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MSCNZ MLS Exam Practice Questions

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1) Which type of anemia is associated with an increased reticulocyte count?
  1. Aplastic
  2. Hemolytic
  3. Iron-deficiency
  4. Pernicious
 2) A patient asks a phlebotomist if they are allowed to take medication before a fasting blood test. What is the best response?
  1. "It is best to skip today’s dose."
  2. "No, you cannot take medication before this test."
  3. "Yes, unless your doctor told you not to take it."
  4. "Yes, you can take your medication."
 3) For which Vacutainer tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
 4) A lab technician has 1 litre of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?
  1. 214 mL
  2. 528 mL
  3. 1,214 mL
  4. 1,528 mL
 5) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/w solution?
  1. (solute mass / solution mass ) × 100
  2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
  3. (solution mass / solute mass) × 100
  4. (solution mass / solute volume) × 100
 6) Calculate the %m/m of a solution that has 30 grams of solute and 90 grams of solvent.
  1. 8.3%
  2. 9.1%
  3. 11%
  4. 25%
 7) What is the molarity of a 3 L solution that contains 1.2 moles?
  1. 0.4
  2. 1.8
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.6
 8) You dilute a sample four times using a dilution factor of 20 each time. What is the final dilution?
  1. 1/20
  2. 1/80
  3. 1/8,000
  4. 1/160,000
 9) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 4.0 mmol/L. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?
  1. 0.66 mmol/L
  2. 4.0 mmol/L
  3. 24.0 mmol/L
  4. 40.0 mmol/L
 10) Attending workshops and regularly updating your knowledge is an example of:
  1. continuing professional development
  2. knowledge and competency mapping
  3. performance appraisal
  4. strategic succession planning
 11) What is the term for the obligation to keep health information private?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
 12) What is the term for an individual's agreement to the processing of their personal data?
  1. Accountability
  2. Consent
  3. Openness
  4. Safeguarding
 13) A nurse overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this?
  1. Accountability
  2. Infection
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
 14) A healthcare worker witnesses a manager intentionally breaching a patient's confidentiality. What should the healthcare worker do?
  1. Ignore the breach
  2. Notify the local news station
  3. Notify the patient about the breach
  4. Report it to a senior manager
 15) Which of these is a barrier to effective written communication?
  1. Clear subject headings
  2. Concise sentences
  3. Professional tone
  4. Technical jargon
 16) Which of these is an example of passive-aggressive behaviour?
  1. Changing the subject when uncomfortable topics arise
  2. Complaining about someone behind their back
  3. Sighing and tutting instead of saying what's wrong
  4. Using veiled threats to control a person's behaviour
 17) Leaning forward demonstrates:
  1. confusion
  2. honesty
  3. impatience
  4. interest
 18) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humour, as it may be misinterpreted
 19) When unsure of a patient’s preferred pronouns, what is the most appropriate action?
  1. Ask a family member of the person
  2. Ask the person what pronouns they prefer
  3. Decide based on a person’s appearance
  4. Use the pronoun of the person’s appearance
 20) A patient gets angry at you and raises their voice. What is the best response?
  1. Calmly acknowledge their concern
  2. File a complaint with HR
  3. Raise your voice back
  4. Walk away without saying anything
 21) Sitting with your arms crossed conveys:
  1. concern
  2. interest
  3. resistance
  4. sincerity
 22) Which of these is an example of non-verbal communication?
  1. Asking a patient to confirm her name
  2. Nodding to show you agree with someone
  3. Saying "No" to a patient
  4. Writing a note to your manager
 23) How can you show empathy to a nervous patient?
  1. Distract the patient by talking about your life
  2. Explain the procedure in simple terms
  3. Listen to their concerns
  4. Tell the patient not to worry
 24) A colleague is distraught because her cat has died. Which of the following actions would be appropriate?
  1. Ask her to leave the workplace
  2. Offer to share some of her workload
  3. Report the incident to the regulatory body
  4. Tell her to act more professionally
 25) A mother arrives at the clinic with her 8-year-old child. The mother does not understand English well. What is the most appropriate action?
  1. Ask a family member or friend to interpret
  2. Ask a trained medical interpreter to help
  3. Use a bilingual staff member
  4. Use simple words and avoid giving detailed explanations
 26) Which of these is a barrier to effective communication?
  1. A clear message
  2. Background noise
  3. Emotional intelligence
  4. Eye contact
 27) When you are actively listening, where should you look?
  1. At the clock
  2. At the person speaking
  3. At the work in front of you
  4. At your notes
 28) A dying patient says, "I’m scared." The most appropriate response is:
  1. “It's normal, try not to think about it.”
  2. “Let’s focus on something positive.”
  3. “Would you like to talk about it?”
  4. “You don’t need to be scared.”
 29) A patient becomes increasingly angry and shouts, "I've been waiting here for 6 hours and the doctor still hasn't seen me!" The nurse replies, “I see why that's frustrating. Let me see what I can do.” Which de-escalation technique has the nurse used?
  1. Body language
  2. Offering a choice
  3. Setting boundaries
  4. Validation
 30) What should you do if a patient asks why a test has been ordered?
  1. Give a simple explanation
  2. Guess based on the most likely diagnosis
  3. Refer them to their doctor
  4. Tell the patient you are not allowed to answer
 31) For which type of patient would an interpreter be useful?
  1. Blind
  2. Intellectually disabled
  3. Non-English speaking
  4. Pediatric
 32) What is the best way to confirm a patient has understood your instructions?
  1. Ask the patient to repeat the instructions back to you
  2. Ask, "Did you understand the instructions?"
  3. Ask, "Do you have any questions?"
  4. Have the patient sign a form stating they understood the instructions
 33) Which of these is an example of constructive feedback?
  1. "I really enjoy working with you."
  2. "Please remember to mix the tubes after collection."
  3. "Thanks for all your help."
  4. "You have no idea what you're doing. Why can't you do your job properly?"
 34) What is the justice pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
 35) Two patients come to the emergency room and are treated in order of priority based on the severity of their injuries. With which ethical principle is the treatment order consistent?
  1. Beneficence
  2. Justice
  3. Preservation of life
  4. Right to care
 36) In the context of patient rights, the principle of autonomy is best described as:
  1. self-awareness
  2. self-governance
  3. self-promotion
  4. selfishness
 37) The statement "All tests performed should serve the patient's interests" exemplifies which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Respect for persons
 38) You see a doctor acting unethically. Your first course of action should be to tell:
  1. the hospital director
  2. the medical board
  3. the nursing board
  4. your supervisor
 39) What are the four pillars of medical ethics?
  1. Beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, and autonomy
  2. Dignity, privacy, compassion, and accountability
  3. Professionalism, consequentialism, trust, and responsibility
  4. Professionalism, sensitivity, integrity, and confidentiality
 40) The attributes of good judgment, respecting patients' rights, and not harming anyone intentionally are all examples of:
  1. competency statements
  2. ethical standards
  3. morals
  4. rules
 41) Which pillar of medical ethics is the patient’s right to make decisions about their healthcare?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
 42) The duty to "do no harm" is also referred to as:
  1. autonomy
  2. beneficence
  3. justice
  4. non-maleficence
 43) On which ethical principle is informed consent based?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Fidelity
  4. Veracity
 44) A patient learns best by watching videos that explain their condition. This suggests they are a(n) __________ learner.
  1. auditory
  2. kinesthetic
  3. reading/writing
  4. visual
 45) What learning process involves thinking about experiences and learning from them?
  1. Classical conditioning
  2. Concept learning
  3. Implicit learning
  4. Reflective practice
 46) Which of these is a key function of a laboratory information system (LIS)?
  1. Monitoring laboratory temperatures
  2. Performing diagnostic tests
  3. Tracking specimens and test results
  4. Training laboratory staff
 47) When answering the phone, you should state your name and:
  1. "How are you today?"
  2. the name of your facility
  3. your facility's opening hours
  4. your phone number
 48) What is a panic value?
  1. A result that is much higher than normal
  2. A result that is much lower than normal
  3. A wrong result, meaning the test must be repeated
  4. An extremely abnormal result that indicates a life-threatening condition
 49) Which coagulation pathway is also known as the contact activation pathway?
  1. Common pathway
  2. Extrinsic pathway
  3. Intrinsic pathway
  4. Tissue factor pathway
 50) Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose into:
  1. galactose
  2. glucagon
  3. glycogen
  4. sucrose
 51) Which autoantibody is against the Fc portion of IgG?
  1. Anti-La
  2. Anti-Ro
  3. Anti-nuclear antibody
  4. Rheumatoid factor
 52) What is the end product of purine metabolism?
  1. Allantoin
  2. Urea
  3. Uric acid
  4. Xanthine
 53) What does angiotensin-converting enzyme convert angiotensin I to?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Angiotensin III
  4. Renin
 54) A patient with a severe respiratory infection develops respiratory acidosis. How do the kidney tubules help restore normal blood pH?
  1. Excrete a larger volume of urine
  2. Increase the glomerular filtration rate
  3. Secrete more hydrogen ions and reabsorb more bicarbonate ions
  4. Secrete more sodium ions and reabsorb more potassium ions
 55) Which component forms the recognition unit of the classical complement pathway?
  1. C1q
  2. C1r
  3. C1s
  4. C1t
 56) The three types of ketone bodies are acetone, acetoacetic acid, and __________ acid.
  1. 3-hydroxybutyric
  2. acetic
  3. lactic
  4. oxaloacetic
 57) A boy has large bruises without any apparent injury. His platelet count is low but his other CBC parameters are normal. He has no family history of hemorrhagic abnormalities or thrombocytopenia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Hemolytic uremic syndrome
  2. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura
  3. May-Hegglin anomaly
  4. Von Willebrand disease
 58) What is the major health risk for patients who have atrial fibrillation?
  1. Bleeding problems
  2. Bundle branch block
  3. Hypertension
  4. Stroke
 59) Which type of jaundice is caused by a blockage in the bile duct?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
 60) Which X-linked recessive disease results in the absence of mature B cells?
  1. Chronic granulomatous disease
  2. Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome
  3. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
  4. X-linked lymphoproliferative disease
 61) What is ischemia?
  1. A restriction in blood supply to tissues
  2. Persistent elevation of blood pressure in the arteries
  3. Tissue death due to inadequate blood supply to the affected area
  4. When the heart is unable to pump sufficient blood to meet the body's needs
 62) Which disease is characterised by hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
 63) What are the main laboratory findings in nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Haemoglobinuria, hypernatremia, and thrombocytopenia
  2. Ketonuria, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia
  3. Proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and hypoalbuminemia
  4. Pyuria, hyperglycemia, and leukopenia
 64) Grade 1 tumours grow ________ and have cells that look _________.
  1. quickly, abnormal
  2. quickly, normal
  3. slowly, abnormal
  4. slowly, normal
 65) DNA polymerase can synthesize:
  1. DNA in the 3' to 5' direction
  2. DNA in the 5' to 3' direction
  3. RNA in the 3' to 5' direction
  4. RNA in the 5' to 3' direction
 66) What is the purpose of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
  1. To create copies of a DNA sequence
  2. To separate DNA fragments by size
  3. To translate a DNA sequence into protein
  4. To translate an RNA sequence into DNA
 67) When evaluating a blood smear under a microscope, a lab technician sees a small white blood cell with no cytoplasmic granules. It has a large, round nucleus that takes up most of the cell. Which cell is it most likely to be?
  1. Eosinophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
 68) Plasma is obtained by centrifuging:
  1. a red top tube
  2. a tube containing an anticoagulant
  3. an SST
  4. clotted blood
 69) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To ensure the smears can be cut into thin slices
  2. To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate
  3. To prevent cells from being washed off during staining
  4. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
 70) Generally, at what pH are fixatives most effective?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9
 71) What is the correct order of steps to process tissue containing calcium?
  1. Decalcification → dehydration → fixation → clearing → infiltration
  2. Decalcification → dehydration → fixation → infiltration → clearing
  3. Fixation → decalcification → dehydration → clearing → infiltration
  4. Fixation → dehydration → decalcification → infiltration → clearing
 72) In histology, what are "chatters"?
