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CHIM NCE Practice Exam 2

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About the CHIM national certification exam

The CHIM NCE (Certified in Health Information Management National Certification Examination) is an exam administered by the Canadian College of Health Information Management (CCHIM).

The exam assesses entry-level knowledge of health information management, including information governance, medical terminology, analytics, and privacy.

Passing the exam is a requirement to become a Certified Health Information Management (CHIM) professional in Canada.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CHIM national certification exam.

This page contains 200 practice questions divided into the six sections of the exam: 1. Information governance, 2. Data quality, 3. Clinical knowledge, 4. Analytics, 5. Privacy, and 6. Technology.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, and Practice Test 3.

Sections

  1. Information governance
  2. Data quality
  3. Clinical knowledge
  4. Analytics
  5. Privacy
  6. Technology

Section 1: Information governance

1.1) Which pillar of medical ethics is respect for the patient’s right to make decisions about their healthcare?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
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1.2) Which of these is a key principle of the lean management philosophy?
  1. Ideas flow from the top down
  2. It is better to under-communicate than to overcommunicate
  3. Staff must be accountable to achieve success
  4. Words speak louder than actions
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1.3) Which of these actions committed by a phlebotomist could count as battery?
  1. Disclosing a patient's health information without consent
  2. Holding down a patient to draw their blood against their will
  3. Refusing to draw blood from a patient who arrives late to the appointment
  4. Spreading malicious rumours about a colleague
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1.4) The process of enabling people to increase control over their health and to improve their health is called:
  1. health promotion
  2. population health
  3. prevention
  4. surveillance
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1.5) Which of these services generally requires out-of-pocket payment or coverage through private insurance?
  1. X-rays
  2. Ambulance transport
  3. Dental care
  4. Hospital care
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1.6) Which term means an unanticipated event that results in death or serious injury to a patient?
  1. Adverse event
  2. Liability incident
  3. Panic incident
  4. Sentinel event
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1.7) What are the 5 stages of the information life cycle?
  1. Creation, storage, usage, archival, destruction
  2. Discovery, interpretation, communication, obfuscation, crystalization
  3. Inspiration, processing, propagation, solidification, erosion
  4. Organization, dissemination, use, evolution, obsolesence
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1.8) When an error is found in an electronic record, a(n) ___________ should be made.
  1. addendum
  2. change
  3. deletion
  4. new record
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1.9) In the SOAP note of problem‐oriented medical records, what does the letter “P” stand for?
  1. Patient
  2. Plan
  3. Problem
  4. Prognosis
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1.10) The O section of SOAP documentation is:
  1. a description of treatment options
  2. data that comes from examination results and the provider
  3. data that comes from the patient
  4. the diagnosis or impression of a patient's problem
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1.11) Which of these information would you place in the "S" section when using SOAP charting?
  1. Patient's description of symptoms
  2. Physician's diagnosis
  3. Physician's examination
  4. Test results
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1.12) Which filing system is also known as reverse filing?
  1. Consecutive numeric
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
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1.13) What is the most common numeric filing system used in healthcare facilities?
  1. Chronological
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
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1.14) What is the primary digit of 50-63-23 in a terminal digit filing system?
  1. 5
  2. 23
  3. 50
  4. 63
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1.15) In which filing system is the heaviest filing activity concentrated in the area with the most new records?
  1. Alphabetical
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight numeric
  4. Terminal digit
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1.16) Decentralized records are:
  1. easier to manage
  2. less costly to manage
  3. more labor-intensive to manage
  4. more secure
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1.17) Arrange these numbers in terminal digit order: 64-10-10, 83-61-03, 37-28-11.
  1. 37-28-11, 64-10-10, 83-61-03
  2. 64-10-10, 37-28-11, 83-61-03
  3. 83-61-03, 37-28-11, 64-10-10
  4. 83-61-03, 64-10-10, 37-28-11
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1.18) In alphabetic filing, if two last names are identical, what is the next indexing unit?
  1. Date of birth
  2. First name
  3. Middle name
  4. Social Security number
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1.19) What is the main purpose of maintaining data logs?
  1. To identify and correct errors
  2. To improve the speed and efficiency of data processing
  3. To prevent unauthorized access to data
  4. To see who has accessed and changed the data
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1.20) What is medical negligence?
  1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
  2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
  3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
  4. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided
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1.21) Which intervention is commonly refused by some parents due to fears of potential links to autism, despite scientific evidence to the contrary?
