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MLPAO MLA/T Certification Exam: Practice Test 3

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About the MLPAO MLA/T exam

The MLPAO MLA/T Certification Exam is a test that students must pass to work as laboratory assistants in Ontario, Canada. The exam is administered by the Medical Laboratory Professionals Association of Ontario (MLPAO).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the MLPAO MLA/T exam.

This page contains 500 practice questions divided into the thirteen sections of the exam: 1. Standards of Practice, 2. Medical Terminology, 3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology, 4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Management, 5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection, 6. Laboratory Safety, 7. Laboratory Equipment, 8. Histology and Cytology, 9. Clinical Microbiology, 10. Clinical Chemistry, 11. Clinical Hematology, 12. Transfusion Medicine, and 13. Electrocardiograms.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, and Practice Test 3.

Sections

  1. Standards of Practice
  2. Medical Terminology
  3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology
  4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Management
  5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection
  6. Laboratory Safety
  7. Laboratory Equipment
  8. Histology and Cytology
  9. Clinical Microbiology
  10. Clinical Chemistry
  11. Clinical Hematology
  12. Transfusion Medicine
  13. Electrocardiograms

Section 1: Standards of Practice

1.1) What is a regulated profession?
  1. A profession that has no legal requirement or restriction on practice
  2. A profession that requires a specific professional qualification
  3. A profession that requires regular drug testing
  4. A profession that requires work experience
  5. A profession where workers work regular, 9–5 hours
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1.2) A nurse misidentifies a patient and gives the patient the wrong medication. As a result, the patient is seriously injured. What type of crime has the nurse committed?
  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Defamation
  4. Misdemeanour
  5. Negligence
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1.3) The legal obligation to provide a reasonable level of care and to avoid careless actions is called:
  1. autonomy
  2. duty of care
  3. nonmaleficence
  4. res ipsa loquitur
  5. the Good Samaritan law
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1.4) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The nurses and doctors responsible for taking care of a patient
  5. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
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1.5) A courier delivers a chain-of-custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain-of-custody form?
  1. Only the courier
  2. Only the laboratory manager
  3. Only the laboratory technician
  4. The courier and the laboratory technician
  5. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician
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1.6) Ontario's Occupational Health and Safety Act (OHSA) is administered and enforced by:
  1. Health Canada
  2. Ontario Health
  3. the Minister of Labour of Canada
  4. the Ministry of Labour, Training and Skills Development
  5. the Ontario Public Health Association
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1.7) What is medical negligence?
  1. A situation where an injured patient has no evidence of how the injury occurred
  2. An agreement for a doctor to provide treatment
  3. The failure to provide a patient with a reasonable standard of care
  4. The legal obligation to provide a patient with a standard of reasonable care
  5. The submission of insurance claims for services never provided
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1.8) A nurse fails to change a surgery patient’s bandages for several days. The patient develops a serious infection as a result. The nurse's behaviour is an example of:
  1. comparative negligence
  2. contingent liability
  3. contributory negligence
  4. gross negligence
  5. vicarious liability
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1.9) The Canadian Standards Association Model Code sets principles for:
  1. chain of custody documentation
  2. the collection and handling of patient specimens
  3. the protection of personal information
  4. the transportation of dangerous goods
  5. the use and storage of workplace hazardous materials
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1.10) PIPEDA is known as consent-based legislation. This means:
  1. healthcare professionals must get consent before performing tests or treatment on patients
  2. organizations affected by the legislation must consent to its enforcement
  3. organizations must get consent before collecting or using a person's personal information
  4. organizations that collect and use information must consent to do so
  5. provinces can choose whether to enforce the legislation or not
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1.11) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must hire or designate someone to manage personal information?
  1. Accountability
  2. Accuracy
  3. Challenging compliance
  4. Identifying purposes
  5. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention
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1.12) Which of these is a controlled act according to the Regulated Health Professions Act (1991)?
  1. Asking the patient for their name, address and telephone number
  2. Mixing an acid with a base
  3. Putting a finger into a patient's internal ear canal
  4. Shaking the patient's hand
  5. Washing your hands
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1.13) What does Section 11 of Ontario Regulation 107/96 Controlled Acts concern?
  1. Administering substances by injection
  2. Inappropriate workplace behaviours
  3. The privacy of patient information
  4. The taking of blood samples
  5. The transportation of dangerous chemicals
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1.14) The CMLTO is the provincial _____________ for medical laboratory technologists in Ontario.
  1. certification body
  2. legislative act
  3. regulatory body
  4. trade union
  5. trade-specific act
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1.15) What Ontario Act establishes rules for the collection, use and disclosure of personal health information?
  1. CHIMA
  2. CPPA
  3. Data Protection Act
  4. PHIPA
  5. PIPEDA
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1.16) Which act ensures all eligible Canadian residents have reasonable access to insured health services on a prepaid basis, without direct charges at the point of service?
  1. Canada Emergency Response Benefit Act
  2. Canada Health Act
  3. Established Programs Financing Act
  4. Financial Administration Act
  5. Patent Act
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1.17) Which principle of the Canada Health Act ensures citizens have healthcare even when they are outside their home province?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Comprehensiveness
  3. Portability
  4. Public administration
  5. Universality
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1.18) What provides the professionalism expectations for medical laboratory technologists in Canada?
  1. The AIMS Scope of Practice
  2. The ASCLS Scope of Practice
  3. The CSMLS Standards of Practice
  4. The HCPC Standards of Proficiency
  5. The PHPC Scope of Practice
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1.19) In Canada, a medical laboratory assistant is a skill level B occupation. What is a skill level B occupation?
  1. A labour job that usually gives on-the-job training
  2. A professional job that usually calls for a degree from a university
  3. A skilled job that requires an advanced university degree
  4. A technical job or skilled trade that usually calls for a college diploma or training as an apprentice
  5. An intermediate job that usually calls for high school and/or job-specific training
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1.20) Canada's health care system is best described as:
  1. a centralized, privately-funded system
  2. a privately funded health care system
  3. a set of ten provincial and three territorial health insurance plans
  4. one that delivers all types of health care services to all Canadian residents
  5. one that delivers health care services to specific groups in Canada
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Section 2: Medical Terminology

2.1) What term means 'without infection'?
  1. Antibiotic
  2. Aseptic
  3. Septic
  4. Spore
  5. Stasis
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2.2) A resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of twelve hours of fasting is called a ___________ state.
  1. absorptive
  2. basal
  3. hyperinsulinemic
  4. postprandial
  5. starvation
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2.3) Which term means "before meals"?