  1. Fragments of bone dust in the specimen
  2. Holes in the epithelium and tissue spaces
  3. Intracellular clefts and vacuoles in skeletal muscle
  4. Lines across the tissue parallel to the knife edge
 73) What is the counterstain in Gram's technique?
  1. Acetone-alcohol
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Iodine
  4. Safranin
 74) Which stain is commonly used as an initial step in bacterial identification?
  1. Gram stain
  2. Hematoxylin and eosin stain
  3. Papanicolaou stain
  4. Wright's stain
 75) Which stain is most commonly used for peripheral blood smears?
  1. Gram stain
  2. Hematoxylin and eosin
  3. Papanicolaou stain
  4. Wright-Giemsa stain
 76) After Wright’s staining, red blood cells look too red and nuclei are faint. What could be the cause?
  1. Inadequate washing
  2. Prolonged staining
  3. The pH of the buffer was too high
  4. The stain/buffer mixture was too acidic
 77) Which of these quality control results is acceptable for the triple sugar iron test?
  1. Escherichia coli: yellow slant, yellow butt, no H₂S produced
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa: yellow slant, yellow butt, H₂S produced
  3. Salmonella enterica: red slant, red butt, no H₂S produced
  4. Shigella sonnei: red slant, red butt, H₂S produced
 78) A minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) assay is performed on an organism. Given the results below, what is the minimum inhibitory concentration of the organism?
Antibiotic concentration (μg/mL) 64 32 16 8 4 2 0
Result Clear Clear Clear Turbid Turbid Turbid Turbid
  1. 2 μg/mL
  2. 4 μg/mL
  3. 8 μg/mL
  4. 16 μg/mL
 79) A bacterium can use peptones both aerobically and anaerobically, but cannot ferment glucose, lactose, or sucrose. What result would you expect on a triple sugar iron (TSI) test?
  1. A/A
  2. K/A
  3. K/K
  4. K/NC
 80) Which of these organisms can be used as a positive control for the spot indole test?
  1. Enterobacter cloacae
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Salmonella enterica
  4. Shigella sonnei
 81) Which incubation condition is used to grow Streptococcus pneumoniae?
  1. At 35–37°C on MacConkey agar with 20% H₂
  2. At 35–37°C on blood agar with 5−10% CO₂
  3. At 42°C on Sabouraud agar under anaerobic conditions
  4. At 42°C on chocolate agar under microaerophilic conditions
 82) A Neisseria species is isolated from a patient sample. A carbohydrate utilisation test is performed. The results are as follows.
Test Result
Glucose +
Maltose −
Sucrose −
Lactose −
Based on these results, which Neisseria species is in the sample?
  1. N. gonorrhoeae
  2. N. lactamica
  3. N. meningitidis
  4. N. sicca
 83) Which bacteria is consistent with the results below?
Agar Result
Blood agar Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar Colourless colonies
Cetrimide agar Green colonies
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes
 84) A man cuts his hand while doing yard work. The wound becomes infected. A Gram stain reveals the wound contains gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. Which media can be used to selectively isolate each organism?
  1. Columbia-CNA and chocolate
  2. KV-laked agar and Thayer-Martin
  3. PEA and MacConkey
  4. Sheep blood and chocolate
 85) Which bacterium is consistent with the results below?
Agar Result
Blood agar Non-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar Pink colonies
Eosin methylene blue agar Metallic green colonies
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Salmonella enterica
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pneumoniae
 86) A stool specimen is inoculated onto xylose lysine deoxycholate (XLD) agar. Red colonies form, some of which have black centres. Which bacterium is the most likely?
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Salmonella
  3. Shigella
  4. Yersinia
 87) Which bacterium is consistent with the results below?
Agar Result
Blood agar Beta-hemolytic colonies
MacConkey agar No growth
Mannitol salt agar Yellow colonies
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Klebsiella pneumoniae
  3. Staphylococcus aureus
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes
 88) Which of these bacteria is a gram-negative, aerobic, oxidase-positive, motile rod?
  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  3. Salmonella enterica
  4. Staphylococcus aureus
 89) A 50-year-old inpatient develops a catheter-associated urinary tract infection while in hospital. The urine culture grows >100,000 oxidase-positive gram-negative bacilli. What is the most likely organism?
  1. Enterococcus faecalis
  2. Escherichia coli
  3. Klebsiella aerogenes
  4. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
 90) The doctor performs two blood cultures, a sputum culture, a urine culture, and a chest x-ray. All tests are negative except for one blood culture, which grows coagulase-negative staphylococci. These organisms are:
  1. an indication that the patient has meningitis
  2. an indication that the patient has sepsis
  3. most likely a contaminant
  4. most likely a hospital-acquired infection
 91) Which bacteria does Löwenstein-Jensen medium isolate?
  1. Escherichia
  2. Hemophilus
  3. Listeria
  4. Mycobacterium
 92) Which culture medium is most appropriate for growing gram-negative enteric bacteria?
  1. Blood agar
  2. Chocolate agar
  3. MacConkey agar
  4. Sabouraud agar
 93) Which agar isolates and differentiates species of Salmonella and Shigella?
  1. Hektoen enteric
  2. Chocolate
  3. CLED
  4. Thayer Martin
 94) A representative sample of uninoculated culture media is incubated for 2–5 days at 35–37°C as part of sterility testing. What is the expected result?
  1. A change in the media's colour
  2. Growth across the entire agar plate
  3. Individual colonies
  4. No microbial growth
 95) What is the Gram stain appearance of Escherichia coli?
  1. Gram-negative coccus
  2. Gram-negative rod
  3. Gram-positive coccus
  4. Gram-positive rod
 96) A lab technician performs Gram staining of a urine specimen. Under a microscope, the lab technician sees gram-negative cocci in chains. What mistake did the lab technician make?
  1. Forgot to bring the urine specimen to room temperature
  2. Performed the safranin counterstain too quickly
  3. Skipped the iodine step
  4. Used too much crystal violet
 97) In Gram staining, which of these situations can cause gram-negative cells to appear colourless?
  1. Omission of the counterstain step
  2. Omission of the iodine treatment step
  3. Over-decolourising
  4. Under-decolourising
 98) Which of these is a step in Gram staining?
  1. Chill the specimen on a refrigerated plate
  2. Cover the specimen with iodine for 1 minute
  3. Infiltrate the specimen with paraffin wax
  4. Soak the specimen in an organic solvent such as xylene
 99) Which structure in bacterial cells determines whether the bacteria appear gram-positive or gram-negative?
  1. Capsule
  2. Cell wall
  3. Flagella
  4. Ribosome
 100) A lab technician is performing a Gram stain. After flooding the slide with crystal violet and letting the slide stand for approximately one minute, the technician should rinse the slide with:
  1. acetone
  2. ethanol
  3. iodine
  4. water
 101) In a nitrate reduction test, what colour appears when reagents A and B are added to a control tube with no bacteria?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. Yellow
  4. The tube remains colourless
 102) In PCR testing for infectious agents, what do low Ct values indicate?
  1. High viral load
  2. Late infection stage
  3. Low concentration of the target nucleic acid
  4. Low infectivity
 103) What does colourimetric analysis measure?
  1. The colour change of a solution during heating
  2. The concentration of a substance in a solution
  3. The light emitted by a solution without external light
  4. The presence of ions and dissolved solids in a solution
 104) A patient has a measured osmolality of 283 mOsm/kg and a calculated osmolality of 275 mOsm/kg. Calculate the osmolal gap.
  1. 0.97 mOsm/kg
  2. 1.03 mOsm/kg
  3. 8 mOsm/kg
  4. 556 mOsm/kg
 105) Which condition is most consistent with the results below?
Test Result
Osmolality 290 mmol/kg
Sodium 125 mmol/L
Total cholesterol 35.7 mmol/L
  1. Cushing's syndrome
  2. Hyperaldosteronism
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Pseudohyponatremia
 106) In which disease is haemoglobin A2 elevated?
  1. Alpha-thalassemia
  2. Alport Syndrome
  3. Beta-thalassemia
  4. Hemolytic anemia
 107) In spectrophotometry, what does wavelength refer to?
  1. The distance between wave peaks
  2. The number of waves per unit of time
  3. The time taken for one full wave cycle
  4. The vertical height of a wave
 108) What is the purpose of a diffraction grating in a spectrophotometer?
  1. To amplify radiant energy
  2. To convert light into an electrical signal
  3. To measure scattered light
  4. To separate light into specific wavelengths
 109) What is the formula for calculating the percent transmittance of a solution from its absorbance (A)?
  1. Percent transmittance = 10(2 − A)
  2. Percent transmittance = 10(A + 100)
  3. Percent transmittance = 10(A × 100)
  4. Percent transmittance = 10−A
 110) What does the Sampson equation estimate the level of?
  1. HDL cholesterol
  2. LDL cholesterol
  3. Lipoproteins
  4. Total cholesterol
 111) Which technique measures the amount of light absorbed by a solution at specific wavelengths?
  1. Densitometry
  2. Nephelometry
  3. Refractometry
  4. Spectrophotometry
 112) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?
  1. 5.0
  2. 5.6
  3. 6.5
  4. 8.6
 113) Which analytical technique separates components based on their affinity for a stationary phase and a mobile phase?
  1. Chromatography
  2. Nephelometry
  3. Refractometry
  4. Spectrophotometry
 114) Given the results below, what is the osmolal gap?
Test Result
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Glucose 5 mmol/L
BUN 10 mmol/L
Measured osmolality 301 mmol/kg
  1. 1 mOsm/kg
  2. 3 mOsm/kg
  3. 6 mOsm/kg
  4. 9 mOsm/kg
 115) A 40-year-old man weighing 80 kg has a serum creatinine level of 106.3 µmol/L. Using the Cockcroft-Gault formula, calculate the creatinine clearance in mL/min.
  1. 32.8 mL/min
  2. 68.4 mL/min
  3. 92.6 mL/min
  4. 126.2 mL/min
 116) In which of these situations should you discard a urine sample?
  1. When the sample has no label
  2. When the sample was collected one hour ago
  3. When the sample was refrigerated overnight
  4. When the urine appears cloudy
 117) Which of these biochemistry results is critical?
  1. ALT of 12 U/L in a pregnant woman during her third trimester
  2. Creatinine of 707 µmol/L in a 13-year-old
  3. Potassium of 4.2 mmol/L in a pre-dialysis patient
  4. Total bilirubin of 15.4 µmol/L in a 1-day-old newborn
 118) How does nephelometry differ from turbidimetry?
  1. Nephelometry is used for concentrated solutions, while turbidimetry is used for dilute solutions
  2. Nephelometry measures light at a 180° angle, whereas turbidimetry measures light at a 90° angle
  3. Nephelometry measures scattered light while turbidimetry measures transmitted light
  4. Nephelometry measures solutes, while turbidimetry measures solvents
 119) Which type of acidosis best explains the arterial blood gas results below?
Test Result
pH 7.39
PaCO₂ 59 mmHg
Bicarbonate 39 mmol/L
  1. Compensated metabolic acidosis
  2. Compensated respiratory acidosis
  3. Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
  4. Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
 120) What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?
  1. ph = pKa + log(conjugate base/acid)
  2. PAO₂ = PiO₂ − PaCO₂/R
  3. O₂ saturation = Hb × 1.34 + pO₂ × 0.003
  4. pCO₂ = 1.5 [HCO₃] + 8
 121) A high blood pH and a low PaCO₂ suggest which condition?
  1. Hyperventilation
  2. Hypoventilation
  3. Increased bicarbonate absorption
  4. Decreased bicarbonate absorption
 122) A patient's blood gas results are as follows.
Test Result
pH 7.26
PaCO₂ 55 mmHg
What would these results be classified as?
  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis
 123) A nurse collects an arterial blood specimen for blood gas analysis at 8:30 AM, but does not deliver it to the laboratory until 11 AM. What should the laboratory do?