  1. Blood transfusions
  2. Chemotherapy
  3. Vaccination
  4. X-rays
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1.22) A man cannot access specialized cardiology care because he lives in a remote rural area. He cannot drive and cannot afford to fly. This is an issue with:
  1. accessibility
  2. comprehensiveness
  3. portability
  4. universality
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1.23) What is the purpose of the Canada Health Act?
  1. To ensure all Canadian residents have access to necessary health care
  2. To ensure all health workers in Canada work in a safe environment
  3. To protect confidential patient information
  4. To provide health care services for people who can pay for the services
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1.24) Which principle of the Canada Health Act ensures citizens have healthcare even when they are outside their home province?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
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1.25) In 1984, the Canada Health Act was passed, combining two previous federal acts addressing hospital and physician services. Which were the two acts?
  1. Privacy Act and Access to Health Information Act
  2. Privacy Act and Department of Health Act
  3. The Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act and the Medical Care Act
  4. The Medical Care Act and the Department of Health Act
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1.26) With Accreditation Canada's Qmentum program, organizations are surveyed every how many years?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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1.27) What are equalization payments?
  1. A direct transfer of money between provinces or territories
  2. A transfer of funds between regional authorities to ensure service in rural areas
  3. An allowance for provinces or territories with less money to provide the same level of services as richer jurisdictions
  4. An income tax charged to residents with higher income
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1.28) Which act is Canada’s federal legislation for publicly funded health care insurance?
  1. Canada Health Act
  2. Established Programs Financing Act
  3. Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act
  4. Medical Care Act
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1.29) What is the term for a legal agreement between the federal and provincial governments on health care funding?
  1. Continuity of care contract
  2. Enhanced services accord
  3. Health accord
  4. Modality accord
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1.30) The Interim Federal Health Program (IFHP) provides health care coverage for:
  1. children under 5 years old
  2. health care professionals
  3. members of parliament
  4. refugee protection claimants
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1.31) Which law recognizes that First Nations, Inuit and Métis have a right of self-government?
  1. Aboriginal Peoples Act
  2. Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
  3. Constitution Act
  4. Indian Act
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1.32) Which of the following is a reason for rising drug costs in the Canadian health care system?
  1. Drug patents expiring earlier than they once did
  2. Fewer employers offering drug insurance plans
  3. Rising birth rates across Canada
  4. The aging population
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1.33) Which organization publishes Professional Practice Briefs (PPBs)?
  1. CHIMA
  2. Canada Health Infoway
  3. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  4. Health Canada
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Section 2: Data quality

2.1) What is the purpose of utilization management?
  1. To increase patient safety
  2. To reduce fraudulent billing
  3. To reduce the number of adverse events
  4. To use resources more effectively
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2.2) Which principle of data ethics emphasizes that organizations collecting and using data are answerable for the consequences of their actions?
  1. Accountability
  2. Consent
  3. Equity
  4. Privacy protection
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2.3) What is clinical data abstraction?
  1. Assigning preliminary codes based on patient symptoms
  2. Creating a summary of codes for insurance claims processing
  3. Finding data in the medical record for secondary purposes
  4. Verifying the accuracy of assigned codes against patient diagnoses
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2.4) An error in a hard copy may be corrected by:
  1. blacking out the incorrect entry with a redacting pen
  2. destroying the hard copy containing the incorrect entry
  3. drawing a single line through the incorrect entry
  4. using correction fluid to erase the incorrect entry
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2.5) Which level of the DIKW pyramid may be structured or unstructured and includes text, numbers, images, audio, and video?
  1. Data
  2. Information
  3. Knowledge
  4. Wisdow
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2.6) Which dimension of data quality means all the data is present and available for use?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Completeness
  3. Timeliness
  4. Validity
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2.7) Which dimension of data quality means that data reflects reality?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Completeness
  3. Consistency
  4. Validity
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2.8) Which international standard pertains to the communication of information from point-of-care medical devices?
  1. FHIR
  2. HL7 CDA
  3. ISO 11073-10101
  4. SNOMED CT
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2.9) Which organization develops the International Classification of Diseases (ICD)?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. International Health Terminology Standards Development Organization (IHTSDO)
  3. Pan American Health Organization (PAHO)
  4. World Health Organization (WHO)
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2.10) Which department of the Government of Canada is responsible for national health policy?
  1. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  2. Health Canada
  3. Public Health Agency of Canada
  4. Statistics Canada
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2.11) Which of these is a CCI code?