  1. Antenatal
  2. Postpartum
  3. Postprandial
  4. Prenatal
  5. Preprandial
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2.4) Adipose tissue is more commonly known as:
  1. bone
  2. cartilage
  3. fat
  4. nervous tissue
  5. skin
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2.5) What protein forms a mesh that holds blood clots in place?
  1. Fibrin
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Globulin
  4. Hemoglobin
  5. Thrombin
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2.6) What is the term for an immature red blood cell?
  1. Erythroblast
  2. Megakaryoblast
  3. Monoblast
  4. Segmented
  5. Thrombocyte
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2.7) What is thiamine?
  1. A DNA base
  2. A respiratory stimulant
  3. A vitamin
  4. An amino acid
  5. An antibiotic
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2.8) What is mitosis?
  1. A bone disorder
  2. A process of cell division
  3. An absorption problem
  4. An infectious disease
  5. The deviation from the statistical mean
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2.9) Agglutination is the:
  1. breakdown of gluten
  2. clumping together of blood cells
  3. decrease in red cell pigment
  4. increase of red cell size
  5. swelling of a vein
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2.10) Which prefix means "break down", "destruction", or "dissolving"?
  1. Andr-
  2. Chem-
  3. Dys-
  4. Hydr-
  5. Lys-
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2.11) Which suffix means "hardening"?
  1. -algia
  2. -pathy
  3. -plegia
  4. -sclerosis
  5. -stomy
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2.12) Which prefix means "fast"?
  1. Brady-
  2. Epi-
  3. Hyper-
  4. Supra-
  5. Tachy-
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2.13) Which prefix refers to the kidneys?
  1. Chole-
  2. Hepato-
  3. Myo-
  4. Nephro-
  5. Neuro-
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2.14) TSH stands for thyroid __________ hormone.
  1. special
  2. specific
  3. stimulating
  4. sublimating
  5. sufficiency
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2.15) Which term means a low white blood cell count?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukoplakia
  5. Leukopoiesis
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2.16) Icterus is another word for:
  1. heart attack
  2. jaundice
  3. seizure
  4. stomach pain
  5. stroke
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2.17) What term means a high level of glucose in the blood?
  1. Hematoma
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hypodermic
  4. Hypogastric
  5. Hypoglycemia
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2.18) Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?
  1. Euthyroid
  2. Goiter
  3. Hypergonadism
  4. Hypophyseal enlargement
  5. Tetany
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2.19) What is an embolism?
  1. A blockage in a blood vessel
  2. A bruise
  3. A heart attack
  4. An inflamed area of the esophagus
  5. Swelling in a vein
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2.20) What is phlebitis?
  1. A collapsed capillary
  2. A type of blood cancer
  3. A viral infection that affects lymph nodes
  4. Clotting in an artery
  5. Inflammation of a vein
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2.21) An abnormal clot that attaches to the site at which it formed and remains there is called:
  1. a platelet plug
  2. a thrombus
  3. an embolism
  4. an embolus
  5. inflammation
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2.22) What is the name of the process by which platelets adhere to one another and form a hemostatic plug?
  1. Activation
  2. Aggregation
  3. Attachment
  4. Hemostasis
  5. Induction
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2.23) Which prefix means "lungs"?
  1. Entero-
  2. Gastro-
  3. Hepato-
  4. Nephro-
  5. Pulmo-
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2.24) Gestational diabetes is diabetes that occurs during:
  1. childhood
  2. old age
  3. obesity
  4. pregnancy
  5. childbirth
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2.25) The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called:
  1. decimation
  2. disinfection
  3. eradication
  4. sanitation
  5. sterilization
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2.26) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRK
  5. CRP
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2.27) What does the word "macroscopic" mean?
  1. Around the same size as a macrophage
  2. Can only be seen with a microscope
  3. Large enough to be seen with the naked eye
  4. Relatively large compared to most bacteria
  5. Too small to be seen with the naked eye
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2.28) A solution that causes cells to shrink is called:
  1. hypertonic
  2. hypotonic
  3. isotonic
  4. microtonic
  5. polytonic
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2.29) What is a delta check?
  1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to the results from an outside facility
  2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
  3. A spot-check to ensure all staff are following the correct protocols
  4. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
  5. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers
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2.30) What is an aliquot?
  1. A dilution of a sample
  2. A smaller amount taken from an original specimen
  3. A type of container for storing samples
  4. The leftover unusable part of a sample after testing
  5. The minimum amount of sample required for a specific test
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2.31) What is the term for an absence of urine?
  1. Aciduria
  2. Anuria
  3. Oliguria
  4. Polyuria
  5. Pyuria
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2.32) What term means the destruction of red blood cells?
  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hemorrhage
  4. Hemostasis
  5. Hypoxia
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2.33) What is the medical term for red blood cell production?
  1. Erythroception
  2. Erythroconception
  3. Erythronascency
  4. Erythropoiesis
  5. Erythroteritus
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Section 3: Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology

3.1) What is the name of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart?
  1. Bundle of His
  2. Endocardium
  3. Interatrial septum
  4. Pericardium
  5. Ventricle
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3.2) Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?
  1. Aorta
  2. Inferior vena cava
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Pulmonary vein
  5. Superior vena cava
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3.3) Motor neurons are also called __________ neurons.
  1. afferent
  2. association
  3. efferent
  4. nervous
  5. sensory
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3.4) Which of these conditions is regulated by a positive feedback loop?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Blood sugar
  3. Body temperature
  4. Childbirth
  5. Heart rate
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3.5) Which of these is an enzyme?
  1. Glucagon
  2. Glucose
  3. Lipase
  4. Lipid
  5. Nitrogen
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3.6) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis.
  1. fibrin
  2. fibrinogen
  3. prothrombin
  4. thrombin
  5. thromboplastin
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3.7) Which ion is essential for blood clotting?
  1. Calcium
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Iodine
  4. Potassium
  5. Sodium
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3.8) The extrinsic and intrinsic pathways of blood coagulation merge at the activation step of which blood coagulation factor?
  1. Factor IX
  2. Factor VII
  3. Factor X
  4. Factor XII
  5. Factor XIII
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3.9) What is the first step of hemostasis?
  1. Blood coagulation
  2. Homeostasis
  3. Temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug
  4. Vasoconstriction
  5. Vasodilation
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3.10) What are the three types of muscle tissue?
  1. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
  2. Condyloid, hinge and pivot
  3. Internal, external and connectors
  4. Peripheral, central and core
  5. Protractors, retractors and reactors
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3.11) Which hormone promotes sodium retention?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Renin
  5. Vasopressin
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3.12) What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?
