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CHIM NCE Practice Exam 1

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About the CHIM national certification exam

The CHIM NCE (Certified in Health Information Management National Certification Examination) is an exam administered by the Canadian College of Health Information Management (CCHIM).

The exam assesses entry-level knowledge of health information management, including information governance, medical terminology, analytics, and privacy.

Passing the exam is a requirement to become a Certified Health Information Management (CHIM) professional in Canada.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CHIM national certification exam.

This page contains 200 practice questions divided into the six sections of the exam: 1. Information governance, 2. Data quality, 3. Clinical knowledge, 4. Analytics, 5. Privacy, and 6. Technology.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, and Practice Test 3.

Sections

  1. Information governance
  2. Data quality
  3. Clinical knowledge
  4. Analytics
  5. Privacy
  6. Technology

Section 1: Information governance

1.1) The legal obligation to provide a reasonable level of care and to avoid careless actions is called:
  1. autonomy
  2. duty of care
  3. nonmaleficence
  4. the Good Samaritan law
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1.2) Which principle of the Canada Health Act is not patient-focused but the means of achieving the other four principles?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Comprehensiveness
  3. Portability
  4. Public administration
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1.3) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted
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1.4) What are the four pillars of medical ethics?
  1. Beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, autonomy
  2. Dignity, privacy, compassion, accountability
  3. Professionalism, consequentialism, trust, responsibility
  4. Professionalism, sensitivity, integrity, confidentiality
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1.5) A patient refuses to have his blood drawn. The phlebotomist threatens the patient with the needle, saying she will draw the patient's blood whether he gives consent or or not. For threatening the patient, the phlebotomist could be charged with:
  1. assault
  2. battery
  3. fraud
  4. invasion of privacy
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1.6) What are the parts of the problem-oriented record?
  1. Insurance details, appointment logs, test results, and discharge summaries
  2. Patient demographics, diagnosis history, treatment schedule, and medication list
  3. Problems, solutions, solution administration, and feedback
  4. The database, a problem list, initial plans, and progress notes
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1.7) A hospital's strategy for managing health information should be based on the:
  1. information technology strategic plan
  2. needs of the users
  3. opinions of the Board of Directors
  4. organizational strategic plan
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1.8) The acronym SOMR stands for __________-oriented medical record.
  1. source
  2. subject
  3. summary
  4. system
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1.9) What distinguishes an enterprise master patient index (EMPI) from a master patient index (MPI)?
  1. An EMPI covers both inpatient services whereas an MPI covers outpatient services
  2. An EMPI links records across different systems whereas an MPI handles records from a single system
  3. An EMPI processes real-time data whereas an MPI stores historical patient records
  4. EMPIs use blockchain technology for data security whereas an MPI uses a centralised database or cloud storage
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1.10) What is the term for health records that are a combination of paper and computer-generated records?
  1. Blended
  2. Duel
  3. Hybrid
  4. Mixed
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1.11) Where in a SOAP note does the doctor propose a treatment plan?
  1. Subjective
  2. Objective
  3. Assessment
  4. Plan
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1.12) Which section of a SOAP note contains information obtained from the patient, such as signs and symptoms?
  1. Assessment
  2. Objective
  3. Plan
  4. Subjective
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1.13) Which format of medical records documentation breaks the SOAP format into smaller components?
  1. CHEDDAR
  2. Conventional
  3. HPI
  4. Source-Oriented
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1.14) Documentation about a patient's diet, sleep patterns, and exercise patterns may be found in the:
  1. admission form
  2. history
  3. operative note
  4. physical exam
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1.15) While a patient is receiving care, most paper records are filed in reverse chronological order. This is because:
  1. coders need the data that way
  2. it is easier to access the most recent data
  3. it is easier to file loose reports
  4. legislation requires it
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1.16) When you find a document in the wrong record, you should:
  1. advise the patient's doctor
  2. destroy the document and complete an incident report
  3. leave the document in the record
  4. refile the document in the correct record
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1.17) In which numbering system does the patient have a single medical record number which is used for all subsequent visits?
  1. Episodic
  2. Serial
  3. Serial unit
  4. Unit
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1.18) With the terminal digit filing system:
  1. misfiles are more common
  2. records are more evenly distributed
  3. records have to be moved around frequently to make space for incoming files
  4. the middle digits are known as the tertiary digits
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1.19) An overlay is where:
  1. a patient is assigned two medical record numbers
  2. a patient is given the same medication twice
  3. a patient receives the same test twice
  4. two different patient records are wrongly identified as one individual
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1.20) What is the name of a filing system where files are kept in different places?