  1. 1.CA.14.STCDR
  2. 1.E8.8179.ABT
  3. E11.52.RC
  4. K63.88
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2.12) The CCI is used to code:
  1. diagnoses
  2. imaging results
  3. interventions
  4. laboratory results
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2.13) What is CACS used for?
  1. Categorizing and analyzing ambulatory care data
  2. Classifying critical health-related interventions
  3. Exchanging clinical information between systems
  4. Recording and reporting seasonal allergies
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2.14) What is the Canadian version of the LOINC database?
  1. CCI
  2. ICD-10-CA
  3. SNOMED CT
  4. pCLOCD
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2.15) Why is it mandatory to code homelessness whenever it is documented?
  1. To ensure accurate allocation of funds to healthcare institutions
  2. To ensure homeless people receive priority access to social services
  3. To help insurance companies track and manage claims related to homelessness
  4. To help the healthcare system better meet the needs of homeless people
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2.16) What do ICD codes represent?
  1. Diseases
  2. Hospital departments
  3. Insurance providers
  4. Procedures
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2.17) What does the term 'interoperability' refer to?
  1. The ability of a healthcare application to operate across different types of hardware
  2. The ability of different systems to exchange information
  3. The ability to run multiple software applications on a single computer
  4. The ability to store large amounts of data efficiently
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2.18) Which type of storage only allows data to be written once, after which it cannot be changed?
  1. NAS
  2. RAM
  3. ROM
  4. WORM
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2.19) _____________ is the illegal practice of billing for procedures separately that are normally covered by a single CPT code.
  1. Bundling
  2. Kickbacking
  3. Unbundling
  4. Upcoding
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2.20) What does the abbreviation SX stand for in medical records?
  1. Social history
  2. Status
  3. Subject's history
  4. Symptoms
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2.21) Which organization maintains the Canadian Classification of Health Interventions (CCI)?
  1. Canada Health Infoway
  2. Canadian Health Informatics Association (COACH)
  3. Canadian Health Information Management Association (CHIMA)
  4. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
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2.22) Which organization publishes the Canada Communicable Disease Report?
  1. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  2. Health Canada
  3. Public Health Agency of Canada
  4. Statistics Canada
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2.23) Which dimension of CIHI's Information Quality Framework is the degree to which information meets the current and potential needs of clients, users, and stakeholders?
  1. Accessibility and clarity
  2. Accuracy and reliability
  3. Relevance
  4. Timeliness and punctuality
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2.24) Which CIHI methodology aggregates acute care inpatients who have similar clinical and resource-utilization characteristics?
  1. Case Mix Groups+
  2. Comprehensive Ambulatory Classification Systems (CACS)
  3. Major Clinical Categories
  4. Risk Adjusted Measures
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2.25) Which of these is an administrative database that collects information on cancer incidence from all provincial and territorial cancer registries in Canada?
  1. CCR
  2. CJRR
  3. DAD
  4. MIS
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2.26) Which organization develops healthcare reporting standards and maintains health databases?
  1. Canada Health Infoway
  2. Canadian Institute for Health Information (CIHI)
  3. Canadian Standards Association (CSA)
  4. Statistics Canada
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2.27) Which CIHI database comprises data from the Discharge Abstract Database (DAD) and data submitted by the Ministère de la Santé et des Services Sociaux du Québec?
  1. Canadian Management Information System Database (CMDB)
  2. Hospital Morbidity Database (HMDB)
  3. National Ambulatory Care Reporting System (NACRS)
  4. National Health Expenditure Database (NHEX)
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2.28) How often is the Canadian Community Health Survey?
  1. Every year
  2. Every 2 years
  3. Every 3 years
  4. Every 4 years
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2.29) A patient is scheduled to have a hysterectomy. Before the surgery starts, the doctor discovers the patient is pregnant and cancels the procedure. Given this information, you would expect the resource intensity weight (RIW) to be ____________________ the average RIW for this procedure.
  1. lower than
  2. the same as
  3. slightly higher than
  4. much higher than
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Section 3: Clinical knowledge

3.1) What does the suffix -emia refer to?
  1. Blood condition
  2. Enlargement
  3. Paralysis
  4. Surgical removal
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3.2) PLT stands for:
  1. pink labelled tube
  2. plasma tube
  3. platelets
  4. professional lab technician
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3.3) BT and CT stand for:
  1. bile test and culture test
  2. bleeding time and clotting time
  3. blood test and clotting test
  4. blood tube and clot tube
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3.4) In hematology, what does HCT stand for?