  1. Perform the test ASAP
  2. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
  3. Request a new sample
  4. Request a venous blood specimen
 124) Which electrode measures the partial pressure of oxygen in blood gas analysers?
  1. Clark
  2. Glass
  3. Sanz
  4. Severinghaus
 125) According to the Beer–Lambert law, absorbance is directly proportional to:
  1. the concentration of the solution
  2. the temperature of the solution
  3. the transmittance of the light
  4. the wavelength of the incident light
 126) Why is it important to clean sample probes on chemistry analysers routinely?
  1. To ensure the cuvettes reach the correct temperature
  2. To improve reagent shelf life
  3. To prevent sample carryover
  4. To prevent wear on the internal light source
 127) Which technology do most modern analysers use to measure electrolyte concentrations?
  1. Flame emission photometry
  2. Gas chromatography
  3. Ion-selective electrodes
  4. Spectrophotometry
 128) In chromatography, what is the term for the time it takes for a specific compound to pass through the system?
  1. Elution time
  2. Migration time
  3. Pass time
  4. Retention time
 129) An anemic patient has the following blood test results.
Test Result
RBC 3.6 × 10¹² cells/L
WBC 6.7×10⁹ cells/L
Hct 15%
Hgb 112 g/L
Reticulocyte percentage 9%
Given a maturation correction of 2.5 and assuming a normal hematocrit of 45%, calculate the reticulocyte production index.
  1. 1.2%
  2. 1.5%
  3. 1.8%
  4. 2.1%
 130) Which white blood cell is most likely to be elevated in acute appendicitis?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
 131) Calculate the corrected reticulocyte percentage from the following results.
Test Result
RBC (cells/L) 4.7×10¹²
WBC (cells/L) 4.5×10⁹
PLT (cells/L) 310×10⁹
Hct 30% (normal Hct = 45%)
Reticulocyte count 1.5%
  1. 0.5%
  2. 1%
  3. 1.5%
  4. 2%
 132) A blood sample for a complete blood count shows red cell agglutination. What should you do?
  1. Add EDTA
  2. Dilute the sample with saline
  3. Discard the sample
  4. Warm the sample to 37°C
 133) Blood test results from an automated analyser show a low red blood cell count, a low hematocrit, and a high MCV, MCH, and MCHC. Under a microscope, agglutination of red blood cells is observed. What step should be taken next?
  1. Add kanamycin to the specimen and rerun the analysis
  2. Dilute the specimen with isotonic diluent by a factor of 1:2 and rerun the analysis
  3. Incubate the blood specimen at 37°C for 10–15 minutes and rerun the analysis
  4. Mix the blood by vortex at the highest setting for 1–2 minutes and rerun the analysis
 134) Which test result is falsely increased by lipemia during spectrophotometric analysis?
  1. Haemoglobin
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Red blood cell count
  4. White blood cell count
 135) Which principle do hematology analysers use for counting red blood cells?
  1. Campbell
  2. Coulter
  3. Stewart
  4. Thompson
 136) Below are normal and abnormal serum protein electrophoresis patterns: Which disease does the abnormal serum protein electrophoresis pattern indicate?
  1. Hepatic cirrhosis
  2. Hypogammaglobulinemia
  3. Monoclonal gammopathy
  4. Nephrotic syndrome
 137) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows.
Score Neutrophils
0 40
+1 40
+2 15
+3 5
+4 0
Calculate the LAP score.
  1. 25
  2. 45
  3. 65
  4. 85
 138) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  4. An icteric bilirubin specimen
 139) Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (LAP) staining was performed on a blood specimen. The specimen was scored as follows.
Score Neutrophils
0 10
+1 40
+2 30
+3 10
+4 10
Which condition most likely explains the result?
  1. Chronic myeloid leukemia
  2. Leukemoid reaction
  3. Leukocytosis
  4. Leukopenia
 140) A patient has a potassium result of 7.2 mEq/L. Before reporting the result, what should the lab technician do?
  1. Check the age of the patient
  2. Check the serum for bacterial contamination
  3. Check the serum for hemolysis
  4. Test the serum for ketones
 141) Which disorder correlates with these findings?
Test Result
PLT 35 × 10⁹/L
HGB 72 g/L
INR 1.5
D-Dimer 22 mg/L
  1. Acquired B
  2. Disseminated intravascular coagulation
  3. Folate deficiency anemia
  4. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia
 142) Where should used microscope slides be disposed of?
  1. Biological waste bin
  2. Clinical waste bin
  3. General waste bin
  4. Sharps container
 143) A doctor orders a blood smear for malaria. After collecting an EDTA blood specimen from the patient, the lab technician should prepare the blood smear within:
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
 144) Which of these would make a blood smear too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using transfused blood
 145) A man has the following blood test results.
Test Result
Red cell count 5.4 × 10¹²/L
White cell count 6.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets 660 × 10⁹/L
Which term applies to these results?
  1. Anemia
  2. Leukocytosis
  3. Polycythemia
  4. Thrombocytosis
 146) A woman has the following blood test results.
Test Result
Red cell count 7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count 7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets 242 × 10⁹/L
What term applies to these results?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukopenia
  3. Polycythemia
  4. Thrombocytopenia
 147) The result of a patient's partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test is >300 seconds. Which of these could be the cause?
  1. The patient had a high-fat meal before the blood draw
  2. The patient has a vitamin K deficiency
  3. The sample was contaminated with heparin
  4. The sample was shaken vigorously
 148) Which factor deficiency correlates with the following results?
Test Result
PT 22 seconds
APTT 79 seconds
Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
  1. Factor I
  2. Factor II
  3. Factor V
  4. Factor VII
 149) In the prothrombin time test, what is the patient's plasma mixed with?
  1. Calcium and activator
  2. Calcium and tissue factor
  3. Platelet lipids and prothrombin
  4. Platelet lipids and thrombin
 150) A patient has a prothrombin time of 12 seconds and an activated partial thromboplastin time of 25 seconds. Which condition does this indicate?
  1. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
  2. Factor V Leiden
  3. Liver disease
  4. Normal health
 151) Which test is used to monitor warfarin therapy?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Haemoglobin
  3. International normalised ratio
  4. Partial thromboplastin time
 152) Which of these coagulation results requires immediate attention?
  1. A PT of 10 seconds
  2. A PT of 13 seconds in a patient on anticoagulants
  3. An INR of 1.0
  4. An INR of 4.5 for a patient on anticoagulants
 153) A patient has a normal PT but an abnormal aPTT. A deficiency of which factor could be the cause?
  1. Factor I
  2. Factor II
  3. Factor V
  4. Factor VIII
 154) Which autosomal dominant trait do these findings suggest?
Test Result
Bleeding time Prolonged
Platelet adhesiveness Abnormal
PT Normal
APTT Normal
CBC Normal
  1. Factor X deficiency
  2. Factor XI deficiency
  3. Hemophilia A
  4. Von Willebrand disease
 155) Which of the following patients has microcytic red blood cells?
HCT RBC (×10¹²/L)
Patient 1 42% 3.9
Patient 2 43% 5.5
Patient 3 50% 4.5
Patient 4 40% 3.1
  1. Patient 1
  2. Patient 2
  3. Patient 3
  4. Patient 4
 156) Which red blood cell morphology is associated with iron deficiency anemia?
  1. Macrocytic hypochromic
  2. Macrocytic normochromic
  3. Microcytic hypochromic
  4. Normocytic normochromic
 157) In healthy individuals, the hematocrit is roughly equal to three times the:
  1. haemoglobin
  2. mean corpuscular volume
  3. red blood cell count
  4. white blood cell count
 158) How is mean corpuscular volume (MCV) calculated?
  1. MCV = (HCT / RBC) × 10
  2. MCV = (HGB / HCT) × 10
  3. MCV = HGB / RBC
  4. MCV = RBC/10 × HGB
 159) A patient has the following hematology results.
Test Result
RBC 4.0×10¹²/L
Haemoglobin 120 g/L
Hematocrit 0.45
Calculate the mean corpuscular haemoglobin (MCH).
  1. 12 pg
  2. 20 pg
  3. 30 pg
  4. 56 pg
 160) A patient has the following hematology results.
Test Result
RBC 4.2 × 10¹²/L
Haemoglobin 120 g/L
Hematocrit 0.4
Use the results to calculate the mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC).
  1. 150 g/L
  2. 200 g/L
  3. 250 g/L
  4. 300 g/L
 161) Which red blood cell index is the average amount of haemoglobin in a single red blood cell?
  1. RDW
  2. MCV
  3. MCH
  4. RBC
 162) Which of these complete blood count values is calculated, not measured?
  1. Haemoglobin
  2. MCHC
  3. Platelet count
  4. Red blood cell count
 163) Which technique measures the physical and chemical properties of cells by analysing their light scattering and fluorescence emission?
  1. Flow cytometry
  2. Impedance counting
  3. Osmometry
  4. Refractometry
 164) Which of these may cause a falsely elevated WBC count on automated analysers?
  1. Cold agglutinins
  2. Low hematocrit
  3. Nucleated red blood cells
  4. Platelet satellitism
 165) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?
  1. 10x
  2. 40x
  3. 50x
  4. 70x
 166) Leptocytes are found on a blood smear. Which of the following diseases is the LEAST likely?
  1. Alpha-thalassemia
  2. Haemoglobin C disease
  3. Iron deficiency anemia
  4. Spherocytosis
 167) Which abnormal red blood cells are in the blood smear below?
  1. Acanthocytes
  2. Dacrocytes
  3. Echinocytes
  4. Schistocytes
 168) Which type of red blood cell is the arrow pointing to in the blood smear below?
  1. Burr
  2. Sickle
  3. Spur
  4. Target
 169) Which abnormal red blood cells are in the blood smear below?
  1. Burr
  2. Sickle
  3. Spur
  4. Target
 170) A patient has a decreased factor VIII assay, a normal factor IX assay, and a prolonged aPTT. Which condition does the patient have?
  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
  2. Acute myeloid leukaemia
  3. Hemophilia A
  4. Hemophilia B
 171) Which condition best fits these test results?
Test Result
Iron 85 µmol/L
Transferrin saturation 70%
Ferritin 875 µg/L
  1. Anemia of chronic disease
  2. Hemochromatosis
  3. Iron deficiency anemia
  4. Metabolic syndrome
 172) Which of these hematology results is critical?
  1. Haemoglobin: 50 g/L
  2. INR: 2.9
  3. Neutrophils: 7 × 10⁹/L
  4. Platelets: 320 × 10⁹/L
 173) A patient has symptoms of fatigue, weakness, and difficulty breathing. Blood tests reveal high iron, high ferritin, and a normal total iron binding capacity (TIBC). A peripheral blood smear shows red blood cells that are microcytic and hypochromic and have basophilic stippling. Pappenheimer bodies are also observed inside the red blood cells. What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Acute intermittent porphyria
  2. Porphyria cutanea tarda
  3. Sickle cell anemia
  4. Sideroblastic anemia
 174) A patient has the following test results.
Test Result
RBC 2.8 × 10¹²/L
Platelet count 75.0 × 10⁹/L
Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) mutation Positive
Peripheral blood smear examination reveals dacryocytes and nucleated red blood cells. Which condition best fits these results?
  1. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia
  2. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
  3. Polycythemia vera
  4. Primary myelofibrosis
 175) What are target cells also known as?
  1. Codocytes
  2. Dacrocytes
  3. Echinocytes
  4. Spherocytes
 176) What formula calculates red blood cell distribution width (RDW)?
  1. RDW = (1 SD of the MCV / MCV) × 100
  2. RDW = (HCT / RBC) × 10
  3. RDW = (RBC × MCV) / 10
  4. RDW = HGB / RBC
 177) What is the main purpose of incident reports?
  1. To assign legal responsibility for failures
  2. To identify the individual responsible for the error
  3. To improve safety and quality
  4. To reduce the documentation workload
 178) What does the Y-axis represent in a Bland-Altman plot?