  1. Centralized
  2. Decentralized
  3. Off-site storage
  4. Serial-unit
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1.21) A failure to take proper care over a task is called:
  1. culpability
  2. fraud
  3. negligence
  4. restitution
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1.22) The accessibility principle of the Canada Health Act states:
  1. Canadians must have reasonable access to healthcare facilities
  2. a Canadian who moves to a different province is still entitled to coverage
  3. all printed health materials must be made accessible in Braille
  4. anyone in Canada can register for free healthcare, regardless of immigration status
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1.23) Which act ensures all eligible Canadian residents have reasonable access to insured health services on a prepaid basis, without direct charges at the point of service?
  1. Canada Emergency Response Benefit Act
  2. Canada Health Act
  3. Financial Administration Act
  4. Patent Act
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1.24) Which principle of the Canada Health Act requires provinces to provide all services deemed medically necessary?
  1. Comprehensiveness
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
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1.25) Under the Canada Health Act, provincial governments are responsible for all of the following except:
  1. funding allocation to hospitals
  2. the regulation of health professions
  3. the regulation of hospitals
  4. worker compensation
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1.26) The accreditation program of Accreditation Canada is called:
  1. AIM
  2. Qmentum
  3. Required Organizational Practices
  4. the Gold Seal of Approval
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1.27) Under the Canadian Constitution, which level of government is responsible for the direct health care services of First Nations living on reserves, Inuit and Innu populations, veterans, and inmates of federal prisons?
  1. District
  2. Municipal
  3. Provincial and territorial
  4. Federal
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1.28) Which level of government provides the legal framework that regulates most health care professions?
  1. District
  2. Federal
  3. Municipal
  4. Provincial and territorial
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1.29) A payment from the federal government to the provincial government to cover all services is known as:
  1. a capitation payment
  2. a co-payment
  3. block funding
  4. extra-billing
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1.30) Who does the Non-Insured Health Benefits (NIHB) program cover?
  1. First Nations and Inuit
  2. People with disabilities
  3. People with low incomes
  4. Veterans
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1.31) _____________ is a voluntary process of institutional or organizational review in which an accrediting body evaluates the quality of the performance against pre-established criteria.
  1. Accreditation
  2. Authorization
  3. Certification
  4. Recognition
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1.32) Which organization would be the most likely to track and report a national viral epidemic?
  1. Canadian Institute for Health Information
  2. Infoway
  3. Public Health Agency of Canada
  4. Statistics Canada
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1.33) A facility that provides supportive care to individuals who are in the final stages of a terminal illness is a:
  1. clinic
  2. hospice
  3. primary care faciity
  4. specialist
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Section 2: Data quality

2.1) What is the main reason for using consistent information formats across systems?
  1. To ensure compatibility between systems
  2. To make data entry faster
  3. To reduce the need for data storage
  4. To simplify the design of data collection forms
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2.2) What is the main reason for collecting race and ethnicity data in healthcare?
  1. To determine the eligibility for specific insurance plans
  2. To identify race disparities in healthcare
  3. To reduce the likelihood of medical malpractice claims
  4. To respect the cultural norms of each patient
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2.3) Which of these helps maintain data integrity?
  1. Calculating statistics manually
  2. Increasing the frequency of data collection
  3. Using WORM (write once, read many) storage
  4. Using multiple sources of data
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2.4) Which level of the DIKW pyramid answers basic questions like "who", "what", "where", and "when"?
  1. Data
  2. Information
  3. Knowledge
  4. Wisdom
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2.5) Which of these best defines the term "data stewardship"?
  1. The process of storing data in multiple locations
  2. The regulation of the collection and access of data
  3. The standardization of data collection formats
  4. The task of ensuring data quality and security
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2.6) Which of these is a method of standardising data?
  1. Aggregation
  2. Binning
  3. WORM storage
  4. Z-scores
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2.7) The national medication terminology in Canada specifically designed for digital health systems is the:
  1. CCDD
  2. DICOM
  3. ICNP
  4. pCLOCD
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2.8) What is the international standard for reporting medical laboratory results?
  1. HL7
  2. LOINC
  3. SNOMED CT
  4. pCLOCD
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2.9) What does the acronym pCLOCD stand for?