  1. Hematocrit
  2. Hemoglobin colour testing
  3. High cell total
  4. High cell turbidity
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3.5) FOB stands for:
  1. far over baseline
  2. fecal occult blood
  3. foreign object in the body
  4. foul odours from the body
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3.6) What does GTT stand for?
  1. Genetic test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. Guanine-thymine test
  4. Guaranteed time and temperature
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3.7) What is a CCMSU?
  1. A blood test to diagnose cancer of the red blood cells
  2. A hospital department providing special care to newborns
  3. A method of collecting urine samples
  4. A type of x-ray
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3.8) In health testing, what does POCT stand for?
  1. Point of care testing
  2. Point of contact testing
  3. Post-operation creatine test
  4. Pre-operation cancer test
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3.9) What term means a high level of glucose in the blood?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hypodermic
  3. Hypogastric
  4. Hypoglycemia
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3.10) A break or splinter of the bone into more than two fragments is called a:
  1. comminuted fracture
  2. compression fracture
  3. crepitation
  4. greenstick fracture
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3.11) What term refers to the replacement of normal parenchymal tissue with connective tissue?
  1. Alopecia
  2. Fibrosis
  3. Mucositis
  4. Myelosuppression
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3.12) What is tinnitus?
  1. A false sense of motion or spinning
  2. A ringing sound in the ears
  3. A voice disorder
  4. Hearing loss occurring with old age
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3.13) What is a hematoma?
  1. A cancer of the blood that originates in red blood cells
  2. A cut in the skin
  3. A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels
  4. A severed artery
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3.14) What term describes localized tumor growth?
  1. Anaplastic
  2. Carcinoma in situ
  3. Metastasis
  4. Pleomorphic
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3.15) Which of these is a type of connective tissue?
  1. Areolar
  2. Cuboidal
  3. Squamous
  4. Transitional
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3.16) Which part of the eye controls the amount of light entering the eyeball?
  1. Choroid
  2. Cornea
  3. Iris
  4. Retina
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3.17) Myoglobin is a protein that binds to:
  1. DNA
  2. cancer cells
  3. cholesterol
  4. oxygen
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3.18) What is the main function of dense regular connective tissue?
  1. To attach structures like muscle and bones
  2. To form stroma of soft organs
  3. To provide elasticity to stretchable organs
  4. To reduce heat loss from the body surface
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3.19) Which strong, gristly cartilage makes up the trachea?
  1. Articular
  2. Elastic
  3. Fibrous
  4. Hyaline
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3.20) Kernicterus is caused by an abnormal accumulation of bilirubin in which organ?
  1. Brain
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Lung
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3.21) Which chromosome is only present in males?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. X
  4. Y
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3.22) Hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos are all symptoms of which disease?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
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3.23) Which autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
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3.24) Which is the triangular muscle of the shoulder?
  1. Bicep
  2. Deltoid
  3. Long abductor
  4. Tricep
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3.25) In this diagram of the heart, which line is pointing to the left ventricle?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
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3.26) Which skin structure helps prevent water loss and inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
  1. Arrector pili
  2. Hair follicles
  3. Oil glands
  4. Sweat glands
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3.27) Which organ is the line pointing to?
  1. Bladder
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Stomach
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3.28) The sweat test diagnoses which disease?
  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Infection
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pneumonia
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3.29) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?
  1. 0.4–5 mU/L
  2. 5.4–10 mU/L
  3. 10.4–15 mU/L
  4. 15.4–20 mU/L
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3.30) What is the normal range for fasting glucose?
  1. 0.0–2.8 mmol/L
  2. 2.8–3.9 mmol/L
  3. 3.9–5.6 mmol/L
  4. 5.6–6.9 mmol/L
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3.31) Which of these red blood cell counts is normal?
  1. 2.2 × 10¹²/L
  2. 4.9 × 10¹²/L
  3. 8.9 × 10¹²/L
  4. 10.3 × 10¹²/L
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3.32) What is the name of a lung infection resulting from inhaling food or water?
  1. Aspiration pneumonia
  2. Interstitial pneumonia
  3. Lobar pneumonia
  4. Pneumocystitis carinii pneumonia
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3.33) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
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Section 4: Analytics

4.1) If the curve of a frequency distribution is symmetrical and bell-shaped, it is known as a ________ curve.
  1. normal
  2. parabolic
  3. skewed
  4. tangential
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4.2) What term describes the relationship where the increase of one variable is associated with an increase in another variable?
  1. Continuous
  2. Negative
  3. Positive
  4. Risk
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4.3) What is this chart called?