  1. Filtration of waste products from the blood
  2. Modulation of sleep patterns
  3. Production of enzymes that digest food
  4. Regulation of blood pressure
  5. Secretion of hormones that maintain blood glucose levels
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3.13) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. glucose
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. urea
  5. water
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3.14) What are the two parts of the adrenal gland?
  1. Diaphragmatic and visceral
  2. Medulla and cortex
  3. Papillary and reticular
  4. Renal and subrenal
  5. posterior and anterior
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3.15) What element is essential for thyroid hormone production?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iodine
  3. Iron
  4. Magnesium
  5. Phosphorous
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3.16) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?
  1. T0
  2. T1
  3. T2
  4. T3
  5. T4
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3.17) Which tubes connect the kidney and the bladder?
  1. Bile ducts
  2. Eustachian tubes
  3. Ureters
  4. Urethras
  5. Vas deferens
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3.18) What gives urine its yellow colour?
  1. Nitrogen
  2. Urea
  3. Uric acid
  4. Urobilin
  5. Urobilinogen
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3.19) What is the glomerulus?
  1. A collecting chamber in the kidney
  2. A tube in the bladder
  3. A tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
  4. Small balls of capillaries in the kidney
  5. The urinary bladder
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3.20) What colour is bilirubin?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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3.21) What is the motile tail of sperm called?
  1. Cilium
  2. Dock
  3. Flagellum
  4. Microtubule
  5. Microvillus
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3.22) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:
  1. alimentary tract
  2. anal canal
  3. esophagus
  4. large intestine
  5. small intestine
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3.23) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Galactose
  2. Glucose
  3. Lactose
  4. Maltose
  5. Sucrose
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3.24) Which enzyme breaks down protein in the stomach?
  1. Amylase
  2. Lipase
  3. Maltase
  4. Pepsin
  5. Trypsin
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3.25) Carbohydrate metabolism begins with which enzyme?
  1. Pancreatic amylase
  2. Lactate dehydrogenase
  3. Salivary amylase
  4. Phosphofructokinase
  5. Pancreatic protease
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3.26) The intestines convert bilirubin into which substance?
  1. Albumin
  2. Biliverdin
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Urea
  5. Urobilinogen
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3.27) What is the first part of the large intestine?
  1. Cecum
  2. Colon
  3. Duodenum
  4. Ileum
  5. Jejunum
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3.28) The brain is located in which cavity?
  1. Abdominal
  2. Cranial
  3. Pericardial
  4. Pleural
  5. Vertebral
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3.29) The body’s thermostat is located in the:
  1. cerebellum
  2. cerebrum
  3. heart
  4. hypothalamus
  5. pituitary gland
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3.30) What is the functional unit of the nervous system?
  1. Alveoli
  2. Follicule
  3. Lobule
  4. Nephron
  5. Neuron
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3.31) Which type of sensory neuron senses touch?
  1. Chemoreceptor
  2. Mechanoreceptor
  3. Nociceptor
  4. Photoreceptor
  5. Thermoreceptor
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3.32) The parasympathetic nervous system:
  1. activates in stressful situations
  2. decreases the metabolic rate
  3. is also known as the enteric nervous system
  4. is part of the somatic nervous system
  5. is under voluntary control
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3.33) The somatic nervous system has which other name?
  1. Central
  2. Parasympathetic
  3. Peripheral
  4. Sympathetic
  5. Voluntary
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3.34) Which of these fluids is associated with the lungs?
  1. Cerebrospinal
  2. Gastric
  3. Peritoneal
  4. Pleural
  5. Synovial
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3.35) Blood returning from the lungs enters which part of the heart?
  1. Left atrium
  2. Left ventricle
  3. Right atrium
  4. Right ventricle
  5. SA node
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3.36) What is the heart's primary pacemaker?
  1. AV node
  2. Bundle branches
  3. Bundle of His
  4. Purkinje fibers
  5. SA node
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3.37) What is the top layer of skin called?
  1. Dermis
  2. Epidermis
  3. Hypodermis
  4. Subcutaneous fat
  5. Subcutis
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3.38) What cellular structure is called the powerhouse of the cell?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Endoplasmic reticulum
  3. Golgi apparatus
  4. Mitochondria
  5. Nucleus
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3.39) The cellular process of transporting materials from within the cell to outside the cell is called:
  1. endocytosis
  2. endometriosis
  3. exocytosis
  4. osmosis
  5. pinocytosis
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3.40) What are the three main monosaccharides in the human diet?
  1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
  2. Sucrose, lactose, and glucose
  3. Lactose, fructose, and galactose
  4. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose
  5. Lactose, maltose, and glucose
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3.41) Which organ system detects changes to the body and directs a response?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Nervous
  5. Respiratory
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3.42) Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Hematopoietic
  3. Lymphatic
  4. Reticuloendothelial
  5. Urinary
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3.43) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Nervous
  4. Respiratory
  5. Skeletal
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3.44) The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Nervous
  4. Reproductive
  5. Reticuloendothelial
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3.45) Which organ balances sodium and potassium in the body?
  1. Bladder
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
  5. Stomach
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3.46) Which organ regulates the level of carbon dioxide in the body?
  1. Bladder
  2. Heart
  3. Kidneys
  4. Liver
  5. Lungs
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3.47) Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together?
  1. DNase
  2. Helicase
  3. Hexonuclease
  4. Ligase
  5. Primase
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3.48) DNA nucleotides consist of:
  1. a carbon base, deoxyribose, and carboxyl
  2. a carbon base, ribose, and deoxyribose
  3. a carbon base, ribose, and phosphate
  4. a nitrogen base, deoxyribose, and phosphate
  5. a nitrogen base, ribose, and carboxyl
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3.49) What enzyme starts the process of DNA transcription?
  1. DNA polymerase
  2. Guanylyltransferase
  3. Peptidyl transferase
  4. RNA polymerase
  5. Reverse transcriptase
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3.50) In DNA, which base pairs with adenine?
  1. Cytosine
  2. Guanine
  3. Thymine
  4. Uracil
  5. Xanthine
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3.51) Which two liver enzymes are transaminases?
  1. AST and ALP
  2. AST and ALT
  3. GGT and ALP
  4. GGT and ALT
  5. GGT and AST
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3.52) Antibodies bind to which part of the antigen?
  1. Effector region
  2. Epitope
  3. Hinge
  4. Plasma membrane
  5. Variable region
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3.53) What is the term for a substance that stimulates the immune system to release antibodies?
  1. Antibody
  2. Antigen
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Interleukin
  5. Prothrombin activator
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3.54) Skin is which type of immunity?
  1. Acquired
  2. Active
  3. Auto
  4. Innate
  5. Passive
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3.55) Which type of immunity produces antibodies in response to antigens?