  1. Pan-Canadian LOINC Observation Code Database
  2. Primary Care LOINC Order Code Database
  3. Primary Clinical Laboratory Operations Coding Directory
  4. Public Canadian Laboratory Observation Code Directory
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2.10) What is the international standard for the communication and management of medical images?
  1. DICOM
  2. IHE
  3. LOINC
  4. SNOMED CT
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2.11) Which organization promotes the coordinated use of established standards such as DICOM and HL7 to improve the interoperability of healthcare IT systems?
  1. CPT
  2. FHIR
  3. IHE
  4. ISO
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2.12) Which of these is a function of Canada Health Infoway's InfoCentral?
  1. Granting funding for the adoption of digital health solutions
  2. Providing a virtual community for clinicians
  3. Providing an archive of historical medical records
  4. Providing live chat support for technical issues
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2.13) Which organization releases an annual report on the health status of Canadians called "Health of Canadians"?
  1. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  2. Health Canada
  3. Public Health Agency of Canada
  4. Statistics Canada
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2.14) Which organization maintains SNOMED CT?
  1. Canada Health Infoway
  2. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  3. International Health Terminology Standards Development Organization (IHTSDO)
  4. World Health Organization (WHO)
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2.15) What is the difference between the ICD-10-CA and the CCI?
  1. The ICD-10-CA codes diseases while the CCI codes interventions
  2. The ICD-10-CA is Canadian while the CCI is American
  3. The ICD-10-CA is a newer coding system to replace the CCI
  4. The ICD-10-CA is used for billing while the CCI is used for insurance claims
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2.16) Which dimension of CIHI's Information Quality Framework is the degree to which information is easily obtainable and clearly presented?
  1. Accessibility and clarity
  2. Accuracy and reliability
  3. Relevance
  4. Timeliness and punctuality
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2.17) _____________ is the illegal practice of assigning codes for more expensive procedures than were actually performed.
  1. Bundling
  2. Kickbacking
  3. Unbundling
  4. Upcoding
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2.18) Which organization conducts the Canadian Community Health Survey (CCHS)?
  1. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  2. Health Canada
  3. Public Health Agency of Canada
  4. Statistics Canada
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2.19) Which system is a national grouping methodology for ambulatory care patient data submitted to either the Discharge Abstract Database (DAD) or the National Ambulatory Care Reporting System (NACRS)?
  1. CACS
  2. CCI
  3. ICD
  4. SNOMED
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2.20) Which CIHI database captures data about inpatient visits?
  1. CCRS
  2. CJRR
  3. DAD
  4. NACRS
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Section 3: Clinical knowledge

3.1) Which prefix means skin?
  1. Derm-
  2. Ichthyo-
  3. Pachyo-
  4. Ped-
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3.2) What does the prefix epi- mean?
  1. Above
  2. Below
  3. Between
  4. Next to
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3.3) In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for?
  1. Center for blood care
  2. Center for blood control
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Complete blood culture
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3.4) What does USP stand for in medicine?
  1. Underdeveloped specimen
  2. United States pharmacopeia
  3. Unwanted special properties
  4. User security policy
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3.5) What blood test does PPT stand for?
  1. Partial thrombin time
  2. Partial thromboplastin time
  3. Proportional thrombin time
  4. Proportional thromboplastin time
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3.6) FBS stands for _________ blood sugar.
  1. fasting
  2. fatal
  3. final
  4. first
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3.7) What is the term for an injury where ligaments stretch too far or tear?
  1. Compression
  2. Sprain
  3. Strain
  4. Subluxation
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3.8) What is the medical term for fever?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Pyrexia
  4. Tachypnea
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3.9) What is the medical term for a heart attack?
  1. Angina
  2. Angina pectoris
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Myocardial infarction
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3.10) Urticaria is another name for:
  1. hives
  2. malignancy of the basal cells
  3. scales
  4. severe itching
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3.11) What is edema?
  1. A bruise on the head
  2. A collection of blood outside blood vessels
  3. Swelling caused by fluid retention
  4. The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis
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3.12) A patient who is 'febrile' has:
  1. a fever
  2. a weak heart rhythm
  3. low blood sugar
  4. muscle wasting
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3.13) What is otitis?
  1. An abnormal discharge from the nose
  2. An eye infection
  3. Ear inflammation
  4. Inflammation of the sinuses
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3.14) What is an embolism?
  1. A blockage in a blood vessel
  2. A bruise
  3. An inflamed area of the esophagus
  4. Swelling in a vein
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3.15) What is nocturia?