  1. Area chart
  2. Bar chart
  3. Gantt chart
  4. Histogram
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4.4) What graph/chart is used to compare each percentange with the total?
  1. Bar graph
  2. Line graph
  3. Pie chart
  4. Scatter plot
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4.5) The methodology that is most useful for displaying how a single total quantity is apportioned to a group of categories is the:
  1. bar graph
  2. histogram
  3. pie chart
  4. scatter plot
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4.6) For data distributed normally, how many values are within three standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 68%
  2. 83%
  3. 95%
  4. 99.7%
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4.7) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?
  1. Mean / standard deviation
  2. Standard deviation / mean
  3. Standard deviation / variance
  4. Variance / mean
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4.8) What type of skew does this graph show?
  1. Negative
  2. Positive
  3. Right
  4. Zero
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4.9) The mean, median, mode and standard deviation are examples of which type of statistics?
  1. Descriptive
  2. Experimental
  3. Inferential
  4. Linear regression
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4.10) What is the range of 4, 4, 8, 9, 10, 13, and 22?
  1. 7
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 18
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4.11) What is the median of 4, 4, 8, 9, 10, 13, and 22?
  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 10
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4.12) The middle value in a sorted data set is called the:
  1. average
  2. coefficient of variation
  3. mean
  4. median
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4.13) What is the mode of 4, 4, 8, 9, 10, 13, and 22?
  1. 4
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 10
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4.14) What is 60% expressed as a fraction in its simplest form?
  1. 3/5
  2. 4/9
  3. 5/8
  4. 6/100
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4.15) A lab analyzes blood samples from 50 patents. The number of patients with abnormal results is 45. What is this expressed as a percentage?
  1. 5%
  2. 45%
  3. 90%
  4. 95%
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4.16) What is 9/20 expressed as a percentage?
  1. 2.22%
  2. 18%
  3. 22%
  4. 45%
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4.17) Precise values:
  1. are caused by random errors
  2. are close to the true value
  3. are the same as the true value
  4. fall within a narrow range
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4.18) Patient records are what type of data source?
  1. Primary
  2. Secondary
  3. Tertiary
  4. Quartenary
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4.19) Infant death, life expectancy, and death due to cancer are examples of which classification of indicator?
  1. Health care delivery
  2. Morbidity
  3. Mortality
  4. Nutritional
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4.20) The question "Are healthcare resources are distributed fairly among all Canadians?" is evaluating the __________ of the health system.
  1. accessibility
  2. efficiency
  3. equity
  4. safety
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4.21) You need to determine how much revenue is generated by each procedure performed in the medical practice. What would be the most efficient way to do this?
  1. Ask the healthcare providers who performed the procedures
  2. Generate a report in the EHR software
  3. Search through patient files individually
  4. Survey the patients who had the procedures
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4.22) What is a blinded study?
  1. A study where participants and/or researchers do not know who is in the experimental group
  2. A study where the participants are randomized to different groups
  3. A study where the participants do not know they are in a research study
  4. A study where the researcher is unaware of what is being studied
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4.23) Which type of study involves observations of a population at a single point in time?
  1. Cohort
  2. Cross-sectional
  3. Longitudinal
  4. Qualitative
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4.24) The main function of a literature review is to:
  1. describe how your research was conducted
  2. develop a case study
  3. summarise current knowledge
  4. test a hypothesis
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4.25) The combination of results from several studies is known as:
  1. a meta-analysis
  2. an experiment
  3. data mining
  4. epidemiology
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4.26) To study the relationship between patient age and serum glucose level, a researcher would use which type of research?
  1. Correlational
  2. Evaluation
  3. Experimental
  4. Retrospective
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4.27) A ____________ study is a form of experimental research in which neither the researcher nor the subject knows to which group the subject belongs.
  1. control group
  2. double blind
  3. placebo
  4. random sampling
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4.28) To calculate the hospital admission rate, you would need the hospital data and:
  1. Vital Statistics data
  2. census data
  3. control group data
  4. peer data
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4.29) Which data quality dimension is the extent to which the data conforms to the expected format, type, and range?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Consistency
  3. Uniqueness
  4. Validity
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4.30) What does “black box” refer to in machine learning and AI?
  1. A model designed to filter out blacklisted data points
  2. A model that stitches together images into real-time video
  3. A model that that holds secure confidential data
  4. A model whose internal workings are unknown
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4.31) What is an itemized statement of healthcare services?