  1. Active
  2. Community
  3. Innate
  4. Maternal
  5. Passive
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3.56) How many fatty acids does a triglyceride molecule have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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3.57) Which lipoprotein is the largest and least dense?
  1. Chylomicron
  2. HDL
  3. IDL
  4. LDL
  5. VLDL
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3.58) Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?
  1. Bone
  2. Cartilage
  3. Fat
  4. Muscle
  5. Skin
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3.59) Which antibody causes allergies?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
  5. IgM
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3.60) The bleeding time test assesses which cells?
  1. Basophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Platelets
  5. Red blood cells
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3.61) An ABG test measures the amount of:
  1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
  2. blood in a urine sample
  3. occult blood in a stool sample
  4. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
  5. red and white blood cells in venous blood
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3.62) A definitive diagnosis of meningitis requires which test?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
  3. ELISA assay
  4. Stool C&S
  5. Urinalysis
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3.63) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Platelets
  5. Reticulocytes
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3.64) What type of tissue is blood?
  1. Adipose
  2. Connective
  3. Epithelial
  4. Muscular
  5. Nervous
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3.65) Formed elements in blood include which of the following?
  1. Electrolytes
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Plasma
  4. Plasma proteins
  5. White blood cells
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3.66) Bilirubin is a waste product produced by the breakdown of which cells?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Mast cells
  3. Platelets
  4. Red blood cells
  5. White blood cells
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3.67) The matrix of blood is called:
  1. buffy coat
  2. erythrocytes
  3. formed elements
  4. lymphocytes
  5. plasma
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3.68) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
  1. Renin
  2. Secretin
  3. Serotonin
  4. Thrombin
  5. Trypsin
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3.69) What is the lifespan of a red blood cell?
  1. 10–20 days
  2. 20–40 days
  3. 40–80 days
  4. 100–120 days
  5. 300–400 days
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3.70) What is the most efficient organ for the removal of old red blood cells?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Spleen
  5. Thymus
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3.71) Which of these cells is a type of white blood cell?
  1. Basophil
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Platelet
  4. Reticulocyte
  5. Thrombocyte
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3.72) What are T cells?
  1. Blood cells that carry oxygen and carbon dioxide around the body
  2. Cells that make up the thyroid
  3. Cells transport antigens to lymphoid tissue
  4. Immune system cells that produce antibodies in response to an infection
  5. Immune system cells that target specific antigens
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3.73) Which leukocyte increases rapidly in number during allergy attacks and infections of parasitic worms?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Lymphocyte
  4. Monocyte
  5. Neutrophil
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3.74) In which test is a small amount of allergen applied to the surface of the skin and pricked with a lancet?
  1. ELISA assay
  2. Intradermal skin test
  3. Purified protein derivative skin test
  4. Scratch test
  5. Tuberculosis test
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3.75) Which allergy test measures levels of antibodies after the blood serum is exposed to suspected allergens?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Lipoprotein panel
  3. Papanicolaou test
  4. Prothrombin time
  5. RAST test
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Section 4: Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Management

4.1) If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?
  1. 4.8
  2. 5.2
  3. 25
  4. 26
  5. 27
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4.2) Calculate the amount of solute dissolved in 4 dm³ of a 0.2 mol/dm³ solution.
  1. 0.05 mol
  2. 0.8 mol
  3. 3.8 mol
  4. 4.2 mol
  5. 20 mol
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4.3) Calculate the volume of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution that contains 1 mol of solute.
  1. 0.25 dm³
  2. 0.5 dm³
  3. 0.75 dm³
  4. 1 dm³
  5. 2 dm³
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4.4) Which of these is a unit of molarity?
  1. L/mol
  2. dm³/mol
  3. g/mol
  4. mol/L
  5. mol/g
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4.5) What is the mass percent of a solution containing 25 g of glucose in 500 g of solution?
  1. 5%
  2. 10%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%
  5. 25%
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4.6) Which of these is a 1/8 dilution of urine?
  1. 1 part urine and 7 parts water
  2. 1 part urine and 8 parts water
  3. 1 part water and 7 parts urine
  4. 1 part water and 8 parts urine
  5. 1 part water and 9 parts urine
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4.7) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 500 mL of water with 4.5 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?
  1. 0.9 g/L
  2. 8 g/L
  3. 8.9 g/L
  4. 9 g/L
  5. 9.1 g/L
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4.8) A dilution ratio of 1:12 means what part specimen and what part diluent?
  1. 1 part specimen, 12 parts diluent
  2. 1 part specimen, 13 parts diluent
  3. 11 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
  4. 12 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
  5. 13 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
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4.9) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?
  1. 1/128
  2. 1/256
  3. 1/512
  4. 1/1024
  5. 1/2048
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4.10) How many moles are in 25g of a 100 g/mol solution?
  1. 0.25
  2. 4
  3. 75
  4. 125
  5. 500
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4.11) If 100% bleach is diluted 1/5 and then diluted again 1/20, what is the concentration of bleach in the final solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 1.5%
  3. 2%
  4. 2.5%
  5. 3%
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4.12) Given a solute volume of 20 mL and a dilution factor of 3, calculate the volume of solvent needed.
  1. 40 mL
  2. 60 mL
  3. 120 mL
  4. 160 mL
  5. 200 mL
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4.13) You need a litre of 5% concentration of hydrochloric acid but you only have a 40% concentration. How can you make the 5% concentration?
  1. Mix 125 mL of hydrochloric acid with 875 mL of water
  2. Mix 150 mL of hydrochloric acid with 850 mL of water
  3. Mix 175 mL of hydrochloric acid with 825 mL of water
  4. Mix 200 mL of hydrochloric acid with 800 mL of water
  5. Mix 225 mL of hydrochloric acid with 775 mL of water
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4.14) 570 mL of water is added to a 30 mL, 2 M aqueous solution. What is the molarity of the final solution?
  1. 0.1 M
  2. 0.2 M
  3. 0.3 M
  4. 0.4 M
  5. 0.5 M
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4.15) How many grams of a solute is required to produce 1.5 L of a 25%(m/v) solution?
  1. 375 g
  2. 425 g
  3. 500 g
  4. 575 g
  5. 625 g
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4.16) What is the formula for calculating a percent v/v solution?
  1. (solute volume / solvent volume) × 100
  2. (solute volume / solution volume) × 100
  3. (solution volume / solute volume) × 100
  4. (solution volume / solvent volume) × 100
  5. (solvent volume / solute volume) × 100
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4.17) Calculate the %(m/m) of a solution that has 6 g of solute in 80 g of solution.