  1. Blood in the urine
  2. Difficulty urinating
  3. Excessive urination at night
  4. Pain during a period
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3.16) What is the medical term for itching?
  1. Alopecia
  2. Petechiae
  3. Pruritus
  4. Purpura
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3.17) What is the medical term for excessive fluid accumulation in body tissues?
  1. Edema
  2. Hemoconcentration
  3. Icterus
  4. Syncope
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3.18) What is the medical term for rapid breathing?
  1. Eupepsia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Peritonitis
  4. Tachypnea
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3.19) What is the medical term for shortness of breath?
  1. Anosmia
  2. Ascites
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Phlebitis
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3.20) The function of the secretions of a serous membrane, like the pleura, is to:
  1. carry nervous impulses
  2. prevent infection
  3. protect the central nervous system
  4. reduce friction between neighbouring organs
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3.21) Which layer of a tooth lies just below the enamel?
  1. Cementum
  2. Dentin
  3. Enamel
  4. Pulp
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3.22) Adipose tissue is commonly found:
  1. in the cartilage of joints
  2. lining the chambers of the heart
  3. surrounding the brain
  4. under the skin
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3.23) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
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3.24) Which type of jaundice is caused by the excessive breakdown of red blood cells?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
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3.25) Which of the following is a sign of a detached retina?
  1. A dark shadow moving across your vision
  2. Decrease in the number of eye floaters
  3. Eye pain
  4. Increased peripheral vision
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3.26) In which disease is the body unable to use glucose for energy?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Stroke
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3.27) Low levels of which neurotransmitter causes Parkinson's disease?
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Dopamine
  3. Glutamate
  4. Serotonin
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3.28) What are the main signs of nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Hemoglobinuria, hypernatremia, and thrombocytopenia
  2. Ketonuria, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia
  3. Proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and hypoalbuminemia
  4. Pyuria, hyperglycemia, and leukopenia
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3.29) Which cells produce histamine in a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction?
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Macrophages
  3. Mast cells
  4. Neutrophils
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3.30) What is the final part of the digestive system?
  1. Anus
  2. Duodenum
  3. Ileum
  4. Rectum
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3.31) What is the main site for the absorption of digested food?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Large intestine
  3. Small intestine
  4. Stomach
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3.32) The impulse in a neuron moves from the ____________ to the ____________.
  1. Schwann cell, myelin
  2. axon, dendrite
  3. cell body, myelin
  4. dendrite, axon
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3.33) What is the heart's primary pacemaker?
  1. Bundle branches
  2. Bundle of His
  3. Purkinje fibers
  4. SA node
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3.34) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Respiratory
  4. Skeletal
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3.35) Which organ system detects changes to the body and directs a response?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Endocrine
  3. Nervous
  4. Respiratory
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3.36) Which organ system does the kidney belong to?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Urinary
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3.37) How is pernicious anemia treated?
  1. Blood transfusion
  2. Bone marrow transplantation
  3. Injections of vitamin B12
  4. Iron tablets
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3.38) Jaundice is the medical term for:
  1. inflammation
  2. liver disease
  3. skin disease
  4. yellow skin
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3.39) Which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
  1. Confusion
  2. Deep, rapid breaths
  3. Frequent urination
  4. Thirst
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3.40) Which hematology test determines the percentage of each type of leukocyte in a blood sample?
  1. CBC
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Hemoglobin determination
  4. WBC differential
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3.41) What is the normal hematocrit range for women?
  1. 16–28%
  2. 26–38%
  3. 36–48%
  4. 46–58%
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3.42) What is the normal range for the prothrombin time (PT) test?
  1. 11–14 seconds
  2. 15–18 seconds
  3. 20–23 seconds
  4. 25–28 seconds
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3.43) A definitive diagnosis of meningitis requires which test?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
  3. Stool C&S
  4. Urinalysis
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3.44) What is the Burch procedure performed for?
  1. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
  2. Fixation of humerus
  3. Urinary incontinence
  4. Uterine malignancy
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3.45) Penicillin, amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin are examples of which type of drug?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Anticoagulants
  3. Antihistamines
  4. Antivirals
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3.46) Antiemetic medications help to treat which health problem?
  1. Cancer
  2. Constipation
  3. Migraine
  4. Nausea
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3.47) Which type of drug increases urine output?
  1. Barbiturate
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Diuretic
  4. Immunosuppressant
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3.48) By what route are suppositories administered?