  1. A coding system used to classify healthcare services
  2. A list of common disorders and diseases
  3. A list of services provided to a patient and the amount of payment due
  4. A list of the most common services provided by a healthcare facility
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4.32) Food insecurity is a challenge for health, particularly for indigenous peoples. What is food insecurity?
  1. A diet high in carbohydrates and trans fat
  2. A diet low in protein
  3. Limited access to nutritionists and doctors to guide food choices
  4. Limited access to nutritious foods required to maintain a healthy state
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4.33) Which of these does the HMDB capture?
  1. Day procedures
  2. Discharge data on psychiatric facilities
  3. Emergency department visits
  4. Impatient deaths
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4.34) In what type of funding is money provided based on the types of cases treated and the volume of patients?
  1. Block
  2. Line by line
  3. Population-based
  4. Service-based
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4.35) How is the maternal mortality rate calculated?
  1. (Number of maternal deaths / Number of deliveries) × 10,000
  2. (Number of maternal deaths / Number of deliveries) × 100
  3. (Number of maternal deaths / Number of live births) × 100,000
  4. (Number of maternal deaths / Number of obstetrical discharges) × 1,000,000
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4.36) In which type of hospital funding is the amount determined by the previous year's expenditures?
  1. Activity based funding
  2. Block funding
  3. Line by line funding
  4. Service based funding
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4.37) Which type of death is included in gross death rates but not net death rates?
  1. Deaths occurring within 48 hours of admission
  2. Deaths of patients who received anaesthetic within 24 hours of a procedure
  3. Patients who are dead on arrival
  4. Stillborns
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4.38) A hospital with 100 beds serves 25,550 inpatient days over the course of a year. Calculate the bed occupancy rate.
  1. 40%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 70%
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4.39) ____________ are measurable characteristics that describes the health of a population.
  1. Health determinants
  2. Health indicators
  3. Public health measures
  4. Vital statistics
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4.40) Which determinant of health includes smoking?
  1. Behaviour
  2. Environment
  3. Genetics
  4. Medical care
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Section 5: Privacy

5.1) What kind of consent is required for minors to receive medical treatment?
  1. Implied
  2. Parental
  3. Unanimous
  4. Verbal
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5.2) What are the three elements of the informed consent process?
  1. Content, context, and consent
  2. Explanation, agreement, and documentation
  3. Information, comprehension, and voluntariness
  4. Transparency, accessibility, and documentation
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5.3) The act of reducing risk is also called risk:
  1. implementation
  2. improvement
  3. mitigation
  4. retention
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5.4) Incident reports should be:
  1. filed with the associated visit
  2. stored separately from the health record
  3. the first document seen when accessing a record
  4. thrown out once the incident is investigated
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5.5) Patients have the right to inspect and obtain a copy of their personal health information:
  1. for as long as the PHI is maintained
  2. for six years
  3. for 1 year
  4. forever
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5.6) What is the social license in the context of health information?
  1. The empowerment of patients as the owners of their own health information
  2. The legal permission to collect, store, and use health information
  3. The public acceptance of an organization's data practices
  4. The right of the patients to access their health information
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5.7) What type of access control assigns permissions to users based on their duties in the organization?
  1. Context-based
  2. Discretionary
  3. Role-based
  4. Time-based
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5.8) A framework that ensures an organization has implemented effective measures to protect data and information is known as a:
  1. PIA
  2. PIPEDA
  3. TRA
  4. information security program
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5.9) How does an EHR ensure the security of information sent between facilities?
  1. All data transfers are manually verified
  2. Backups are stored in multiple locations
  3. Data requires handwritten signatures for digital access
  4. The data is encrypted before sharing
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5.10) Protecting data privacy means safeguarding:
  1. access to information
  2. data availability
  3. health information quality
  4. system implementation
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5.11) Which of these methods is most effective for destroying the data on a hard drive?
  1. Breaking the drive in half
  2. Degaussing
  3. Manually deleting files from the hard drive
  4. Reformatting
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5.12) In the context of information requests, what is a line-by-line review?
  1. Cross-referencing each line with external sources to validate the information’s accuracy
  2. Identifying which parts of the information need further action
  3. Matching each line of information against a checklist to ensure all required data is present
  4. Reviewing the information to determine what information must be withheld
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5.13) What is a custodian of health information?
  1. A person who has access to and uses a patient's health information
  2. An agency that uses aggregated or anonymized data for statistical purposes
  3. An entity that holds and manages health information
  4. An organization that analyzes health data for research or quality improvement purposes
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5.14) Which term means giving a user permission to access data?