  1. 7.5%
  2. 8.1%
  3. 12.3%
  4. 13.3%
  5. 15.3%
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4.18) Cubic decimetres are more commonly known as:
  1. grams
  2. litres
  3. metres cubed
  4. moles
  5. squared metres
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4.19) Parts per million (ppm) can also be expressed as:
  1. 10⁶
  2. cm³
  3. dm³
  4. mL/billion
  5. mg/L
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4.20) Which of these is a unit of concentration?
  1. M
  2. dL
  3. mIU
  4. mmol
  5. μg
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4.21) What is the SI unit for volume?
  1. Cubic decimeter
  2. Cubic meter
  3. Kilogram
  4. Litre
  5. Millilitre
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4.22) A one molal solution contains one mole of solute per ________ of solvent.
  1. 1 g
  2. 1 kg
  3. 1 litre
  4. 1 mole
  5. 22.4 litres
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4.23) What is 86°F in Celsius?
  1. 25°C
  2. 30°C
  3. 32°C
  4. 37°C
  5. 45°C
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4.24) A specimen must be transported at body temperature plus or minus 5°F. Which of these temperatures is within that range?
  1. 0°F
  2. 25°F
  3. 50°F
  4. 75°F
  5. 100°F
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4.25) What is 41°C in Fahrenheit?
  1. 74.6°F
  2. 100.0°F
  3. 105.8°F
  4. 110.3°F
  5. 112.9°F
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4.26) What is 3.8371 to two significant digits?
  1. 3.8
  2. 3.83
  3. 3.837
  4. 3.84
  5. 3.9
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4.27) What is 47.839 rounded to one significant figure?
  1. 1
  2. 47
  3. 47.8
  4. 48
  5. 50
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4.28) What is 8,389,910 rounded to the nearest thousand?
  1. 8,000,000
  2. 8,340,000
  3. 8,389,000
  4. 8,390,000
  5. 8,391,000
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4.29) What is 0.7817 rounded to the nearest whole number?
  1. 0.5
  2. 0.8
  3. 1
  4. 1.5
  5. 2
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4.30) How many significant figures are in 38.800?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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4.31) Which of these numbers is twice as large as 2⁴?
  1. 2⁵
  2. 2⁶
  3. 2⁷
  4. 2⁸
  5. 2⁹
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4.32) 14.37 mg is the same as:
  1. 0.01437 g
  2. 0.1437 g
  3. 1.437 g
  4. 143.7 g
  5. 1437 g
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4.33) 1.2 kg is equal to how many grams?
  1. 12 g
  2. 120 g
  3. 1,200 g
  4. 12,000 g
  5. 12,000,000 g
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4.34) If a red blood cell is 8 micrometres in diametre, what is its size in millimetres?
  1. 0.008 mm
  2. 0.8 mm
  3. 80 mm
  4. 8,000 mm
  5. 8,000,000 mm
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4.35) 200 microlitres is how many millilitres?
  1. 0.2 mL
  2. 2 mL
  3. 20 mL
  4. 2,000 mL
  5. 20,000 mL
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4.36) What is the final step in calculating the standard deviation?
  1. Calculate the mean
  2. Calculate the mean of the squared differences
  3. Divide the mean by the number of values in the data set
  4. Find the square root of the variance
  5. For each number, subtract the mean and square the result
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4.37) A control has a mean of 2.8 with a standard deviation of 0.3. This means 68% of the values should fall within a range of:
  1. 0.3−2.8
  2. 2.0−3.1
  3. 2.2−3.4
  4. 2.3−3.3
  5. 2.5−3.1
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4.38) Which Westgard rule is violated if two measurements in the same run have a 4 standard deviation difference?
  1. 1₂ₛ
  2. 1₃ₛ
  3. 2₂ₛ
  4. 4₁ₛ
  5. R₄ₛ
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4.39) Given the following data, how many quality control results are beyond 2 standard deviations from the mean?
QC results 17.1, 15.2, 16.2, 19.9, 21.6
Mean 18.0
Coefficient of variation 5%
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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4.40) The _________ the coefficient of variation, the more _________ the values.
  1. higher, accurate
  2. higher, precise
  3. lower, accurate
  4. lower, precise
  5. lower, spread out
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4.41) Calculate the coefficient of variation for a test that has a mean of 15 and a standard deviation of 3.
  1. 0.2%
  2. 5%
  3. 20%
  4. 50%
  5. 500%
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4.42) The following values were obtained from a quality control test: 0, 0, 2, 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, 5, 7. Calculate the mean of these values.
  1. 3
  2. 3.25
  3. 3.5
  4. 3.75
  5. 3.8
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4.43) Which of these statistics is a measure of central tendency?
  1. Coefficient of variation
  2. Mean
  3. Range
  4. Standard deviation
  5. Variance
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4.44) A lab analyzes blood samples from 50 patents. The number of patients with abnormal results is 45. What is this expressed as a percentage?
  1. 5%
  2. 45%
  3. 90%
  4. 95%
  5. 96%
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4.45) A laboratory has an autoclave rule stating "Do not fill containers more than half full with liquids". If a lab technician has to prepare 220 ml of media for autoclaving, which of these volume containers would comply with the rule?
  1. 100 mL
  2. 200 mL
  3. 300 mL
  4. 400 mL
  5. 500 mL
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4.46) Which method of water purification produces deionized water?
  1. Gas hydrate formation
  2. Heat
  3. Ion exchange
  4. Nanofiltration
  5. Radionics
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4.47) According to the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI), the minimum grade of water for routine clinical laboratory testing is termed:
  1. clinical laboratory reagent water
  2. high-purity water
  3. inert water
  4. resistivity-sensitive purified water
  5. special reagent water
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4.48) A urine culture was plated with a 0.001 mL loop. To report the colony count in colonies per mL, the number of colonies on the plate must be multiplied by:
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 1,000
  4. 2,000
  5. 10,000
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4.49) What is the main goal of quality management systems in laboratories?
  1. To automate laboratory work and eliminate human error
  2. To continuously improve the laboratory processes
  3. To maintain a sterile environment in the laboratory
  4. To reduce the cost of laboratory equipment
  5. To reduce the need for skilled technologists
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4.50) Random errors mainly affect:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal and external validity
  4. internal validity
  5. precision
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4.51) _____________ is when readings become consistently lower or higher over time.
  1. Calibration
  2. Drift
  3. Offset error
  4. Scale factor error
  5. Unpredictability
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4.52) A test suitable for screening purposes should have:
  1. high sensitivity
  2. high specificity
  3. low accuracy
  4. low sensitivity
  5. low specificity
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4.53) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic specificity?