  1. Inhalation
  2. Parenteral
  3. Rectal
  4. Topical
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3.49) Which drugs relieve allergy symptoms?
  1. Anticoagulants
  2. Anticonvulsants
  3. Antidiabetics
  4. Antihistamines
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3.50) Where is the quadriceps muscle?
  1. Buttocks
  2. Calf
  3. Shoulder
  4. Thigh
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3.51) Which of these tests indicates the health of the kidneys?
  1. ALT
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Creatinine clearance
  4. TSH
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3.52) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T4 test
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3.53) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
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3.54) What does the PKU test detect?
  1. A genetic defect in metabolism
  2. A sex-linked anemia
  3. A viral disease
  4. Severe kidney disease
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3.55) Glomerular filtration rate measures the health of which organ?
  1. Bladder
  2. Gallbladder
  3. Kidneys
  4. Liver
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Section 4: Analytics

4.1) A type 2 statistical error occurs when:
  1. an instrument gives the wrong reading
  2. an error value remains constant throughout the study
  3. the results do not show a difference but a difference exists
  4. the results show a difference but no difference exists
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4.2) If a relationship between two variables is statistically significant, it means the variables are:
  1. identical
  2. independent
  3. proportional
  4. related
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4.3) What is the term for the following graph shape?
  1. Normal distribution
  2. Polynomial function
  3. Quadratic chart
  4. Reciprocal graph
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4.4) The best way to demonstrate trends over time is with a:
  1. frequency polygon
  2. histogram
  3. line graph
  4. pie chart
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4.5) You need to visualize the percentage distribution of different types of surgeries performed in a hospital during the last year. The best choice is to use a:
  1. histogram
  2. line graph
  3. pie chart
  4. scatter plot
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4.6) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The number the data tends to cluster around
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4.7) In a normal distribution, what percentage of cases are above the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
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4.8) What is the final step in calculating the standard deviation?
  1. Calculate the mean
  2. Calculate the mean of the squared differences
  3. Find the square root of the variance
  4. For each number, subtract the mean and square the result
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4.9) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
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4.10) The standard deviation of a data set is the _____________ of the variance.
  1. dispersion
  2. range
  3. square
  4. square root
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4.11) What is the standard deviation of 2, 4, 5, and 9 to two decimal places?
  1. 1.50
  2. 2.12
  3. 2.55
  4. 3.28
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4.12) The rounding rule for the mean states that:
  1. the answer should be rounded to a whole number
  2. the answer should be rounded to one decimal place greater than the raw data
  3. the answer should be rounded to two decimal places greater than the raw data
  4. the answer should have the same number of decimal places as the raw data
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4.13) What is 21/25 expressed as a percentage?
  1. 4%
  2. 21%
  3. 46%
  4. 84%
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4.14) Data is reliable when:
  1. it answers the research question
  2. it relates to the issue being studied
  3. repeated measurements give similar values
  4. the instrument measurements are precise
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4.15) Which picture demonstrates high precision but low accuracy?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
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4.16) A test suitable for screening purposes should have:
  1. high sensitivity
  2. high specificity
  3. low sensitivity
  4. low specificity
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4.17) A screening test erroneously detects disease in a high number of healthy people. This test shows:
  1. high predictability
  2. high sensitivity
  3. low accuracy
  4. low specificity
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4.18) A rectangle shape on a workflow diagram indicates a:
  1. decision
  2. manual input
  3. process
  4. start/stop point
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4.19) If a population of 500,000 has five cases of AIDS, what is the prevalence of AIDS per 1,000 people?
  1. 0.01 per 1000 people
  2. 0.1 per 1000 people
  3. 1 per 1000 people
  4. 10 per 1000 people
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4.20) A hospital with a patient population of 40,000 people wanted to evaluate the epidemiology of heart disease in its patients. The information collected is shown in the following table:
Year Number of patients with heart disease
2020 1,726
2021 1,780
2022 1,826
Calculate the incidence of new cases from 2021 to 2022.
  1. 1.15 per 1,000 population
  2. 1.30 per 1,000 population
  3. 1.45 per 1,000 population
  4. 1.60 per 1,000 population
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4.21) What is the term for a disease with a constant rate and prevalence within a specific geographic area or population?
  1. Endemic
  2. Morbid
  3. Mortal
  4. Pandemic
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4.22) ______________ are standardized measurements that help to gauge the state and wellness of a population.
