pyogenes	Positive
Streptococcus agalactiae	Negative
Enterococcus faecalis	Positive

What action should the lab technician take?

1. Discard the reagent
2. Replace the dye
3. Retest the control organisms
4. Start testing patient samples since the test is functioning correctly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.70) Which media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?

1. Blood agar
2. Cary-Blair media
3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
4. MacConkey agar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.71) Which of these antibiotics is effective against Mycoplasmas?

1. Ceftriaxone
2. Imipenem
3. Levofloxacin
4. Penicillin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.72) Which antibiotic, also known as polymyxin E, is used as a last resort against multidrug-resistant gram-negative bacteria?

1. Clindamycin
2. Colistin
3. Gentamicin
4. Metronidazole

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Section 7: Laboratory operations

7.1) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 72 mg/dL. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?

1. 12 mg/dL
2. 72 mg/dL
3. 432 mg/dL
4. 720 mg/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) A dilution ratio of 1:15 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 15 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 16 parts diluent
3. 15 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
4. 16 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) A procedure requires mixing red cells and water in a ratio of 4 to 5, with a total volume of 450 mL. How much water is needed?

1. 250 mL
2. 300 mL
3. 350 mL
4. 400 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?

1. 1/128
2. 1/256
3. 1/512
4. 1/1024

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 500 mL of water with 4.5 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?

1. 0.9 g/L
2. 8 g/L
3. 8.9 g/L
4. 9 g/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) A lab technician adds 0.2 mL of a stock solution to 3.8 mL of diluent. What is the dilution factor?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 19
4. 20

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Which of these is a 1/8 dilution of urine?

1. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
2. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
3. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
4. 1 part water and 8 parts urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) A lab technician needs 450 mL of a 2% acid solution for a manual dilution of white blood cells but only a 6% solution of acetic acid is available. How would the lab technician prepare the 2% solution?

1. Mixing 9 mL of 6% solute in 441 mL of diluent
2. Mixing 27 mL of 6% solute in 423 mL of diluent
3. Mixing 150 mL of 6% solute in 300 mL of diluent
4. Mixing 200 mL of 6% solute in 250 mL of diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) What does 5% w/v mean?

1. 5 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solution
2. 5 grams of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent
3. 5 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solution
4. 5 mL of solute dissolved in 100 mL of solvent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) Which of these questions is inappropriate when interviewing a candidate for a job?

1. Are you legally authorized to work in this country?
2. Can you work overtime?
3. When did you graduate from high school?
4. Where do you see yourself in five years?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) What is the approximate percentage of calcium (Ca) by weight in CaCO₃? (Atomic weights: Ca = 40, C = 12, O = 16)

1. 20%
2. 30%
3. 40%
4. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, what range should encompass 95% of the observed values?

1. 1–9
2. 2–8
3. 3–7
4. 4–6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) Which of these assays has the lowest coefficient of variation?

Assay	Mean (U/L)	Standard deviation
ALP	60	3
ALT	20	2
AST	25	3
GGT	20	5

1. ALP
2. ALT
3. AST
4. GGT

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.

1. 4.5
2. 4.7
3. 4.9
4. 5.1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) A biochemistry analyzer measures a parameter across seven serum samples. The results are 9, 4, 8, 10, 17, 5, and 10. Which statistic is the largest: the mean, mode, median, or range?

1. Mean
2. Median
3. Mode
4. Range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) When trying to fix an electrical machine, you should first:

1. replace old cables
2. replace the fuses
3. turn off all electricity to the lab
4. turn the machine off

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) Which of these is an example of regulated waste?

1. Empty medicine bottles
2. Patient gowns
3. Sterile dressings
4. Used blood tubes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) Class A fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. electrical equipment
3. flammable liquids
4. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?

1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
2. Pull the pin
3. Squeeze the handle
4. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) What is a term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?

1. Carcinogen
2. Caustic
3. Oxidizing
4. Teratogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) A lab assistant accidentally drinks a beaker of Zenker's fluid. He says he feels a burning sensation in his mouth and throat. The lab manager phones 911. While waiting for the ambulance to arrive, which of these other first-aid measures should be taken?

1. Give the lab assistant water to drink
2. Place the lab assistant in the recovery position
3. Take the lab assistant outside for fresh air
4. Tell the lab assistant to rinse his eyes with water for several minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.24) Which of these gloves would offer the most protection in a laboratory?