  1. The average of the two measurements
  2. The dependent variable
  3. The difference between the two measurements
  4. The percentage error of the measurements
 179) What does an internal audit evaluate?
  1. Compliance with laboratory policies
  2. Patient clinical outcomes
  3. Patient satisfaction
  4. The performance of other laboratories
 180) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?
  1. Calculating test results incorrectly
  2. Interpreting results incorrectly
  3. Mislabelling a blood specimen
  4. Reporting a result on the wrong patient
 181) What is the term for when readings become consistently lower or higher over time?
  1. Calibration
  2. Drift
  3. Offset error
  4. Unpredictability
 182) Which of these is an example of a zero error?
  1. A blood sample missing a label
  2. A lab technician forgetting a zero when performing a calculation
  3. A thermometer registering 102°C in boiling water instead of 100°C
  4. Scales that give a reading of 1.1 g when nothing is placed on them
 183) Random error mainly affects:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal validity
  4. precision
 184) Rapid antigen tests are typically described as:
  1. qualitative and diagnostic
  2. qualitative and screening
  3. quantitative and diagnostic
  4. quantitative and monitoring
 185) You mistype a value into the LIS, causing a critical result to go unnoticed. Which action best demonstrates reflective practice?
  1. Avoiding entering high-risk data in the future
  2. Practising using the computer to prevent future mistakes
  3. Requesting disciplinary action from your supervisor
  4. Reviewing why the error happened
 186) A coworker suggests skipping thermometer calibration because “the thermometer is always accurate.” What is the best response?
  1. Agree to save time
  2. Calibrate only if temperatures look wrong
  3. Explain that calibration is essential for valid results
  4. Stop using the thermometer entirely
 187) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:
  1. corporate compliance
  2. critical thinking
  3. quality assurance
  4. risk management
 188) A hospital introduces a new blood glucose meter. The laboratory should:
  1. create a survey for patient feedback
  2. order new disposable gloves
  3. revise the daily lab cleaning schedule
  4. update the quality control procedures
 189) During daily quality control for a prothrombin time test, the results fall consistently three standard deviations above the mean. After repeating the test using new reagents and fresh quality control material, the results remain three standard deviations above the mean. What should be the next course of action?
  1. Check the coagulation analyser
  2. Perform patient testing and multiply all results by 3
  3. Perform patient testing on STAT samples only
  4. Reduce the number of quality control runs to minimise variability
 190) A lab technician runs controls for the L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamide (PYR) test. The results are as follows.
Organism Result
Streptococcus pyogenes Positive
Streptococcus agalactiae Negative
Enterococcus faecalis Positive
What action should the lab technician take?
  1. Discard the reagent
  2. Replace the dye
  3. Retest the control organisms
  4. Start testing patient samples since the test is functioning correctly
 191) What is the term for a substance with an exact known value that can produce a solution of an exact concentration?
  1. Benchmark
  2. Control
  3. Model
  4. Standard
 192) Which two organisms are used for quality control in the novobiocin susceptibility test?
  1. Enterococcus faecalis and Enterococcus faecium
  2. Escherichia coli and Enterococcus faecalis
  3. Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae
 193) If a potassium calibration standard is too concentrated, patient results would be:
  1. falsely high
  2. falsely low
  3. less precise
  4. more precise
 194) Which is an example of external quality control?
  1. Daily glucose control testing
  2. Instrument calibration
  3. Levey-Jennings charts
  4. Proficiency testing
 195) What is the most likely cause of pseudohyperkalemia in patients with leukocytosis?
  1. Contamination with a gadolinium MRI contrast agent
  2. Interference from a blood pressure medication such as furosemide
  3. Low level of magnesium in the blood
  4. Rupture of blood cells in the blood sample
 196) What is the purpose of proficiency testing?
  1. To comply with environmental regulations
  2. To evaluate a laboratory's testing accuracy
  3. To monitor the rate of equipment malfunctions
  4. To track the inventory levels of laboratory reagents
 197) Which term means the ability of a procedure to detect only a substance of interest instead of other substances?
  1. Analytical sensitivity
  2. Analytical specificity
  3. Diagnostic sensitivity
  4. Diagnostic specificity
 198) Checking and adjusting a measuring instrument against a known standard is called:
  1. calibration
  2. estimation
  3. graduation
  4. mensuration
 199) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?
  1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
  2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
  3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
  4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory
 200) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?
  1. Laboratory quality manual
  2. Safety data sheet
  3. Safety manual
  4. Standard operating procedure
 201) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance indicator?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Fume hoods
  3. Laboratory turnaround time
  4. Thorough records of exposure incidents
 202) A substance with a known value that is used to ensure the validity and accuracy of test results is called a:
  1. control
  2. reagent
  3. reference
  4. sample
 203) Which of the following quality control results is acceptable for the L-pyrrolidonyl-β-naphthylamide (PYR) test?
  1. Enterococcus faecalis: positive
  2. Escherichia coli: positive
  3. Streptococcus agalactiae: positive
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes: negative
 204) In a nitrate reduction test, the broth remains colourless after nitrate A and B reagents are added, and still remains colourless after zinc is added. What does this indicate?
  1. Nitrate is still present in the broth
  2. Nitrate was reduced beyond nitrite, such as to nitrogen gas
  3. Nitrate was reduced to nitrite
  4. The reagents are invalid
 205) The following chart compares an old method of performing a hematologic test (X-axis) with a new method (Y-axis). The squares represent samples tested with both methods and the black line is the line of best fit. What kind of bias does the new method show?
  1. Constant
  2. Non-linear
  3. Proportional
  4. Sampling
 206) Which of these is a pre-analytical quality indicator?
  1. Number of improperly labelled samples
  2. Number of laboratory reporting errors
  3. Percentage of results delivered late
  4. Turnaround time
 207) What kind of chart is a graphical presentation of run-to-run or day-to-day quality control values?
  1. Eadie-Hofstee
  2. Hanes-Woolf
  3. Levey-Jennings
  4. Lineweaver-Burk
 208) Which ISO standard specifies requirements for quality and competence in medical laboratories?
  1. ISO 15106
  2. ISO 15189
  3. ISO 15503
  4. ISO 15513
 209) If the same thing is measured many times and the measurements are always the same, this means the measurements are:
  1. accurate
  2. reliable
  3. valid
  4. variable
 210) A machine consistently reports results that are lower than the true value. This is a problem with:
  1. accuracy
  2. precision
  3. sensitivity
  4. specificity
 211) If two methods have a correlation coefficient of 0.98, this means they produce results that are:
  1. completely different
  2. identical
  3. inaccurate
  4. very similar
 212) What does the coefficient of variation measure?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Sensitivity
  4. Specificity
 213) In a control run, two consecutive control results exceed the +2 SD limit. What does this indicate?
  1. Contamination of control material
  2. Random error due to poor precision
  3. Systematic error due to poor accuracy
  4. The control is normal, begin patient testing
 214) What is precision?
  1. The closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
  2. The closeness of a result to the median value
  3. The closeness of a result to the true value
  4. The repeatability of a procedure
 215) The following quality control results were obtained:
Test number Result
1 13.1
2 13.0
3 13.1
4 13.1
5 13.0
Given that the target value for the control is 6.0 mmol/L ± 0.5 mmol/L, these results are:
  1. precise but not accurate
  2. accurate but not precise
  3. both accurate and precise
  4. neither accurate nor precise
 216) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
 217) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic sensitivity?
  1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
  2. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
  3. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
  4. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
 218) The following data pertains to a new diagnostic test.
True positives 30
True negatives 40
False positives 12
False negatives 10
Calculate the negative predictive value of the test.
  1. 80%
  2. 82%
  3. 90%
  4. 92%
 219) A cancer screening test has the following results.
True positives 100
True negatives 15
False positives 85
False negatives 0
The test shows high:
  1. accuracy
  2. reproducibility
  3. sensitivity
  4. specificity
 220) A diabetes screening test incorrectly detects diabetes in 5% of healthy patients who do not have diabetes. This means the:
  1. sensitivity is 5%
  2. sensitivity is 95%
  3. specificity is 5%
  4. specificity is 95%
 221) A test suitable for screening purposes should have:
  1. high sensitivity
  2. high specificity
  3. low sensitivity
  4. low specificity
 222) A lab assistant notices multiple near-expired Vacutainer tubes in the stock cupboard. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Mix them randomly with the new tubes
  2. Put the older tubes at the front
  3. Return the tubes to the manufacturer for a refund
  4. Throw them away
 223) A courier delivery of specimen tubes is delayed, and your stock is running low. What is the best course of action?
  1. Ask patients to bring tubes from home
  2. Cancel all draws
  3. Only collect STAT specimens
  4. Reuse old tubes after autoclaving them
 224) What is the term for the process of reducing the impact or likelihood of risks?
  1. Risk implementation
  2. Risk improvement
  3. Risk mitigation
  4. Risk retention
 225) What is the term for a specimen with a known value that is used during calibration?
  1. Compound
  2. Control
  3. Reagent
  4. Standard
 226) What is the purpose of instrument calibration?
  1. To ensure the accuracy of the instrument
  2. To ensure the instrument is properly cleaned
  3. To prolong the battery life of instruments
  4. To repair broken instruments
 227) What is the term for when a control chart shows seven consecutive points that steadily increase in value?
  1. Cycle
  2. Outlier
  3. Shift
  4. Trend
 228) Which Westgard rule is violated if two measurements in the same run have a 4 standard deviation difference?
  1. 1₂ₛ
  2. 2₂ₛ
  3. 4₁ₛ
  4. R₄ₛ
 229) A lab technician performs a control run and finds that four consecutive measurements exceed 1 standard deviation on the same side of the mean. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Accept the control run
  2. Accept the control run but make a note of the incident in the log file
  3. Reject the control run and take corrective action
  4. Rerun the control run
 230) Below is a Levey-Jennings quality control chart representing the control values for 20 consecutive analyses: Which Westgard rule is violated in this chart?
  1. 10ₓ
  2. 1₂ₛ
  3. 4₁ₛ
  4. R₄ₛ
 231) In a control run for a serum magnesium test, a control exceeds two standard deviations above the mean and another control exceeds two standard deviations below the mean. What does this indicate?
  1. Contamination of control material
  2. Random error due to poor precision
  3. Shift in the mean of the distribution
  4. Systematic error due to poor accuracy
 232) In a run of twenty control samples, a single control value falls two standard deviations outside of the mean. The other control readings are within the normal range, and no source of error can be identified. What is the most appropriate action to take?
  1. Inform relevant clinicians that past results may be incorrect
  2. Prepare a new reagent
  3. Replace the equipment
  4. Report patient results
 233) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?
  1. Accept the run
  2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
  3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
  4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous
 234) What are Levey-Jennings charts used for?
  1. Determining how well a laboratory test is working
  2. Logging the daily calibration of laboratory instruments
  3. Summarising monthly performance statistics
  4. Tracking the expiration dates of test reagents
 235) What is the term for when a control chart shows seven consecutive points on the same side of the mean?
  1. Cycle
  2. Outlier
  3. Shift
  4. Trend
 236) Which pathophysiological effect may result from transfusions of red blood cells with low 2,3-DPG levels?
  1. Decreased carbon dioxide levels
  2. Increased mixed venous oxygen tension
  3. Lower blood viscosity
  4. Tissue hypoxia
 237) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into patients?
  1. Cryoprecipitate
  2. Fresh frozen plasma
  3. Frozen washed red cells
  4. Granulocytes
 238) Which of these conditions can the direct antiglobulin test detect?
  1. Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
  2. Iron deficiency anemia
  3. Myeloma
  4. Sickle cell anemia
 239) A 35-year-old woman needs three units of red blood cells. The laboratory performs an antibody screen to identify any blood group antibodies. The antibody screen is positive. According to the results of the antibody panel below, which antibody most likely caused the positive result?
  1. Anti-C
  2. Anti-D
  3. Anti-E
  4. Anti-K
 240) What is the second-most important blood group system for blood transfusions?
  1. Lutheran
  2. MNS
  3. P
  4. Rh
 241) What does reverse blood typing determine?