  1. Determinants of health
  2. Disease burden
  3. Health indicators
  4. Population-based surveillance
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4.23) A hospital records the following number of births and fetal deaths during a one-month period:
Live births 188
Early fetal deaths 12
Intermediate fetal deaths 7
Late fetal deaths 5
Calculate the fetal death rate.
  1. 5.2%
  2. 6%
  3. 10.32%
  4. 11.32%
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4.24) 500 people in a population of 20,000 have diabetes. If 20 new cases of diabetes were reported during January, calculate the incidence rate for January.
  1. 1 per 1,000 population
  2. 2.5 per 1,000 population
  3. 20 per 1,000 population
  4. 25 per 1,000 population
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4.25) What would be the best way to display the number of patients receiving eye surgery over the last 5 years, aggregated by year?
  1. Frequency distribution
  2. Measure of association
  3. Pie chart
  4. T-test
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4.26) During one month, a 400-bed hospital reported 12 inpatient deaths and performed 6 autopsies. Calculate the gross autopsy rate.
  1. 25%
  2. 26%
  3. 50%
  4. 70%
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4.27) What does the gross autopsy rate include that the net autopsy rate does not?
  1. Autopsies performed by coroners or medical examiners
  2. Deaths due to unnatural causes
  3. Fetal deaths
  4. Inpatient deaths
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4.28) A patient was admitted for prostatectomy for prostate cancer and hernia repair. Five days after the operation, he developed deep vein thrombosis and a urinary tract infection. When coding this case, what would be the main diagnosis?
  1. Deep vein thrombosis
  2. Hernia
  3. Prostate cancer
  4. Urinary tract infection
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4.29) How is cost per weighted case (CPWC) calculated?
  1. Cases / number of weighted cases
  2. Costs / number of weighted cases
  3. Costs / total number of cases
  4. Number of weighted cases / costs
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4.30) Which of these is an example of secondary healthcare data?
  1. 237 nosocomial infections
  2. BP 120/80
  3. KCl 500 mg daily
  4. Measles immunization: 3/12/89
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4.31) Which technique identifies the underlying cause of problems?
  1. Affinity diagram
  2. Brainstorming
  3. Proactive risk assessment
  4. Root cause analysis
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4.32) A correlational analysis reveals a correlation of +0.95 between the length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection. What does this tell you?
  1. The length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection increase together
  2. The length of hospital stay and the risk of acquiring a hospital-acquired infection vary in opposite directions
  3. The longer patients stay in the hospital, the more infections they will get
  4. The more infections patients get, the longer they will have to stay in the hospital
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4.33) Which research design involves a researcher immersing themselves in a culture or society to understand its customs, beliefs, and practices?
  1. Case study
  2. Ethnography
  3. Grounded Theory
  4. Phenomenology
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4.34) Which type of study compares individuals with and without a particular disease or condition?
  1. Case control
  2. Cohort
  3. Cross sectional
  4. Randomized clinical trial
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4.35) An experiment tests the effects of a new antihypertensive medication on blood pressure. In this experiment, the medication is:
  1. a confounding factor
  2. the dependent variable
  3. the hypothesis
  4. the independent variable
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4.36) Which research method involves manipulating an independent variable to observe its effect on a dependent variable?
  1. Experimental
  2. Longitudinal
  3. Mixed
  4. Secondary data analysis
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4.37) Content analysis is most often associated with which type of study?
  1. Correlational
  2. Experimental
  3. Qualitative
  4. Quantitative
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4.38) In which type of research study does the researcher have the most control?
  1. Correlational
  2. Descriptive
  3. Experimental
  4. Observational
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4.39) The process of quantifying the amount of labour performed by people is called:
  1. employee performance evaluation
  2. interval analysis
  3. quantifiable task evaluation
  4. workload measurement
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4.40) Which of these research methods is quantitative?
  1. Case study
  2. Experiment
  3. Interview
  4. Survey
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4.41) The Canadian Management Information System Database (CMDB) contains data on which two operations in healthcare?
  1. Employment and management
  2. Financial and statistical
  3. Information and research
  4. Inventory and maintenance
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4.42) The one national database that truly incorporates all of Canada's acute care episodes of care is the:
  1. CCRS
  2. DAD
  3. HMDB
  4. NACRS
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4.43) Which medical billing report categorizes overdue payments by how long they are past due?