1. 1 mil nitrile gloves
2. 3 mil latex gloves
3. 5 mil latex gloves
4. 5 mil nitrile gloves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.25) In which of these situations should safety goggles be worn?

1. During blood collections
2. During reagent and specimen preparation
3. While inspecting reagent supplies
4. While transporting sealed waste containers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.26) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?

1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
2. Flush the burn with water
3. Go to the emergency department
4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.27) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Flammable
2. Oxidizing
3. Self-heating
4. Self-reactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.28) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Carcinogenic
3. Corrosive
4. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.29) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. refrigerated
3. ventilated
4. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.30) Superheating steam in an autoclave:

1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
2. helps to dry out the equipment
3. increases its sterilizing power
4. will make the centrifuge spin faster

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.31) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant is for special hazards?

1. Blue
2. Red
3. White
4. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.32) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock or cause acid damage
2. Safety assessed
3. Simple asphyxiant
4. Substance abuse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.33) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:

1. analytical balance
2. desiccator
3. pH meter
4. single pan balance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.34) Stray light can be measured in spectrophotometers with:

1. a cut-off filter
2. a mercury-vapor lamp
3. a potassium dichromate solution
4. holmium oxide glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.35) The ___________ is a measure of a microscope's ability to gather light and resolve fine specimen detail.

1. contrast
2. empty magnification
3. numerical aperture
4. objective

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.36) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?

1. Mohr
2. Pasture
3. Serological
4. Volumetric

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.37) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?

1. Ohmmeter
2. Rheostat
3. Tachometer
4. Voltmeter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.38) The following chart compares an old method of performing a hematologic test (X-axis) with a new method (Y-axis). The squares represent samples tested with both methods and the black line is the line of best fit. What kind of bias does the new method show?

1. Negative constant
2. Negative proportional
3. Positive constant
4. Variable proportional

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.39) Which ISO standard specifies requirements for quality and competence in medical laboratories?

1. ISO 15106
2. ISO 15189
3. ISO 15503
4. ISO 15513

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.40) Precise values:

1. are caused by random errors
2. are close to the true value
3. are the same as the true value
4. fall within a narrow range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.41) Which picture demonstrates high precision but low accuracy?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.42) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic specificity?

1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
2. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
3. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
4. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.43) A test with low sensitivity is more likely to give:

1. false negatives
2. false positives
3. true negatives
4. true positives

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.44) Below is a Levey-Jennings quality control chart representing the control values for 20 consecutive tests for serum albumin levels. Based on the chart, which action should be taken?

1. Reject the run
2. Repeat the control
3. Check the blood analyzer for a malfunctioning component
4. Continue to run samples as normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.45) A test tube solution has a concentration of 0.26 M, a path length of 2 cm, and an absorbance of 0.072 at 530 nm. To two significant digits, calculate the molar absorptivity.

1. 0.04
2. 0.14
3. 1.61
4. 1.81

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.46) Under the Occupational Safety and Health Act, employers have a responsibility to provide:

1. a safe workplace
2. extra training for disabled workers
3. health insurance
4. work breaks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.47) What is the least effective type of hazard control in OSHA's hierarchy of controls?

1. Administrative controls
2. Engineering controls
3. Personal protective equipment
4. Substitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.48) OSHA's Hazard Communication standard requires employers to inform workers about the workplace dangers of:

1. bloodborne pathogens
2. dangerous chemicals
3. general safety hazards
4. miscommunication

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.49) How many weeks of unpaid leave does the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) allow employees within a 12-month period without jeopardizing their job?

1. 12 weeks
2. 20 weeks
3. 24 weeks
4. 36 weeks

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.50) Which federal agency is responsible for ensuring clinical laboratories uphold and enforce CLIA standards?

1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.51) Which federal agency regulates in vitro diagnostic tests?

1. Federal Laboratory Consortium (FLC)
2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.52) According to the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), which sign indicates a potential hazard that could result in minor or moderate injury?

1. Caution
2. Danger
3. Notice
4. Warning

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.53) Laboratories are exempt from proficiency testing if they:

1. are CLIA certified
2. have a Certificate of Compliance
3. have fewer than six employees
4. only perform waived tests

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.54) Which ion is pH a measurement of?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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