  1. Articulation
  2. Authentication
  3. Authorization
  4. Confidentiality
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5.15) What technique uses psychological manipulation to trick users into giving away sensitive information?
  1. Brute force attack
  2. Data infiltration
  3. Man-in-the-middle attack
  4. Social engineering
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5.16) Which of these is a step for managing a privacy breach?
  1. Collection
  2. Consent
  3. Encryption
  4. Notification
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5.17) Which hacking technique overloads a network with excessive requests, thereby preventing the network from responding to legitimate requests?
  1. Brute force attack
  2. DNS spoofing
  3. DoS attack
  4. SQL injection
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5.18) What cybersecurity measure collects, analyzes, and reports on security-related data from across the IT environment, providing real-time monitoring and threat detection?
  1. Endpoint security
  2. IAM framework
  3. SIEM system
  4. Virtual private network
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5.19) Which type of ransomware encrypts files, making them inaccessible without a decryption key?
  1. Cryptoware
  2. Leakware
  3. Lockerware
  4. Scareware
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5.20) To be effective, passwords must be:
  1. difficult to guess
  2. permanent
  3. predictable
  4. short
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5.21) Which hacking technique uses fake emails, text messages, phone calls, or websites to trick people into sharing sensitive data?
  1. DoS attack
  2. Keylogger
  3. Phishing
  4. SQL injection
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5.22) Which of these is an administrative control method for safeguarding personal health information?
  1. Audit logs
  2. Data encryption
  3. Employee training
  4. Surveillance camera
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5.23) Which of these is a technical control method for safeguarding personal health information?
  1. Access card
  2. Antivirus software
  3. Data security policy
  4. Risk assessment
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5.24) What type of cloud service offers virtualized computing resources such as servers and storage?
  1. IaaS
  2. PaaS
  3. SaaS
  4. Security and identity services
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5.25) Law originating from court decisions is known as __________ law.
  1. common
  2. public
  3. statute
  4. tort
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5.26) A document requiring a person to give testimony at court is called a(n):
  1. affidavit
  2. search warrant
  3. subpoena
  4. summons
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5.27) Which of the following is a right the Privacy Act gives to individuals?
  1. The right to access the records of private organizations
  2. The right to anonymity in dealings with the government
  3. The right to have their personal information erased
  4. The right to request corrections to their personal information
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5.28) Which PIPEDA principle requires organizations to have clear, readily available policies about how they manage personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Individual access
  3. Openness
  4. Safeguards
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5.29) PIPEDA has how many fair information principles?
  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10
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5.30) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must be able to explain why they are collecting personal information?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Challenging compliance
  3. Identifying purposes
  4. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention
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5.31) Who enforces PIPEDA?
  1. Health Canada
  2. Information and Privacy Commissioner of Ontario
  3. Privacy Commissioner of Canada
  4. Public Health Ontario
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5.32) What document is a written petition for copies of records held by public bodies?
  1. FOI request
  2. Notice of deposition
  3. Pareto chart
  4. Transparency request
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5.33) What is the purpose of the Privacy Act?
  1. To promote government transparency
  2. To provide open access to all health information
  3. To require the electronic storage of all health records
  4. To respect the privacy rights of individuals
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5.34) Which act gives Canadian citizens the right to see records of federal government institutions?
  1. Access to Information Act
  2. Health Information Act
  3. Personal Health Information Protection Act
  4. Privacy Act
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5.35) A medical assistant prints out a patient's demographic information so the patient can review it for errors. Once the patient has reviewed the information, what should the medical assistant do with it?
  1. Dispose of it by shredding
  2. Give it to the doctor
  3. Give it to the patient to take home
  4. Put it in the patient’s file
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Section 6: Technology

6.1) What is the first step of Kotter’s 8-Step Change Model?
  1. Creating a vision
  2. Establishing a sense of urgency
  3. Forming a powerful guiding coalition
  4. Planning for and creating short-term wins
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6.2) Which stage of the systems development life cycle involves writing code and building the application?
  1. Design
  2. Development
  3. Implementation
  4. Maintenance
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6.3) Which of the stage of the project life cycle is characterized by accomplishing the project's purpose?
  1. Closure
  2. Execution
  3. Initiation
  4. Planning
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6.4) What is the final stage of the systems development life cycle?
  1. Analysis
  2. Implementation
  3. Maintenance
  4. Testing
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6.5) Which type of interoperability means every system understands the meaning of the data?