  1. Aging report
  2. Financial summary report
  3. Insurance analysis report
  4. Payment posting report
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4.44) Which federal agency funds health research in Canada?
  1. CHI
  2. CIHI
  3. CIHR
  4. ICES
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4.45) The percentage of beds in use at census-taking time is known as:
  1. occupancy
  2. overflow
  3. tenancy
  4. tenure
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4.46) A 50-bed hospital has a total of 900 IPSDs in the month of September. What is the average occupancy for the month?
  1. 60%
  2. 70%
  3. 80%
  4. 90%
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4.47) An infection acquired during a hospital episode of care is known as a _________ infection.
  1. decubitus
  2. nosocomial
  3. puerperal
  4. septic
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4.48) A hospital has 250 beds. Over a period of 20 days, the hospital has 600 admissions and 500 discharges and serves 4,000 inpatient days. Calculate the inpatient occupancy rate for this period.
  1. 70%
  2. 75%
  3. 80%
  4. 85%
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4.49) The following table shows the deaths and discharges at a hospital during a month:
Deaths 15
Deaths within 48 hours of admission 10
Discharges 500
Calculate the net death rate.
  1. 1%
  2. 2%
  3. 3%
  4. 4%
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4.50) During a week, a hospital has 900 inpatient days and 450 discharges. Calculate the average length of stay.
  1. 1 day
  2. 2 days
  3. 3 days
  4. 4 days
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4.51) A patient who no longer needs acute care services but still occupies an acute care bed is designated as:
  1. ALC
  2. a block transfer patient
  3. an outlier
  4. extraneous
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4.52) In one month, a hospital has 50 nosocomial infections, 20 inpatient deaths, and 2,000 discharges. Calculate the nosocomial infection rate.
  1. 0.5%
  2. 2.5%
  3. 5%
  4. 25%
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4.53) A 200-bed hospital reported 45,810 impatient days, 10,381 discharges, and 1,529 consultations. What is the consultation rate for this facility?
  1. 14.7%
  2. 17.0%
  3. 17.7%
  4. 18.2%
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Section 5: Privacy

5.1) Which of these laws primarily concerns data privacy?
  1. Canada Health Act
  2. HCCA
  3. PIPEDA
  4. RHPA
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5.2) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?
  1. Accountability
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Isolation
  4. Security
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5.3) In which of these circumstances does a person's consent to have their information shared NOT need to be obtained?
  1. A media request
  2. A public health occurrence
  3. A request by family
  4. Facility fundraising
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5.4) A privacy impact assessment is performed when:
  1. a new medical record system is being considered
  2. a new physician joins the organization
  3. a third party requests patient information
  4. there is a breach of privacy
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5.5) What is the greatest concern about electronic health records?
  1. Computer network crashes
  2. Having to retrain medical staff
  3. Lost or misfiled electronic records
  4. Protecting the confidentiality of data
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5.6) The origin of recorded information that is attributed to a specific individual or entity is known as:
  1. accuracy
  2. amendment
  3. auditing
  4. authentication
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5.7) Destruction of health information must be:
  1. irreversible
  2. rapid
  3. reversible
  4. slow
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5.8) A hacker accessed a ROI system. To determine how the hacker got through the firewall and exactly what was accessed, you would use a __________ process.
  1. forensic
  2. incident
  3. mitigation
  4. security
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5.9) Which of these is an intentional threat to data security?
  1. A flood
  2. Data entry error
  3. Data theft
  4. Equipment failure
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5.10) An identity thief is someone who:
  1. hacks into a computer
  2. steals data from a database, device or server
  3. uses someone else's accounts to obtain a good or service
  4. uses someone else's personal identifiable information to impersonate them and set up new records or accounts
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5.11) In the event of a privacy breach or identity theft event, the ____________ step limits the damage to the facility and the individuals.
  1. communication
  2. containment
  3. investigation
  4. process improvement
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5.12) Promptly responding to patient inquiries about their privacy rights supports which privacy principle?
  1. Accountability
  2. Identifying purposes
  3. Openness
  4. Safeguards
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5.13) Which method does degaussing use to destroy data?
  1. Chemical dissolution
  2. Cryptographic erasure
  3. Demagnetization
  4. Ultrasonic waves
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5.14) What is the term for an internet-based platform that lets people view their personal health information?
  1. Patient portal
  2. Telehealth
  3. Virtual care
  4. e-Health
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5.15) What is the term for a law that restricts the time an action may be brought against another party?