  1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
  2. False positives / (false negatives + true positives)
  3. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
  4. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
  5. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
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4.54) A diabetes screening test incorrectly detects diabetes in 5% of healthy patients who do not have diabetes. This means the:
  1. predictability is 5%
  2. sensitivity is 5%
  3. sensitivity is 95%
  4. specificity is 5%
  5. specificity is 95%
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4.55) A test with low specificity is more likely to give:
  1. a positive predictive value
  2. false negatives
  3. false positives
  4. true negatives
  5. true positives
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4.56) Which grade of chemical purity is also known as pharmaceutical grade?
  1. Analytical research grade
  2. BP grade
  3. Environmental grade
  4. General reagent grade
  5. USP grade
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Section 5: Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection

5.1) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Leave the tourniquet on for at least five minutes before taking her blood
  4. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  5. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
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5.2) Two patients are in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Ask the allergic patient to leave the room
  2. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
  3. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
  4. Proceed as usual
  5. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual
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5.3) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient. However, the inpatient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them, "What is your name?"
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
  5. Take the specimen from any other patient wearing an ID band
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5.4) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Slap the area
  5. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
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5.5) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?
  1. A toe
  2. A vein in the left hand
  3. An earlobe
  4. The left median cubital vein
  5. The right median cubital vein
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5.6) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To provide a wet surface for the needle to stick to
  4. To remove microorganisms
  5. To remove oil and sweat
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5.7) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is in the wrong place
  5. the tourniquet is too tight
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5.8) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Cancel the draw and phone the patient's doctor
  4. Collect it by arterial puncture
  5. Try to draw it one more time
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5.9) What causes reflux during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Keeping the tourniquet on longer than 1 minute
  3. Probing with the needle
  4. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  5. Using the wrong order of draw
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5.10) Which test result is most affected when collected from a crying infant?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Calcium level
  3. Cholesterol
  4. Lead level
  5. White blood cell count
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5.11) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
  5. 9 minutes
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5.12) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?
  1. Electrolyte panel
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Ionized calcium
  4. Lithium levels
  5. pH
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5.13) Which additive do pink top vacutainer tubes contain?
  1. Potassium EDTA
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium heparin
  5. Thrombin
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5.14) Which vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?
  1. Green
  2. Grey
  3. Lavender
  4. Light blue
  5. Red
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5.15) For which vacutainer tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
  5. Yellow
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5.16) Which of these vacutainer additives creates a physical barrier between the liquid part of blood and the cells?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Silica
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Thixotropic gel
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5.17) Which of these vacutainer tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?
  1. Gold
  2. Green
  3. Light blue
  4. PST
  5. Red
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5.18) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red top, green top, light blue top, and lavender top. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Green
  3. Lavender
  4. Light blue
  5. Red
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5.19) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?
  1. Gold
  2. Green
  3. Grey
  4. Lavender
  5. Light blue
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5.20) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-coloured tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
  5. To slow the rate of glycolysis
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5.21) What colour is the EDTA vacutainer tube?
  1. Gold
  2. Gray
  3. Lavender
  4. Light blue
  5. Light green
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5.22) What colour is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
  5. Yellow
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5.23) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Draw the specimen again, this time in a tube without an additive
  2. Empty the tube into the sink
  3. Invert the tube several times
  4. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  5. Shake the tube vigorously
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5.24) What can happen if blood specimen tubes are not adequately mixed with anticoagulant?
  1. Clotting
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. Hypoglycemia
  5. Leukocytosis
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5.25) When a test requires plasma, the blood sample must be collected in a tube containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. buffer solution
  4. chelating agent
  5. clot activator
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5.26) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
  5. sodium polyanethol sulfonate
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5.27) Venipuncture needles are colour-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
  5. use
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5.28) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.
  1. Milliner's
  2. butterfly
  3. multisample
  4. straight
  5. universal
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5.29) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. obese patients
  4. patients with AIDS
  5. stroke victims
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5.30) What is this device?
  1. Microtainer tube
  2. Multi-sample blood collection needle
  3. Portex needle pro
  4. Safety trainer device
  5. Winged infusion set
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5.31) 18-gauge needles are typically used for:
  1. blood donations
  2. routine blood draws
  3. children
  4. small adult veins
  5. the elderly
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5.32) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?
  1. 15-gauge
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 21-gauge
  4. 24-gauge
  5. 27-gauge
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5.33) Which part of a needle attaches to the syringe?
  1. Bevel
  2. Flange
  3. Hub
  4. Lumen
  5. Shaft
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5.34) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A pale-yellow urine specimen
  4. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  5. An icteric bilirubin specimen
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5.35) Which area is swabbed to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Tongue
  5. Trachea
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5.36) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:
  1. a butterfly needle
  2. a sugar solution
  3. a tourniquet
  4. alcohol wipes
  5. ice water
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5.37) Where is the first choice for an arterial puncture?
  1. The antecubital area of both arms
  2. The aorta of the chest
  3. The brachial artery
  4. The femoral artery
  5. The thumb side of the wrist
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5.38) Urine, breath, and _______ are used for ketone testing.
  1. blood
  2. semen
  3. sputum
  4. stool
  5. sweat
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5.39) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
  2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
  3. Continue regardless
  4. Retake both specimens
  5. Try to guess which specimen is which
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5.40) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
  5. The last timed specimen is included
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5.41) A patient needs to collect urine in a container for urinalysis. However, the patient is nervous and says he is having trouble producing the urine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Offer the patient a drink of water and ask him to try again
  3. Take a blood sample instead and make a note on the requisition form
  4. Tell the patient he is not trying hard enough
  5. Tell the patient that collecting urine is easy and that he should not be having problems
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5.42) Which preservative is needed for a sodium 24-hour urine test?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Chlorhexidine
  3. HCl
  4. NaHCO₃
  5. No preservative
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5.43) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. bilirubin
  3. glucose
  4. occult blood
  5. protein
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5.44) A doctor orders a 2-hour PC glucose test. What does PC mean?
  1. After a meal
  2. After an operation
  3. After exercise
  4. Before a meal
  5. Before an operation
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5.45) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cardiac enzymes
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Glucose
  5. Thyroid profile
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5.46) Which additive is preferred for collecting blood culture specimens?
  1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
  2. Potassium heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium heparin
  5. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
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5.47) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?
  1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
  2. Call the police
  3. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
  4. Perform the test anyway
  5. Use a chain of custody form from a specimen of a different patient
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5.48) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "Can you confirm that you are John Smith please?"
  3. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  4. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  5. "What is your name?"
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5.49) Why are capillary puncture sites warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To prevent bruising
  5. To reduce hemoconcentration
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5.50) Which of these tests would be collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Blood banking
  2. Complete blood count
  3. Electrolytes
  4. Glucose
  5. Phosphorus
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5.51) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?