  1. The antibodies in the patient's plasma
  2. The antigens in the patient's plasma
  3. The antigens on the patient's red blood cells
  4. The presence of abnormal red blood cells
 242) What cells are used to detect ABO antibodies in reverse blood grouping?
  1. Dendritic cells
  2. Erythroblasts
  3. Mast cells
  4. Red blood cells
 243) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?
  1. 1 hour
  2. 4 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 5 days
 244) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?
  1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
  2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise for four hours after donating blood
  3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration
 245) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?
  1. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
  2. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  3. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes
 246) Which condition automatically disqualifies stored blood for transfusion?
  1. Icterus
  2. Lipemia
  3. Presence of clots
  4. Refrigeration
 247) What is seen microscopically in a positive Kleihauer-Betke test?
  1. Blue maternal red blood cells and pale fetal red blood cells
  2. Granular maternal red blood cells and blue fetal red blood cells
  3. Pale maternal red blood cells and pink fetal red blood cells
  4. Pink maternal red blood cells and granular fetal red blood cells
 248) If a Kleihauer-Betke test shows 1.2% of fetal cells, how many 300 µg vials of RhIG would the mother need?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
 249) A Kleihauer-Betke test reports 2.2% fetal cells. What is the estimated volume of fetal blood in the maternal circulation?
  1. 110 mL
  2. 160 mL
  3. 220 mL
  4. 270 mL
 250) What does an immediate spin crossmatch detect?
  1. ABO incompatibility
  2. Clinically significant IgG antibodies
  3. Fetomaternal hemorrhage
  4. Rh antibodies
 251) A patient’s red blood cells react 1+ with anti-D, then react 3+ after AHG is added. What is the most likely RhD type?
  1. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  2. Hemolytic disease of the newborn
  3. Hereditary spherocytosis
  4. Weak D
 252) A patient with Rh genotype DCe/DCe receives red blood cells from a dce/dce donor. Which alloantibody is the patient most likely to produce in response to the donor's red blood cells?
  1. Anti-C
  2. Anti-D
  3. Anti-c
  4. Anti-e
 253) What blood type should a weak D–positive donor be reported as?
  1. ABO incompatible
  2. Rh positive
  3. Rh negative
  4. Inconclusive
 254) What is the term for people whose cells have the D antigen?
  1. D carriers
  2. IgD-positive
  3. Pro-D
  4. Rh-positive
 255) A patient's blood type testing results are as follows.
Red cell grouping Serum grouping
anti-A anti-B anti-D A₁ cells B cells
0 4+ 0 4+ 0
What is the patient's blood group?
  1. A+
  2. A−
  3. B+
  4. B−
 256) A person who is blood group B has:
  1. A antigens and anti-A antibodies
  2. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
  3. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
  4. B antigens and anti-B antibodies
 257) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows.
Red cell grouping Serum grouping
anti-A anti-B anti-A₁ A₁ cells B cells
4+ 0 0 2+ 4+
What is the patient's ABO subtype?
  1. A₁
  2. A₂
  3. A₁B
  4. A₂B
 258) A patient types as group A but shows agglutination with anti-A₁ lectin. What is the most likely explanation?
  1. The patient is AB
  2. The patient is A₁
  3. The patient is A₂
  4. The patient is weak D
 259) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows.
Red cell grouping Serum grouping
anti-A anti-B A cells B cells
4+ 1+ 0 4+
What is the likely cause of these results?
  1. Acquired B
  2. Chimerism
  3. Hypogammaglobulinemia
  4. Immunosuppression
 260) In blood typing, what colour may anti-A be dyed as a quality control measure?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
 261) A patient's ABO testing results are as follows.
Forward typing Reverse typing
anti-A anti-B A cells B cells
+ 0 0 +
What is the patient's ABO type?
  1. Group A
  2. Group AB
  3. Group B
  4. Group O
 262) Refer to the blood typing test results below.
anti-A anti-B anti-D Rh type
+ 0 + DCe/dce
What is the patient's blood type?
  1. A+
  2. A−
  3. B+
  4. B−
 263) Which type of autoantibody is most likely if the screening cells, auto control, and all panel cells react during the antihuman globulin phase of antibody screening?
  1. Anti-D
  2. Anti-K
  3. Cold
  4. Warm
 264) Which of these medications can cause a false positive result on the direct antiglobulin test?
  1. Aspirin
  2. Clopidogrel
  3. Levothyroxine
  4. Penicillin
 265) After adding IgG-coated red blood cells to a negative antiglobulin test, no agglutination occurs. What is the most appropriate conclusion?
  1. The original negative test result is valid
  2. The patient has antibodies against their own red blood cells
  3. The saline washings were adequate
  4. The test needs to be repeated
 266) A technician has prepared IgG-coated check cells. To verify the check cells work properly, the technician mixes the check cells with anti-IgG. The check cells react 4+. What does this indicate?
  1. A problem with the anti-IgG
  2. A problem with the check cells
  3. Centrifugation was too fast
  4. Normal result
 267) A blood donor is tested with Rh antisera. The results are as follows.
anti-D anti-C anti-E anti-c anti-e
+ + 0 + +
What is the donor's most probable Rh genotype?
  1. DCe/DCe
  2. DCe/DcE
  3. DCe/dce
  4. Dce/dCe
 268) Urine is applied to a pregnancy strip. After several minutes, the strip shows no lines. This means the result is:
  1. inconclusive
  2. invalid
  3. negative
  4. positive
 269) Which statement about the arterial blood gas (ABG) test is true?
  1. ABG samples should be analysed within 15 minutes of collection
  2. ABG specimens are collected in a plain red top tube
  3. ABG specimens must be frozen immediately after collection
  4. ABG specimens must be tested within 24 hours
 270) You receive a request for a test you are unfamiliar with. What is the safest next step?
  1. Ask another MLA what they would do
  2. Check the lab’s SOP
  3. Perform every step twice
  4. Refuse to perform the test
 271) Which test can rule out a false positive result for bilirubin on a urine strip?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. Sulphosalicylic acid (SSA)
 272) Urine samples for culture should be collected in containers that:
  1. are narrow-mouthed
  2. are sterile
  3. contain an anticoagulant
  4. have been cleaned with disinfectant
 273) Which chemical is used to preserve urine samples for bacterial culture tests?
  1. Ammonia
  2. Boric acid
  3. Calcium hydroxide
  4. Potassium hydroxide
 274) Which chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?
  1. Glucose oxidase
  2. Glucose oxide
  3. Glucose reductase
  4. Hexichloridine
 275) Which is the preferred additive for collecting blood culture specimens?
  1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium heparin
  4. Sodium polyanethol sulphonate
 276) A courier delivers a chain of custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain of custody form?
  1. Only the courier
  2. Only the laboratory technician
  3. The courier and the laboratory technician
  4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician
 277) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?
  1. The name of the patient's doctor
  2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
  3. The time the specimen was collected
  4. The type of specimen collected
 278) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
 279) Why is it crucial to follow chain-of-custody procedures in forensic testing?
  1. To ensure test results are confidential
  2. To maintain the integrity of evidence
  3. To prevent post-analytical errors
  4. To verify the patient’s insurance information
 280) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?
  1. Ask the courier to complete a new form
  2. Fill out a new form yourself
  3. Reject the specimen
  4. Test the specimen, but add a comment
 281) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fetal fibronectin
  3. Free light chains test
  4. Legal paternity test
 282) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these questions is the best way to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  3. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  4. "What is your name?"
 283) What visual sign suggests a plasma sample is hemolyzed?
  1. Air bubbles
  2. Blood clots
  3. Decreased transparency
  4. Pink or cherry red colour
 284) Why are blood samples for ammonia tests transported on ice?
  1. To prevent the breakdown of ammonia
  2. To prevent the conversion of ammonia to nitrite
  3. To prevent the generation of ammonia
  4. To prevent the growth of pathogenic microorganisms
 285) A courier arrives early to pick up specimens, but some of the samples are still centrifuging. What should you do?
  1. Ask the courier to wait
  2. Skip centrifugation for all non-STAT tubes
  3. Stop the centrifuge early
  4. Tell the courier to come back tomorrow
 286) Which of these specimens should be rejected for testing?
  1. A blood glucose sample exposed to light
  2. A frozen urine culture sample
  3. A refrigerated blood sample for TSH testing
  4. A urine creatinine sample transported at room temperature
 287) A nurse insists a specimen must be transported on ice, but the lab manual says it must be transported at room temperature. What should you do?
  1. Do what the nurse says
  2. Follow the lab manual and document the reasoning
  3. Refuse to transport the specimen
  4. Transport half the specimen on ice and half at room temperature
 288) A urine specimen without preservative arrives at the laboratory five hours after it was collected. To be acceptable for culture testing, the specimen must have been:
  1. kept at room temperature
  2. kept frozen
  3. kept refrigerated
  4. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
 289) A patient produces a semen sample at home. When bringing the sample to the clinic, the patient should keep the sample:
  1. at room temperature
  2. next to a hot water bottle
  3. on ice
  4. refrigerated
 290) A cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen is collected for culture, but the laboratory cannot process the specimen immediately. At what temperature should the specimen be maintained until testing?
  1. Frozen at –60°C
  2. Frozen at –20°C
  3. Refrigerator temperature (2–8°C)
  4. Room temperature
 291) Which test result becomes falsely increased by removing the stopper from a blood specimen?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Glucose
  3. pCO₂
  4. pH
 292) When a blood sample is left at room temperature, which of these analytes increases?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Glucose
  3. Haemoglobin
  4. Potassium
 293) Extra precautions are necessary when labelling specimens for:
  1. C&S
  2. blood typing
  3. factor assays
  4. therapeutic drug monitoring
 294) Which class of dangerous goods includes infectious substances?
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6
 295) In Type P650 packaging, the primary and secondary receptacles must be:
  1. dustproof
  2. heatproof
  3. leakproof
  4. sunproof
 296) What are diagnostic specimens suspected of containing Salmonella transported as?
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Class 1
  4. Class 2
 297) Category B infectious substances must be shipped with a label that says:
  1. UN 2814 – Infectious Substance, Category B, Affecting Humans
  2. UN 3291 – Clinical Waste, Category B
  3. UN 3373 – Biological Substance, Category B
  4. UN 3549 – Medical Waste, Category B, Affecting Humans
 298) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Type 1B
 299) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?
  1. A610
  2. A630
  3. P620
  4. P650
 300) Which of the following is an example of a qualitative test?
  1. Blood gas test
  2. Fecal occult blood test
  3. Lipid panel
  4. Serum glucose level
 301) A urine dipstick reports glucose as “++”. This result is:
  1. categorical
  2. qualitative
  3. quantitative
  4. semi-quantitative
 302) Which of these results is most likely to require notification to public health authorities?
  1. Acute allergic reaction
  2. Positive HIV test
  3. Positive mononucleosis test
  4. Positive pregnancy test
 303) Which factor should be considered first when an add-on request is received?
  1. The availability of the lab technician
  2. The cost of the additional test
  3. The original test result
  4. The specimen's stability
 304) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
  1. diluted urine
  2. refrigerated urine
  3. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
  4. the supernatant of a centrifuged urine
 305) A patient with fatigue and nausea has the following kidney function results.
Test Result
Urine pH 5.5
Urine glucose 0 mmol/L
GFR 31
UACR >6.9 mg/mmol
No blood or abnormal cells can be seen in the urine. Which of these diagnoses is most compatible with the findings?
  1. Bladder cancer
  2. Diabetes
  3. Kidney disease
  4. Prostate cancer
 306) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
  2. Centrifuge the urine sample
  3. Place a coverslip over the sample
  4. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide
 307) Which test confirms a positive immunoassay drug test?
  1. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
  2. Gas chromatography-mass spectrometry
  3. Ion-selective electrode
  4. Thin-layer chromatography
 308) A 40-year-old man weighing 70 kg has a serum creatinine level of 1.00 mg/dL. Using the Cockcroft-Gault equation, estimate the man's creatinine clearance in mL per minute.