  1. Common law
  2. Litigation
  3. Statute of limitations
  4. Summons
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5.16) The Canadian Standards Association Model Code sets principles for:
  1. chain of custody documentation
  2. the collection and handling of patient specimens
  3. the protection of personal information
  4. the use and storage of workplace hazardous materials
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5.17) Which act governs the federal government's collection, retention, use, and disclosure of personal information?
  1. Access to Information Act (ATIA)
  2. Personal Health Information Protection Act (PHIPA)
  3. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA)
  4. Privacy Act
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5.18) PIPEDA is known as consent-based legislation. This means:
  1. healthcare professionals must get consent before performing tests or treatment on patients
  2. organizations must get consent before collecting or using a person's personal information
  3. organizations that collect and use information must consent to do so
  4. provinces can choose whether to enforce the legislation or not
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5.19) Which PIPEDA principle ensures that personal information is only gathered for valid purposes?
  1. Challenging compliance
  2. Consent
  3. Limiting collection
  4. Limiting use, disclosure and retention
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5.20) Which of these is one of PIPEDA's ten privacy principles?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Data destruction
  3. Discrimination
  4. Fairness
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5.21) Which PIPEDA principle allows anyone to ask organizations for a copy of their personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Individual Access
  3. Openness
  4. Safeguards
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Section 6: Technology

6.1) Which of these is a disadvantage of electronic medical records?
  1. Family doctors' offices can connect to specialists’ offices
  2. Faster delivery of laboratory tests
  3. Patient data is at risk of being hacked
  4. Patients can access their own medical records
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6.2) Which of these best defines a business case?
  1. A justification for starting a project
  2. A request for bids from contractors
  3. A review of a company's profits and losses
  4. An examination of how a business suceeded or failed
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6.3) What is the main purpose of a request for proposal (RFP)?
  1. To ask a company for the price of a product or service
  2. To convince stakeholders of the project's value
  3. To gather preliminary information about potential vendors
  4. To solicit bids from vendors
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6.4) The electronic record of encounters within a primary care physician's office is a(n):
  1. diagnostic record
  2. electronic health record (EHR)
  3. electronic medical record (EMR)
  4. personal health record (PHR)
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6.5) Discrete data that is entered into formatted fields rather than entered in free text is known as:
  1. continuous data
  2. data integrity
  3. quantitative data
  4. structured data
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6.6) The amount of detail in data is known as:
  1. accuracy
  2. granularity
  3. precision
  4. relevancy
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6.7) Normalizing data tables (i.e. ensuring that data is stored in only one location) helps to:
  1. decrease the possibility of adding key attributes at a later date
  2. decrease the possibility of data anomalies
  3. increase the possibility of adding key attributes at a later date
  4. increase the possibility of data anomalies
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6.8) The first step in developing a problem-oriented medical record (POMR) is to:
  1. compile the progress notes
  2. create a database
  3. establish the problem list
  4. identify the action plan
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6.9) Who owns and manages an electronic medical record (EMR)?
  1. A healthcare organization
  2. An insurance company
  3. Multiple healthcare organization
  4. The patient
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6.10) Which of these is hardware?
  1. Fax machine
  2. Internet browser
  3. Microsoft Excel
  4. Microsoft Word
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6.11) What does a relational database use to uniquely identify each row in a table?
  1. Index
  2. Primary key
  3. Relationships
  4. Statement
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6.12) What is data redundancy?
  1. A technique for eliminating duplicate copies of data
  2. The maintenance of data accuracy and consistency over its entire life-cycle
  3. When data is no longer accurate, relevant or up-to-date
  4. When the same data is in two or more places in a database
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6.13) Which is the most common type of relationship found between tables in a relational database?
  1. Many-to-many
  2. None-to-many
  3. One-to-many
  4. One-to-one
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6.14) Data normalization minimizes:
  1. redundancy
  2. relevancy
  3. completeness
  4. accuracy
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6.15) Database tables consist of:
  1. functions and queries
  2. keys
  3. rows and columns
  4. subtables
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6.16) Which normal form has no multi-valued dependency?
  1. 1NF
  2. 2NF
  3. 3NF
  4. 4NF
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6.17) Which database optimization technique creates lookup tables to help a database find data faster?
  1. Caching
  2. Indexing
  3. Normalization
  4. Partitioning
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6.18) Removal of which type of dependency is required for a table to move from second normal form to third normal form?
  1. Functional
  2. Multi-valued
  3. Partial
  4. Transitive
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