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About the ASCP MLS exam
The ASCP Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) exam assesses the knowledge required for advanced-level medical laboratory roles. The American Society for Clinical Pathology (ASCP) administers the exam.
The exam consists of 100 multiple-choice questions and has a 2.5-hour time limit. Exam topics include blood banking, urinalysis, chemistry, hematology, immunology, microbiology, and laboratory procedures.
The exam fee is $260.
About these practice questions
These practice questions will help prepare you for the ASCP MLS exam.
This page contains 400 practice questions divided into the seven sections of the exam: 1. Blood banking, 2. Urinalysis and other body fluids, 3. Chemistry, 4. Hematology, 5. Immunology, 6. Microbiology, and 7. Laboratory operations.
All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.
Sections
- Blood banking
- Urinalysis and other body fluids
- Chemistry
- Hematology
- Immunology
- Microbiology
- Laboratory operations
Section 1: Blood banking
1.1)
Which test screens maternal blood for the presence of fetal red blood cells?
- Alpha-fetoprotein screen
- Chorionic villus sampling
- Direct antiglobulin test
- Kleihauer-Betke test
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1.2)
What is the sugar of the A antigen?
- D-galactose
- Lactose
- N-acetylgalactosamine
- N-acetyllactosamine
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1.3)
Which test identifies individuals who appear Rh-negative on standard testing but still carry the antigen at low levels?
- Kleihauer-Betke Test
- Rh phenotyping
- Warm autoadsorption test
- Weak D test
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1.4)
Why is hydroxyethyl starch used in leukocytapheresis procedures?
- To help separate white blood cells from red blood cells
- To increase the donor’s blood volume
- To increase the production of white blood cells in the bone marrow
- To pull granulocytes from the marginal pool into the general circulation
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1.5)
Which concentrate carries the lowest risk of HIV and hepatitis?
- Erythrocyte concentrate
- Human albumin solution
- Platelets concentrate
- Whole blood transfusion
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1.6)
The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?
- Duffy
- Kidd
- Lewis
- Rhesus
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1.7)
Which three HLA molecules are most important to match for kidney transplants?
- HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-C
- HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA-DR
- HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DQ
- HLA-A, HLA-DP, and HLA-DR
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1.8)
Which saline is used to help antibodies agglutinate red blood cells?
- Buffered blood bank saline
- Hypertonic saline
- Low ionic strength saline
- Phosphate-buffered saline
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1.9)
When administering immune serum globulin therapy, healthcare professionals should be cautious with patients with:
- AIDS
- a history of IgA deficiency
- an immunodeficiency disease
- idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
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1.10)
If a patient with severe chronic anemia receives a transfusion of whole blood, which acute transfusion complication is most likely to occur?
- Acute intravascular hemolysis
- Anaphylactic reaction
- Fluid overload
- Septic shock
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1.11)
Putting the patient in an upright seated position and providing supplementary oxygen can help for which of these transfusion reactions?
- Acute hemolytic transfusion reaction (AHTR)
- Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO)
- Transfusion-associated sepsis (TAS)
- Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
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1.12)
How much does one unit of red blood cells increase the hemoglobin in a standard adult patient?
- 1 g/dL
- 2 g/dL
- 3 g/dL
- 4 g/dL
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1.13)
Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into patients?
- Cryoprecipitate
- Fresh frozen plasma
- Frozen washed red cells
- Granulocytes
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1.14)
Which pathophysiological effect may result from transfusions of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels?
- Decreased carbon dioxide levels
- Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
- Lower blood viscosity
- Tissue hypoxia
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1.15)
Leukocyte-reduced blood products reduce the risk of transmitting:
- HIV
- cytomegalovirus
- hepatitis C
- malaria
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1.16)
A 35-year-old woman needs three units of red blood cells. The laboratory performs an antibody screen to identify any blood group antibodies. The antibody screen is positive. According to the results of the antibody panel below, which antibody most likely caused the positive result?
- Anti-C
- Anti-D
- Anti-E
- Anti-K
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1.17)
Which of these pathogens must donated blood be tested for?
- Ebola virus
- Hepatitis A virus
- Streptococcus pneumoniae
- West Nile virus
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1.18)
Which of these questions is suitable for a blood donor questionnaire?
- Have you been on a plane in the past year?
- Have you eaten canned food in the past 48 hours?
- Have you eaten red meat recently?
- Have you had a tattoo in the past 3 months?
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1.19)
A certain gene has two alleles: a dominant allele (A) and a recessive allele (a). If 36% of people in a random population have the homozygous recessive genotype (aa), what is the frequency of the recessive allele in this population?
- 18%
- 24%
- 36%
- 60%
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Section 2: Urinalysis and other body fluids
Section 3: Chemistry
Section 4: Hematology
Section 5: Immunology
Section 6: Microbiology
Section 7: Laboratory operations
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