  1. 97.2
  2. 102.7
  3. 107.3
  4. 112.9
 309) A urine sample tested positive for urine protein by a dipstick test but negative by the sulphosalicylic acid method. What is the probable cause of these conflicting results?
  1. The urine contained crystals
  2. The urine contained ketones
  3. The urine was very alkaline
  4. The urine was very turbid
 310) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Catecholamines
  2. Creatinine clearance
  3. Ketones
  4. Ketosteroids
 311) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 31-year-old woman.
Parameter Result
Colour Pale yellow
Appearance Cloudy
Specific gravity 1.015
pH 6.0
Glucose Negative
Protein 1+
Bacteria Many
WBC casts Many
WBC/HPF 30
Which disease are these results most compatible with?
  1. Glomerulonephritis
  2. Pyelonephritis
  3. Renal calculus
  4. Vaginitis
 312) The following results were obtained from a urine specimen.
Parameter Result
White blood cells Positive
White blood cell casts Positive
Bacteria Negative
Which condition best fits these results?
  1. Diabetes mellitus
  2. Interstitial nephritis
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Pyelonephritis
 313) The following results were obtained from the urine of a 45-year-old male.
Parameter Result
Colour Pale yellow
Appearance Foamy
Specific gravity 1.030
pH 6.5
Glucose Negative
Protein 2+
Bacteria Negative
WBC Negative
Fatty casts Many
Oval fat bodies Many
What is the most likely diagnosis?
  1. Acute pyelonephritis
  2. Cystitis
  3. Nephrotic syndrome
  4. Polycystic kidney disease
 314) How does GC-MS differ from immunoassay drug screening?
  1. GC-MS has higher cross-reactivity
  2. GC-MS is the initial screening test
  3. GC-MS provides definitive confirmation
  4. GC-MS uses antibody-antigen binding to detect drugs
 315) The presence of epithelial cell casts in urine indicates:
  1. liver disease
  2. nephrotic syndrome
  3. pyelonephritis
  4. renal tubular damage
 316) A patient's cerebrospinal fluid has a lactate value of 40 mg/dL. Which type of meningitis does this indicate?
  1. Bacterial
  2. Fungal
  3. Tubercular
  4. Viral
 317) What is the normal adult range for leukocyte count?
  1. 0.5–7.0 × 10⁹/L
  2. 2.5–9.0 × 10⁹/L
  3. 4.5–11.0 × 10⁹/L
  4. 6.5–13.0 × 10⁹/L
 318) Which of these patients has results consistent with fluid overload?
Patient Gender Creatinine BUN
1 Male 131 µmol/L 11.8 mmol/L
2 Male 32 µmol/L 0.5 mmol/L
3 Female 95 µmol/L 3.4 mmol/L
4 Male 70 µmol/L 7.1 mmol/L
  1. Patient 1
  2. Patient 2
  3. Patient 3
  4. Patient 4
 319) Which of these hematology tests is outside the normal range?
  1. PLT: 257 × 10⁹/L
  2. RBC: 7.2 × 10¹²/L
  3. WBC: 5.4 × 10⁹/L
  4. WBC: 8.1 × 10⁹/L
 320) What is the expected result of a negative control of an immunohistochemical test?
  1. No specific staining
  2. Staining of all cells
  3. Staining of cells expected to express the antigen
  4. Staining of cells without the antigen
 321) Which of the following is a critical value in an adult?
  1. Cholesterol level of 6.5 mmol/L
  2. Glucose level of 2.5 mmol/L
  3. Haemoglobin A1c of 6.5%
  4. Potassium level of 4.5 mmol/L
 322) Microscopic examination of the urine of a patient with kidney stones reveals amber, barrel-shaped crystals. The pH of the urine is 5.5. What are these crystals?
  1. Calcium carbonate
  2. Calcium phosphate
  3. Struvite
  4. Uric acid
 323) Incident reports should be:
  1. filed with the associated visit
  2. stored separately from the health record
  3. the first document seen when accessing a record
  4. thrown out once the incident is investigated
 324) What ethical dilemma does a healthcare provider face when a patient refuses a life-saving treatment?
  1. Being honest vs. withholding information
  2. Healthcare needs vs. resource allocations
  3. Patient autonomy vs. the duty to provide care
  4. Pro-choice vs. pro-life
 325) Which principle of data ethics emphasises that organisations collecting and using data are answerable for the consequences of their actions?
  1. Accountability
  2. Consent
  3. Equity
  4. Privacy protection
 326) A researcher is given copies of patient records for a study. The researcher replaces the real names in the records with fake names to protect the privacy of the patients. He also keeps a record that links the real names to the fake names so he can re-identify the data if necessary. What type of information has the researcher created?
  1. Aggregate
  2. Anonymous
  3. De-identified
  4. Pseudonymized
 327) What is the purpose of peer review in scientific research?
  1. To decrease cognitive overload
  2. To ensure research is accurate
  3. To increase the publication rate
  4. To reduce research costs
 328) Which sources provide the highest level of evidence?
  1. Case series and case reports
  2. Case-control studies and case reports
  3. Expert opinions and retrospective comparative studies
  4. Systematic reviews and meta-analyses
 329) In which study does neither the researcher nor the participants know to which group the participants belong?
  1. Control group
  2. Double blind
  3. Placebo
  4. Random sampling
 330) What kind of study monitors people over ten years?
  1. Concurrent
  2. Cross-sectional
  3. Longitudinal
  4. Retrospective
 331) Which technique identifies the underlying cause of problems?
  1. Affinity diagram
  2. Brainstorming
  3. Proactive risk assessment
  4. Root cause analysis
 332) Which research method involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable?
  1. Experimental
  2. Longitudinal
  3. Mixed
  4. Secondary data analysis
 333) What statistical method draws conclusions about the larger population by examining a sample of that population?
  1. Binomial
  2. Descriptive
  3. Inferential
  4. Special
 334) Which type of research method only uses numerical data?
  1. Case study
  2. Interview
  3. Qualitative
  4. Quantitative
 335) What type of statistics provides simple summaries about the basic features of the data?
  1. Descriptive
  2. Hypothetical
  3. Inferential
  4. Predictive
 336) Which type of study compares individuals with and without a particular disease or condition?
  1. Case control
  2. Cohort
  3. Cross sectional
  4. Randomised clinical trial
 337) What is the main function of a literature review?
  1. To design a research instrument
  2. To develop a case study
  3. To summarise current knowledge
  4. To test a hypothesis
 338) What is the name of a study where only the experimenter knows which group each participant is in, while the participants themselves are unaware?
  1. Double-blind
  2. Non-blind
  3. Relational sampling
  4. Single-blind
 339) Which research method involves coding and categorising documents, interviews, or videos to identify themes, patterns, or trends within the data?
  1. Case study
  2. Content analysis
  3. Cross-sectional study
  4. Meta-analysis
 340) Which of these is true about random sampling?
  1. All subjects are unaware that there is an experiment taking place
  2. All subjects have an equal chance of being selected
  3. Subjects are chosen as they become available
  4. Subjects are selected based on convenience
 341) Which of these research methods collects qualitative data?
  1. Closed-ended survey
  2. Experiment
  3. Interview
  4. Rating scale
 342) Which of the following is an example of unconscious bias in research?
  1. Falsifying data to support a hypothesis
  2. Failing to disclose funding sources
  3. Noticing only data fitting theories
  4. Randomising participants to different groups
 343) A correlational analysis reveals a correlation of +0.95 between the length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection. What does this tell you?
  1. The length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection increase together
  2. The length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection vary in opposite directions
  3. The longer patients stay in the hospital, the more infections they will get
  4. The more infections patients get, the longer they will have to stay in the hospital
 344) Which type of study involves observations of a population at a single point in time?
  1. Cohort
  2. Cross-sectional
  3. Longitudinal
  4. Qualitative
 345) What type of research would be used to study how age affects serum glucose level?
  1. Correlational
  2. Evaluation
  3. Experimental
  4. Retrospective
 346) A scale that has "excellent", "very good", "good", "fair", and "poor" as variables is an example of which scale of measurement?
  1. Interval
  2. Nominal
  3. Ordinal
  4. Ratio
 347) What is the name for a combination of results from several studies?
  1. A meta-analysis
  2. An experiment
  3. Data mining
  4. Epidemiology
 348) An experiment tests the effects of a new antihypertensive medication on blood pressure. In this experiment, the medication is:
  1. a confounding factor
  2. the dependent variable
  3. the hypothesis
  4. the independent variable
 349) Which of these helps maintain data integrity?
  1. Calculating statistics manually
  2. Increasing the frequency of data collection
  3. Using WORM (write once, read many) storage
  4. Using multiple sources of data
 350) What is data stewardship?
  1. The process of storing data in multiple locations
  2. The regulation of the collection and access of data
  3. The standardisation of data collection formats
  4. The task of ensuring data quality and security
 351) What internet-based platform lets people view their personal health information?
  1. Patient portal
  2. Telehealth
  3. Virtual care
  4. e-Health
 352) Patients have the right to inspect and obtain a copy of their personal health information:
  1. for as long as the PHI is maintained
  2. for six years
  3. for 1 year
  4. forever
 353) Which type of personal health information is used for direct patient care and has the strictest privacy regulations?
  1. Aggregate
  2. De-identified
  3. Identifiable
  4. Pseudonymized
 354) What is the most effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Elimination
  3. Engineering controls
  4. Substitution
 355) What is the least effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Engineering controls
  3. Personal protective equipment
  4. Substitution
 356) The Globally Harmonised System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:
  1. Attention
  2. Caution
  3. Notice
  4. Warning
 357) Which worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?
  1. GHS
  2. HCS
  3. HPR
  4. HazCom
 358) A medical assistant prints out a patient's demographic information so the patient can review it for errors. Once the patient has reviewed the information, what should the medical assistant do with it?
  1. Dispose of it by shredding
  2. Give it to the doctor
  3. Give it to the patient to take home
  4. Put it in the patient’s file
 359) In flow cytometry, what is the term for digitally isolating a specific sub-population of cells for further analysis?
  1. Binning
  2. Compensation
  3. Gating
  4. Partitioning
 360) Which instrument analyses cells by passing them one by one through a laser beam?
  1. Counting chamber
  2. Electrophoresis chamber
  3. Flow cytometer
  4. Spectrophotometer
 361) What temperature is the incubation phase of the indirect antiglobulin test?
  1. 22°C
  2. 37°C
  3. 56°C
  4. 100°C
 362) Which antigen system is NOT associated with hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?
  1. ABO
  2. Duffy
  3. Lewis
  4. RhD
 363) Which type of antibody causes false positives in immunoassay testing due to its ability to bind to different components used in these tests?
  1. Anti-nuclear
  2. Heterophile
  3. IgE
  4. Monoclonal
 364) If a polyspecific direct antiglobulin test (DAT) is positive, what test would be used next to investigate the possibility of cold agglutinin disease?
  1. Indirect antiglobulin test
  2. Monospecific DAT for C3d and IgG
  3. Reverse ABO typing
  4. Von Willebrand factor assay
 365) In flow cytometry, what does forward scatter indicate?
  1. Cell complexity
  2. Cell fluorescence
  3. Cell granularity
  4. Cell size
 366) Which disease do these results suggest?
Test Result
WBC 5,200 cells per µL
Lymphocytes 16%
CD4 7%
  1. Addison disease
  2. Graves' disease
  3. HIV
  4. Type 1 diabetes
 367) The results of an antibody titer are below.
1:2 1:4 1:8 1:16 1:32 1:64 1:128
+ + + + + − −
What is the antibody titer of these results?
  1. 1:2
  2. 1:32
  3. 1:64
  4. 1:128
 368) In standard two-tier testing for Lyme disease, what test is used for the second step?
  1. C-reactive protein (CRP) test
  2. ELISA
  3. Rapid antigen test
  4. Western blot
 369) Which transmission-based precaution is required for a patient infected with a multidrug-resistant organism?