  1. Foundational
  2. Organizational
  3. Semantic
  4. Structural
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6.6) When choosing a new information system, the most important factor is:
  1. how easy the system will be to implement
  2. the amount of documentation about the system
  3. the cost of the system
  4. the needs of the users
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6.7) What are the four levels of interoperability in healthcare according to the Healthcare Information and Management Systems Society (HIMSS)?
  1. Equality, comparison, access, and integration
  2. Foundational, structural, semantic, and organizational
  3. Legal, technical, strategic, operational
  4. Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary
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6.8) Which of these is a benefit of electronic medical records?
  1. Increased confidentiality concerns
  2. Increased health care costs
  3. More graduating physicians choosing family medicine
  4. Prompt delivery of laboratory results
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6.9) Which term refers to the automated transmission of physiological data such as heart rate, blood pressure, and oxygen saturation directly to care providers?
  1. Clinical decision support
  2. Electronic data interchange
  3. Telemedicine
  4. Telemonitoring
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6.10) What are the main components of a business case?
  1. The business's qualifications and past performance
  2. The product's design and technical specifications
  3. The project's objectives, costs, and benefits
  4. The vendor's experience, references, and technical skills
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6.11) Which function of an electronic health record (EHR) allows providers to enter and send treatment instructions?
  1. Health information exchange
  2. Order entry
  3. Patient portal
  4. Scheduling
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6.12) Which type of electronic record can be used by members of more than one healthcare organization?
  1. Electronic health record (EHR)
  2. Electronic medical record (EHR)
  3. Electronic patient record (EHR)
  4. Personal health record (EHR)
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6.13) Which type of electronic record is an overview of a person’s key health history, accessible across different healthcare organizations, and often read-only?
  1. Electronic health record (EHR)
  2. Electronic medical record (EMR)
  3. Electronic patient record (EPR)
  4. Personal health record (PHR)
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6.14) What is meant by "data retention"?
  1. The practice of backing up data regularly
  2. The practice of storing data for a specific period of time
  3. The process of identifying and removing duplicate data
  4. The process of structuring data for efficient storage and retrieval
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6.15) PHR stands for ____________ health record.
  1. patient
  2. personal
  3. primary
  4. public
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6.16) EPR stands for __________ patient record.
  1. electronic
  2. emergency
  3. enhanced
  4. extended
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6.17) Which province or territory does not submit data to the Discharge Abstract Database (DAD)?
  1. British Colombia
  2. Nunavut
  3. Quebec
  4. Yukon
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6.18) The ICPC is a classification method for:
  1. childhood illnesses
  2. chronic diseases
  3. interventions
  4. primary care encounters
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6.19) Which database is a census of all deaths in Canada each year?
  1. CVSD
  2. DAD
  3. NACRS
  4. OMHRS
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6.20) In data technology, what is XML used for?
  1. Access management
  2. Data exchange
  3. Data recovery
  4. Encryption
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6.21) What type of control restricts access based on a person's position in an organization?
  1. Discretionary
  2. Privileged
  3. Role-based
  4. Work group-based
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6.22) Which database optimization method restructures a relational database according to rules that reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity?
  1. Caching
  2. Indexing
  3. Normalization
  4. Query optimization
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6.23) In a relational database, a ____________ is a field in a table that refers to the primary key in another table.
  1. foreign key
  2. index
  3. non-primary key
  4. secondary key
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6.24) A flexible method of developing software is known as _________ development.
  1. active
  2. agile
  3. dexterous
  4. flexible
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6.25) Which project management technique requires the team to complete each workflow stage entirely before moving on to the next stage?
  1. Agile
  2. Scrum
  3. Six Sigma
  4. Waterfall
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6.26) What technique identifies a project's advantages, disadvantages, prospects, and risks?
  1. Critical path method
  2. Gannt chart
  3. Ishikawa diagram
  4. SWOT analysis
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6.27) What type of chart is this?
  1. Gantt chart
  2. PERT chart
  3. Systems development life cycle
  4. Work breakdown structure (WBS) chart
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6.28) In which step of the project management life cycle is the work breakdown structure (WBS) created?
  1. Closure
  2. Execution
  3. Initiation
  4. Planning
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6.29) The critical path method (CPM) in project management:
  1. allocates project resources fairly
  2. finds the minimum amount of time to complete a project
  3. prevents the uncontrolled expansion of the project scope
  4. prioritizes tasks based on their complexity
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6.30) Which change management tool examines the factors driving and blocking a change?
  1. Force-field analysis
  2. Impact assessment
  3. Pareto chart
  4. SWOT analysis
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