  1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
  2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
  3. The procedure is more difficult and painful than venipuncture
  4. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
  5. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations
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5.52) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?
  1. To avoid puncturing a vein
  2. To avoid puncturing an artery
  3. To prevent bacterial contamination
  4. To prevent bone injury
  5. To prevent excessive bleeding
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5.53) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?
  1. Hemolysis
  2. Hyperbilirubinemia
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. Hyperthyroidism
  5. Hypertriglyceridemia
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5.54) Blood samples for complete blood counts must be transported:
  1. at body temperature
  2. in a Styrofoam-lined box with dry ice
  3. in a vacuum-sealed container at room temperature
  4. in an insulated container with a cold pack
  5. wrapped in metal foil
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5.55) Which of these specimens should be rejected for testing?
  1. A blood glucose sample exposed to light
  2. A blood sample for the cold agglutinin test transported at 37°C
  3. A refrigerated blood sample for TSH testing
  4. A urine creatinine sample transported at room temperature
  5. A urine culture sample transported on ice
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5.56) When a blood sample is left at room temperature, which of these increases?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Glucose
  3. Hemoglobin
  4. Potassium
  5. Uric acid
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5.57) What packaging is used to ship Category A infectious substances?
  1. A610
  2. A630
  3. A640
  4. P620
  5. P650
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Section 6: Laboratory Safety

6.1) In the context of gases, what does LEL stand for?
  1. Lead equivalent level
  2. Least effective level
  3. Lower explosive limit
  4. Lowest effective level
  5. Lowest exposure limit
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6.2) Class B fires occur with:
  1. electrical equipment
  2. flammable liquids
  3. glassware
  4. ordinary combustibles
  5. reactive metals
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6.3) Which fire extinguisher is used on class D fires?
  1. CO₂
  2. Dry powder
  3. Foam
  4. Water
  5. Wet chemical
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6.4) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:
  1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
  2. steps for first aid
  3. steps for performing phlebotomy
  4. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
  5. warning signs of a stroke
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6.5) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?
  1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
  2. Recover, Act, Control, Escape/Evacuate
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
  4. Risk Assessment, Coordination, Escape/Extinguish
  5. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Escape/Extinguish
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6.6) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?
  1. OSHA
  2. OSM
  3. OSMT
  4. SDS
  5. TOSM
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6.7) What is a term for chemicals that burn or destroy tissue?
  1. Carcinogen
  2. Caustic
  3. Exothermic
  4. Oxidizing
  5. Teratogen
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6.8) A spill of liquid nitrogen is dangerous because it can:
  1. burn through the floor
  2. catch fire
  3. cause cancer
  4. deplete oxygen in the air
  5. explode
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6.9) In the context of occupational health and safety, what does STEL stand for?
  1. Short-term exposure limit
  2. Standard task exposure limit
  3. Standard task equipment list
  4. Short-term emergency lighting
  5. Special test electrical load
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6.10) Nitrile gloves:
  1. are a good substitute for latex gloves
  2. are cheaper than latex gloves
  3. are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves
  4. are unsuitable for routine laboratory work
  5. may cause allergic reactions
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6.11) Which of these items is PPE?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Biohazard bag
  3. Countertop splash shield
  4. Latex gloves
  5. Sharps container
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6.12) Which of these should you NOT wear in a lab?
  1. Closed-toe shoes
  2. Contact lenses
  3. Glasses
  4. Hairpin
  5. Shirt
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6.13) What should be your first action if a patient's body fluid splashes into your eyes?
  1. Call 911
  2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
  3. Find a supervisor
  4. Flush the eyes with water
  5. Make an entry in the accident log book
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6.14) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?
  1. Face, arm, speech and time
  2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
  3. First airway, second temperature
  4. First airway, second throat
  5. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness
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6.15) A colleague accidentally spills liquid nitrogen on their hands, resulting in minor frostbite to the fingers. What action should you take?
  1. Immerse his hands in very hot water
  2. Rub his hands vigorously using your own hands
  3. Rub his hands with a towel
  4. Spray his hands with tepid water
  5. Tell him to shake his hands vigorously
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6.16) How many inches deep are chest compressions for CPR?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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6.17) How do you care for someone with a possible neck injury?
  1. Ask the person to try to move their head
  2. Keep the person's head still and do not try to move it
  3. Move the person into a comfortable position
  4. Move the person's head so that it rests above their heart
  5. Sit the person up and give them a glass of water
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6.18) Which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
  1. Confusion
  2. Deep, rapid breaths
  3. Dry skin
  4. Frequent urination
  5. Thirst
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6.19) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Any patient may become violent
  4. Equipment is not sterile
  5. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
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6.20) Which of these infectious agents is spread through the air?
  1. E. coli
  2. HIV
  3. Norovirus
  4. Salmonella
  5. Varicella virus
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6.21) What does this sign mean?
  1. Biohazard
  2. Carcinogen hazard
  3. Do not eat
  4. General warning
  5. Toxic material
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6.22) Which of these chemicals would be the best choice to neutralize a weak acid spill in the laboratory?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Boric acid
  3. Potassium chlorate
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
  5. Sodium hydroxide
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6.23) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?
  1. Make a note in the incident logbook
  2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
  3. Put on PPE
  4. Soak up the spill with paper towels
  5. Wash your hands
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6.24) A lab assistant has spilled acetone on the floor. What should be your first action?
  1. Clean up the spill
  2. Disconnect the power cables from all machines
  3. Move everyone to fresh air
  4. Tell the lab assistant to wash his eyes
  5. Turn off any flames
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6.25) Which disinfectant inactivates prions?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Formaldehyde
  3. Formalin
  4. Hydrogen peroxide
  5. Sodium hydroxide
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6.26) Which of these is an example of a Standard Precaution?
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Keeping chemicals containers closed
  4. Radiation shielding
  5. Safety data sheet
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6.27) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant is for special hazards?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. Silver
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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6.28) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 1 in the red quadrant means the substance:
  1. does not burn
  2. only ignites after considerable preheating
  3. ignites if moderately heated
  4. can be ignited at normal temperatures
  5. is highly flammable
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6.29) On the NFPA hazard diamond, a number 4 in the yellow quadrant means the substance:
  1. reacts violently with water
  2. is highly radioactive
  3. is extremely contagious
  4. readily burns at normal temperatures
  5. readily explodes
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6.30) What type of filter in biological safety cabinets removes airborne particles such as bacteria and viruses?