  1. Airborne
  2. Contact
  3. Droplet
  4. Protective isolation
 370) What does the Ōritetanga article of the Treaty of Waitangi address?
  1. Equality
  2. Racism
  3. Representation
  4. Self-determination
 371) Which organisation accredits medical laboratories in New Zealand?
  1. Health and Disability Commissioner
  2. International Accreditation New Zealand (IANZ)
  3. Medical Sciences Council of New Zealand
  4. Ministry of Health
 372) Which organisation regulates the registration and practice of medical laboratory scientists in New Zealand?
  1. Health Quality & Safety Commission
  2. Medical Sciences Council of New Zealand (MSCNZ)
  3. Ministry of Health
  4. New Zealand Institute of Medical Laboratory Science (NZIMLS)
 373) Which act requires health practitioners and laboratories to report cases of notifiable diseases to a Medical Officer of Health?
  1. Health Act 1956
  2. Health and Disability Services (Safety) Act 2001
  3. Health and Safety at Work Act 2015
  4. Public Health and Disability Act 2000
 374) Under the MSCNZ CPD programme, what is the minimum number of hours of CPD health practitioners must achieve each two-year period?
  1. 120 hours
  2. 150 hours
  3. 40 hours
  4. 80 hours
 375) Which New Zealand law governs patient privacy and the protection of personal health information?
  1. Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act 2003
  2. Health and Safety at Work Act 2015
  3. Medicines Act 1981
  4. Privacy Act 2020
 376) Which agency administers how dangerous goods can be safely transported by land?
  1. Environmental Protection Authority
  2. Ministry of Business, Innovation and Employment (MBIE)
  3. NZ Transport Agency
  4. New Zealand Police
 377) What does the “Protection” principle in the Treaty of Waitangi protect?
  1. Healthcare workers
  2. Minors
  3. Māori rights
  4. Protected personal information
 378) Which act gives the Medical Sciences Council of New Zealand the authority to regulate medical laboratory scientists?
  1. Accident Compensation Act 2001
  2. Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act 2003
  3. Health and Disability Commissioner Act 1994
  4. Medicines Act 1981
 379) What is the professional association and main continuing education provider for medical laboratory scientists and technicians in New Zealand?
  1. Health Quality & Safety Commission
  2. Medical Sciences Council of New Zealand (MSCNZ)
  3. New Zealand Institute of Medical Laboratory Science (NZIMLS)
  4. Te Whatu Ora – Health New Zealand
 380) Which Māori word is derived from a word meaning "right" or "correct" and refers to the Māori customary system of values, practices, and protocols?
  1. Kaitiakitanga
  2. Manaakitanga
  3. Tikanga
  4. Whanaungatanga
 381) A medical laboratory technician is returning to the workforce after a five-year break. Which law requires them to demonstrate that they can still perform their job?
  1. Health Practitioners Competence Assurance Act 2003
  2. Health and Disability Commissioner (Code of Consumer Rights)
  3. Health and Safety at Work Act 2015
  4. Privacy Act 2020
 382) Which organisation investigates complaints about healthcare providers in New Zealand?
  1. Health and Disability Commissioner
  2. International Accreditation New Zealand
  3. Medical Sciences Council of New Zealand
  4. Ministry of Health
 383) Which of these diseases is notifiable to a Medical Officer of Health?
  1. Hepatitis A
  2. Mononucleosis
  3. Toxoplasmosis
  4. Varicella
 384) In spectrophotometry, what range is the visible spectrum?
  1. 12–18 nanometres
  2. 120–180 nanometres
  3. 200–400 nanometres
  4. 400–700 nanometres
 385) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
 386) If the mean for an analyte is 10.1 mmol/L and the standard deviation is 1.7 mmol/L, calculate a control range that includes the values within two standard deviations of the mean.
  1. 2.3–4.7 mmol/L
  2. 6.7–13.5 mmol/L
  3. 8.4–11.8 mmol/L
  4. 9.8–10.5 mmol/L
 387) What is the probability of three consecutive control values exceeding ±2 standard deviations by chance alone?
  1. 1:400
  2. 1:1,600
  3. 1:8,000
  4. 1:16,000
 388) Which acceptable range do laboratories typically use for quality control results?
  1. One standard deviation from the mean
  2. Two standard deviations from the mean
  3. The middle 68% of the results
  4. The outer 5% of the results
 389) If a data set has a mean of 7.2 and a standard deviation of 1.2, what range of values falls within two standard deviations of the mean?
  1. 4.8–9.6
  2. 6.0–8.4
  3. 7.2–9.6
  4. 8.6–10.2
 390) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, what range should encompass 95% of the observed values?
  1. 1–9
  2. 2–8
  3. 3–7
  4. 4–6
 391) How many of the following quality control results are beyond 2 standard deviations from the mean?
QC results 120, 289, 365, 432, 678
Mean 377
Coefficient of variation 15%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
 392) Automated white blood cell counts are performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value is 8.0 cells/nL, and the standard deviation is 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?
  1. 15%
  2. 30%
  3. 45%
  4. 60%
 393) A thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) quality control chart has the following data for the normal control.
Statistic Value
Count 43
Mean 2.4 mIU/L
2 SD 1.2 mIU/L
Calculate the coefficient of variation for the control.
  1. 25%
  2. 35%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%
 394) The following values were obtained from a quality control test: 0, 0, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 7. Calculate the mean of these values.
  1. 3
  2. 3.25
  3. 3.5
  4. 3.75
 395) Which statistical test is used to compare the means of two groups?
  1. Linear regression
  2. Median
  3. One-way ANOVA
  4. Standard t-test
 396) Which of these statistics is a measure of central tendency?
  1. Coefficient of variation
  2. Mean
  3. Range
  4. Standard deviation
 397) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?
  1. Biological safety cabinet
  2. Flammable storage cabinet
  3. Freezer
  4. Refrigerator
 398) Where should stock ethanol solutions be stored?
  1. Flammable safety cabinet
  2. Freezer
  3. Fume hood
  4. Refrigerator
 399) An acetone spill occurs on the bench near a lit Bunsen burner. What should be the first action?
  1. Clean up the spill
  2. Move everyone to fresh air
  3. Turn off the flame
  4. Wash eyes with water
 400) Why must you never use a household vacuum cleaner to clean a mercury spill?
  1. Mercury causes vacuums to ignite
  2. Mercury corrodes vacuums
  3. Mercury reacts with plastic to create chlorine gas
  4. Vacuums spread mercury into the air
 401) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when used to clean urine spills?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
 402) Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs:
  1. in a fume hood
  2. in a poorly ventilated area
  3. near sources of ignition
  4. near the flammable storage cabinet
 403) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?
  1. 10% ethyl alcohol
  2. 40% ethyl alcohol
  3. 70% ethyl alcohol
  4. 90% ethyl alcohol
 404) A disinfectant may become ineffective if:
  1. it is kept in a dark place
  2. it is left at room temperature
  3. it is not diluted properly
  4. the container is kept tightly sealed during storage
 405) Which of these items is NOT found in biohazard spill kits?
  1. Autoclavable waste bags
  2. Disinfectant
  3. Petri dishes
  4. Safety goggles
 406) What is the first step when a biological spill occurs outside a biosafety cabinet?
  1. Alert people nearby
  2. Cover the spill with paper towels
  3. Fill in an incident report form
  4. Put on PPE
 407) Which chemical is best for neutralising weak acid spills?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Boric acid
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hydroxide
 408) After cleaning a biological spill, where should you place the waste cleaning materials?
  1. In a biohazard bag
  2. In a biosafety cabinet
  3. In a sharps container
  4. In the regular garbage
 409) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?
  1. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
  2. Put on PPE
  3. Record the incident in the incident book
  4. Wash your hands
 410) A laboratory has an autoclave rule stating "Do not fill containers more than half full with liquids". If a lab technician has to prepare 220 ml of media for autoclaving, which of these volume containers would comply with the rule?
  1. 100 mL
  2. 300 mL
  3. 400 mL
  4. 500 mL
 411) Why must all air be removed from an autoclave before switching it on?
  1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
  2. Air increases the risk of explosion
  3. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
  4. Steam can break the glassware
 412) What is the greatest risk when opening an autoclave immediately after a cycle finishes?
  1. Burns from hot steam
  2. Electrical shock
  3. Exposure to carbon monoxide
  4. Radiation exposure
 413) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Get a new wrapper
  2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
  3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
  4. Throw the instrument away
 414) Which of these is a Standard Precaution?
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Keeping chemical containers closed
  4. Radiation shielding
 415) A test gives the following control values.
Day Result (U/L)
1 1.2
2 1.5
3 1.8
4 2.1
What do these values demonstrate?
  1. A repeating pattern
  2. A trend
  3. An outlier
  4. Random variation
 416) If two variables have a positive relationship, it means:
  1. they have a strong correlation
  2. when one variable decreases, the other increases
  3. when one variable increases, the other decreases
  4. when one variable increases, the other increases
 417) A one molal solution contains one mole of solute per ________ of solvent.
  1. gram
  2. kilogram
  3. litre
  4. mole
 418) An automated cell counter gives a result of 6,500 cells/mm³. However, the doctor's clinic requires the result in cells/L. What result should you report to the doctor?
  1. 6.5 x 10⁶ cells/L
  2. 6.5 x 10⁷ cells/L
  3. 6.5 x 10⁸ cells/L
  4. 6.5 x 10⁹ cells/L
 419) What is a bimodal dataset?
  1. A dataset with only two data points
  2. A dataset with two distinct peaks
  3. A dataset with two means
  4. A dataset with two medians
 420) What is the following graph shape?
  1. Normal distribution
  2. Polynomial function
  3. Quadratic chart
  4. Reciprocal graph
 421) What is a non-Gaussian distribution?
  1. A distribution that is not a symmetric, bell-shaped curve
  2. A distribution that only contains categorical data
  3. A distribution where the mean, median, and mode are all equal
  4. A distribution with a standard deviation less than zero
 422) 1 L of a 0.1 M potassium hydroxide solution neutralises 50 mL of a sulphuric acid solution. What is the molarity of the sulphuric acid solution?
  1. 0.005 M
  2. 0.045 M
  3. 0.5 M
  4. 1 M
 423) A patient has the following test results.
Test Result
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Glucose 20 mmol/L
BUN 2 mmol/L
Using the Dorwart and Chalmers formula, calculate the patient's serum osmolality.
  1. 107.4 mmol/L
  2. 193.9 mmol/L
  3. 282.4 mmol/L
  4. 382.9 mmol/L
 424) What is the osmolarity of a 1 mol/L NaCl solution?
  1. 1 Osm/L
  2. 2 Osm/L
  3. 3 Osm/L
  4. 4 Osm/L
 425) A patient's serum iron test results are as follows.
Test Result
Serum iron concentration 20 µmol/L
Total iron-binding capacity 80 µmol/L
Calculate the percentage transferrin saturation.
  1. 4%
  2. 5%
  3. 10%
  4. 25%
 426) A patient has the following test results.
Test Result
Total protein level 8.3 g/dL
Albumin level 3.4 g/dL
What is the patient's calculated globulin?
  1. 0.4 g/dL
  2. 2.4 g/dL
  3. 4.9 g/dL
  4. 11.7 g/dL
 427) What type of fire extinguisher can be used on methane gas fires?
  1. ABC powder
  2. AFFF foam
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Water
 428) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can extinguish electrical fires
  2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
  3. carries a risk of electric shock
  4. requires charging before use
 429) Which of these chemicals is flammable?
  1. Acetone
  2. Carbon tetrachloride
  3. Chloroform
  4. Saline
 430) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol. This fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
  2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
  3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
  4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires
 431) When handling strong acids in a laboratory:
  1. add water to acid when diluting
  2. wear eye protection
  3. wear latex gloves
  4. wear open-toed shoes
 432) Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and:
  1. can explode
  2. catches fire when exposed to air
  3. causes viral infections
  4. is highly toxic
 433) Where should you handle chemicals that produce harmful vapours?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Biological safety cabinet
  3. Fume hood
  4. Sealed room
 434) Which of these is a safety measure when working with xylene?
  1. Store it in a refrigerator
  2. Use a HEPA-filtered mask
  3. Use it in a biological safety cabinet
  4. Use it under a fume hood
 435) In the context of occupational health and safety, what does STEL stand for?
  1. Short-term exposure limit
  2. Standard task exposure limit
  3. Standard task equipment list
  4. Short-term emergency lighting
 436) What dangerous chemical is produced when bleach is mixed with acid?
  1. arsenic trioxide
  2. chlorine gas
  3. phosgene
  4. sodium cyanide
 437) What is the main hazard of ethanol?
  1. Carcinogenicity
  2. Corrosiveness
  3. Flammability
  4. Toxicity
 438) Why is mercury hazardous?
  1. It forms an explosive precipitate on standing
  2. It forms toxic vapours
  3. It is flammable
  4. It reacts violently with water
 439) A lab assistant accidentally drinks a beaker of Zenker's fluid. He says he feels a burning sensation in his mouth and throat. What is the first action you should take?
  1. Call emergency services
  2. Give the lab assistant water to drink
  3. Place the lab assistant in the recovery position
  4. Take the lab assistant outside for fresh air
 440) Which of these is a danger of liquid nitrogen?
  1. It can catch fire
  2. It can cause cancer
  3. It can deplete oxygen in the air
  4. It can explode
 441) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?
  1. OSM
  2. SDS
  3. TOSM
  4. TSM
 442) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?
  1. Before adjusting the focus knobs on a microscope
  2. Before loading the autoclave
  3. Before using a restroom
  4. For cleaning a chemical spill
 443) Which of these statements about nitrile gloves is true?
  1. Nitrile gloves are a good substitute for latex gloves
  2. Nitrile gloves are cheaper than latex gloves
  3. Nitrile gloves are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves
  4. Nitrile gloves are unsuitable for routine laboratory work
 444) Which of these is PPE?
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. First aid kit
  3. Hand-washing station
  4. Lab coat
 445) Which of these gloves would offer the most protection in a laboratory?
  1. 1 mil nitrile gloves
  2. 3 mil latex gloves
  3. 5 mil latex gloves
  4. 5 mil nitrile gloves
 446) What are the three basic protective measures against radiation?
  1. Time, distance, and clothing
  2. Time, distance, and exposure
  3. Time, distance, and shielding
  4. Time, distance, and speed
 447) A colleague accidentally spills liquid nitrogen on their hands, resulting in minor frostbite to the fingers. What action should you take?
  1. Immerse his hands in very hot water
  2. Rub his hands vigorously using your own hands
  3. Spray his hands with tepid water
  4. Tell him to shake his hands vigorously
 448) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?
  1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  2. Flush the burn with water
  3. Go to the emergency department
  4. Neutralise the acid with sodium bicarbonate
 449) What is the minimum amount of time the eyes should be flushed with water in the event of a chemical splash?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 5 minutes
  3. 10 minutes
  4. 15 minutes
 450) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, what is the next thing he should do?
  1. Apply a burn ointment to his skin
  2. Pour baking soda onto his skin
  3. Seek emergency medical assistance
  4. Use the emergency safety shower
 451) What should be your first step in the event of a needlestick injury?
  1. Fill out an accident report form
  2. Go to a doctor or hospital emergency department
  3. Report the incident to your supervisor
  4. Wash the wound with soap and water
 452) What should be your first action if a patient's body fluid splashes into your eyes?
  1. Call 111
  2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
  3. Flush your eyes with water
  4. Make an entry in the accident logbook
 453) On what assumption are universal precautions based?
  1. All chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
  4. Not all equipment is sterile
 454) Which type of PPE is required when dealing with a patient on airborne precautions?
  1. Face shield
  2. Goggles
  3. N95 respirator
  4. Surgical mask
 455) Which biosafety level does a nonpathogenic strain of E. coli require?
  1. BSL-1
  2. BSL-2
  3. BSL-3
  4. BSL-4
 456) Which type of hazard do universal precautions apply to?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
 457) Which link in the chain of infection does wearing gloves primarily interrupt?
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Mode of transmission
  3. Portal of exit
  4. Reservoir
 458) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
 459) Which two pictograms are needed on bottles of organic peroxides?
  1. Flame and exploding bomb
  2. Flame and flame over a circle
  3. Health hazard and exclamation mark
  4. Health hazard and gas cylinder
 460) Which of these is NOT found on a safety data sheet?
  1. Fire potential
  2. Health hazards
  3. Safe handling measures
  4. Noise level
 461) What is the correct way to lift a heavy object?
  1. Bend at the knees, not at the waist
  2. Hold the object away from your body
  3. Let your back do the lifting
  4. Use your arm muscles to do the lifting
 462) Centrifugation separates components based on:
  1. density
  2. electrical charge
  3. light absorption
  4. molecular structure
 463) A CSF specimen is centrifuged in a microhematocrit tube to give a supernatant. The supernatant is xanthochromic. What does this most likely indicate?
  1. The patient had a recent brain bleed
  2. The specimen has a low protein level
  3. The spinal tap was traumatic
  4. There are bacteria in the spinal fluid
 464) Which centrifuge is balanced?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
 465) What is deionised water?
  1. Water containing alkaline minerals
  2. Water containing carbon dioxide
  3. Water containing extra minerals
  4. Water with ions removed
 466) Which microscope is best for examining an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?
  1. Brightfield
  2. Electron
  3. Fluorescence
  4. Phase contrast
 467) Which item of glassware is designed to deliver specific volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Volumetric flask
  4. Volumetric pipette
 468) A pipette gives a reading of 4.9 mL, but the true value of the volume of liquid inside the pipette is 5.0 mL. What is the percent error?
  1. 2%
  2. 4%
  3. 6%
  4. 8%
 469) Which pipette is the most accurate?
  1. Bulb
  2. Graduated
  3. Pasteur
  4. Volumetric
 470) Why does volumetric glassware have the letters TC inscribed on it?
  1. It can hold toxic chemicals
  2. It contains a fixed volume
  3. It delivers a fixed volume
  4. It is Type C glassware
 471) Which type of pipette is used to measure and dispense various volumes using calibration marks (graduations) along the entire length of the tube?
  1. Disposable
  2. Pasteur
  3. Serological
  4. Volumetric
 472) Which cabinet has the highest personal, environmental, and specimen protection?
  1. Class A biological safety cabinet
  2. Class I biological safety cabinet
  3. Class II biological safety cabinet
  4. Class III biological safety cabinet
 473) What type of filter in biological safety cabinets removes airborne particles such as bacteria and viruses?
  1. Electrostatic
  2. Fibreglass
  3. HEPA
  4. UV light
 474) On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the _____________ position.
  1. highest possible
  2. lowest possible
  3. middle
  4. most comfortable
 475) What is the purpose of a chemical hygiene plan?
  1. To ensure all chemicals are kept clean and uncontaminated
  2. To inform workers of the chemicals used for cleaning
  3. To maintain an inventory of the chemicals used in the laboratory
  4. To protect employees from dangerous chemicals
 476) Which equipment is used to measure large amounts of liquid to make reagents?
  1. Centrifuge
  2. Pipette
  3. Test tube
  4. Volumetric flask
 477) The thermometer of a water bath reads 37.4°C. What is the resolution of the thermometer?
  1. 0.1°C
  2. 0.4°C
  3. 1°C
  4. 4°C
 478) What is the term for a document that identifies hazards and the ways to minimise their impact?
  1. Accident and incident recording form
  2. First aid assessment form
  3. Inspection report
  4. Risk assessment
 479) UV lamps in biological safety cabinets should be turned on only when:
  1. a technician is working in the cabinet
  2. ethanol is still wet on surfaces
  3. no one can be exposed to the UV light
  4. the sash is fully open
 480) A specimen in a biohazard bag arrives leaking. What should you do?
  1. Freeze the sample to seal the leak
  2. Process the specimen as normal
  3. Put on PPE and follow the spill/leak protocol
  4. Wipe it clean and process it
 481) What is the correct way to transport a gas cylinder in the laboratory?
  1. By carrying it by hand with at least two people
  2. By rolling it along the floor
  3. On a flat-bed trolley
  4. Strapped to a cart
 482) What is the main purpose of reporting near-miss incidents?
  1. To compare your department's safety record to that of other departments
  2. To decide who to blame
  3. To prevent the situation from recurring
  4. To reduce employee evaluations
 483) What is the name of the process of assessing the severity and likelihood of workplace hazards?
  1. Health needs evaluation
  2. Myers-Briggs type indicator
  3. Risk assessment
  4. Workplace danger evaluation
 484) Which of these actions helps prevent the release of aerosols in the laboratory?
  1. Filling centrifuge tubes to the brim
  2. Forcibly expelling hazardous materials from pipettes
  3. Opening aerosol containment devices immediately after removing them from the centrifuge
  4. Routinely inspecting the centrifuge to ensure there is no leakage
 485) What should be done in the event of a gas leak?
  1. Alert others and evacuate the area
  2. Light a match to find the source of the leak
  3. Turn on all lights
  4. Use elevators to exit the building
 486) You receive a small cut from clean glassware. After the cut has stopped bleeding, what should you do?
  1. Apply a tourniquet
  2. Bandage it tightly
  3. Clean the wound with soap and water
  4. Soak the cut in disinfectant
 487) What document should be completed after any workplace injury?
  1. Incident report
  2. Material Safety Data Sheet
  3. Quality assurance audit
  4. Standard Operating Procedure
 488) Which of these would best promote a positive safety culture in a lab environment?
  1. Allowing staff to ignore small risks
  2. Encouraging open communication about hazards
  3. Issuing penalties for every safety mistake
  4. Reducing training time to save costs
 489) Who is responsible for being aware of laboratory hazards?
  1. The lab assistant
  2. The lab manager
  3. The lab director
  4. Anyone who works in the laboratory
 490) What should you do if a piece of laboratory equipment has a frayed electrical cord?
  1. Continue using it carefully
  2. Replace the cord
  3. Report it to a supervisor
  4. Tape over the damaged area
 491) Which water purification method involves boiling water into steam, and then letting the steam cool?
  1. Deionisation
  2. Distillation
  3. Filtration
  4. Reverse osmosis
 492) What is the function of a buffer?
  1. To accentuate changes in pH
  2. To make a solution more acidic
  3. To make a solution more basic
  4. To minimise changes in pH
 493) Why must pipette tips be changed after each sample?
  1. To prevent bubbles from forming in the pipette
  2. To prevent cross-contamination between samples
  3. To prevent wear and tear on the pipette
  4. To reduce the time spent pipetting
 494) What substance is used to calibrate refractometers?
  1. Buffer solution
  2. Distilled water
  3. Healthy urine
  4. Hydrochloric acid
 495) Which of these chemical grades has the highest purity?
  1. Commercial
  2. Laboratory
  3. Reagent
  4. Technical
 496) Which of these actions should a technologist take before working with unfamiliar equipment?
  1. Ask another technologist to do it
  2. Ask for proficiency testing
  3. Look through the personnel files
  4. Request training
 497) Which of these actions would increase a laboratory's efficiency?
  1. Finding ways to increase the time it takes to perform key tasks
  2. Storing frequently used equipment in easy-to-reach places
  3. Using an inconsistent labelling system
  4. Using paper files instead of digital files
 498) What is a delta check?
  1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to those from an outside facility
  2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
  3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
  4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers
 499) A test tube solution has a concentration of 0.26 M, a path length of 2 cm, and an absorbance of 0.072 at 530 nm. To two significant digits, calculate the molar absorptivity.
  1. 0.04
  2. 0.14
  3. 1.61
  4. 1.81
 500) How are acid buffers made?
  1. By mixing a strong acid with a strong base
  2. By mixing a strong acid with a weak base
  3. By mixing a weak acid with its salt
  4. By mixing a weak base with its salt

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Option 2: Physical book

Get the questions as a book

The questions and answers are available as a book at Amazon.com