  1. Charcoal
  2. Electrostatic
  3. Fiberglass
  4. HEPA
  5. UV light
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6.31) On fume hoods where sashes open vertically, you should work with the hood sash in the _____________ position.
  1. closed
  2. highest possible
  3. lowest possible
  4. middle
  5. most comfortable
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6.32) Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided?
  1. Immediately performing first aid to someone who has been exposed to blood
  2. Putting uncapped needles in a tray during procedures
  3. Recapping used needles using both hands
  4. Securing used sharps containers during transport
  5. Using plasticware instead of glass
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6.33) Infectious substances that pose the highest risk of infection during transportation and are capable of causing permanent disability, life-threatening disease, or fatal disease are known as ______________ substances.
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Category C
  4. Type 1B
  5. Type 1C
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6.34) Which category of hazardous goods does this label represent?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Miscellaneous
  3. Oxidizing
  4. Radioactive
  5. Toxic
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Section 7: Laboratory Equipment

7.1) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?
  1. 12 psi at 115°C
  2. 12 psi at 120°C
  3. 12 psi at 151°C
  4. 15 psi at 112°C
  5. 15 psi at 121°C
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7.2) The inside of the autoclave should be washed every week with:
  1. a disinfectant
  2. a mild detergent
  3. an antiseptic
  4. distilled water
  5. saltwater
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7.3) Superheating steam in an autoclave:
  1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
  2. helps to dry out the equipment
  3. increases its sterilizing power
  4. reduces the time needed for complete sterilization
  5. will make the centrifuge spin faster
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7.4) Autoclaves work on which principle?
  1. Cold sterilization
  2. Distilled water
  3. Free-flowing steam
  4. Hot water
  5. Moist heat sterilization
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7.5) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. It can void the manufacturer's warranty
  4. Sterilization may not be complete
  5. The oven may get damaged
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7.6) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?
  1. 100°C
  2. 121°C
  3. 140°C
  4. 160°C
  5. 250°C
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7.7) What is a mortar and pestle used for?
  1. Crushing solids into a powder
  2. Heating substances
  3. Measuring volume
  4. Measuring weight
  5. Scooping up powders
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7.8) Triple beam balances give their readings in what unit?
  1. Grams
  2. Kilograms
  3. Litres
  4. Microlitres
  5. Millilitres
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7.9) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:
  1. analytical balance
  2. desiccator
  3. indicator
  4. pH meter
  5. single pan balance
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7.10) Which water purification method involves boiling water and then letting the steam cool?
  1. Deionization
  2. Distillation
  3. Filtration
  4. Flocculation
  5. Reverse osmosis
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7.11) On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?
  1. Base
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Nosepiece
  4. Stage
  5. Tube
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7.12) Which microscope would be best to examine an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?
  1. Brightfield
  2. Compound
  3. Electron
  4. Fluorescence
  5. Phase contrast
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7.13) What is the total magnification of a microscope if the eyepiece lens is 10x and the objective lens is 20x?
  1. 30x
  2. 200x
  3. 375x
  4. 525x
  5. 1000x
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7.14) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?
  1. Micropipette
  2. Mohr
  3. Pasture
  4. Serological
  5. Volumetric
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7.15) Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Polyethylene
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Polyvinylchloride
  5. Soda-lime
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7.16) Which item of lab equipment is used to guide substances into a container without spilling them?
  1. Beaker
  2. Crucible
  3. Erlenmeyer flask
  4. Funnel
  5. Test tube
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7.17) Which glassware is in this image?
  1. Beaker
  2. Bulb pipette
  3. Erlenmeyer flask
  4. Graduated pipette
  5. Test tube
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7.18) What unit is on graduated cylinders?
  1. Degrees Celcius
  2. Millilitre
  3. Millimetre
  4. Millimetres cubed
  5. Mole
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7.19) Which type of pipette has calibration marks to the tip?
  1. Disposable
  2. Micropipette
  3. SMl
  4. Serological
  5. Volumetric
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7.20) For accurate measurements, a volumetric pipette should be viewed:
  1. above eye level
  2. at an angle
  3. at eye level
  4. below eye level
  5. over the sink
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7.21) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?
  1. Ammeter
  2. Ohmmeter
  3. Rheostat
  4. Tachometer
  5. Voltmeter
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7.22) Which type of microscope is best for viewing crystals in a sample of joint fluid?
  1. Electron
  2. Fluorescent light
  3. Light
  4. Polarized light
  5. Ultraviolet
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Section 8: Histology and Cytology

8.1) What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean?
  1. Cutting tissue into very thin sections
  2. Examination of dead or decaying tissue
  3. Examination of infected tissue
  4. Examination of tissue with a microscope
  5. Examination of tissue with the naked eye
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8.2) Specimens should be placed in a fixative that is ______ times greater than the volume of the tissue.
  1. 10–20
  2. 20–30
  3. 30–40
  4. 40–50
  5. 50–60
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8.3) What is the universal fixative?
  1. Calcium
  2. Copper acetate
  3. Distilled water
  4. Formalin
  5. Picric acid
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8.4) Which chemical is added to formalin as a buffer?
  1. Half-normal saline
  2. Iodine
  3. Methanol
  4. Normal saline
  5. Sodium phosphate
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8.5) Fixatives work best at what pH?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 9
  5. 11
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8.6) What is the purpose of fixation?
  1. To make it easier for the microtome to cut the tissue
  2. To make the tissue transparent
  3. To prevent cell death
  4. To prevent water loss
  5. To stop the tissue from deteriorating
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8.7) Which of these is a compound fixative?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Bouin's fluid
  3. Formaldehyde
  4. Osmium tetroxide
  5. Picric acid
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8.8) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?
  1. To ensure the smears can be cut into thin slices
  2. To make the cell walls permeable so the stain can penetrate
  3. To melt the bacteria so they release their toxins
  4. To prevent cells from being washed off during staining
  5. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
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8.9) Which fixative do Pap stains use?
  1. 10% buffered formalin
  2. 95% ethanol
  3. Carnoy's fluid
  4. Helly's fixative
  5. Methanol
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8.10) Which of these is a fixative?
  1. EDTA
  2. Hydrochloric acid
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Xylene
  5. Zenker's fluid
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8.11) What is tissue fixation?
  1. Dehydrating tissue
  2. Heating tissue in an autoclave
  3. Mounting a tissue specimen to a slide
  4. Preserving tissue in a life-like manner
  5. Removing calcium ions from tissue
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8.12) In histology, what is xylene used for?
  1. Attaching coverslips to slides
  2. Clearing tissue
  3. Dehydrating tissue
  4. Embedding tissue in paraffin wax
  5. Fixing autopsy specimens
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8.13) Which of these is a decalcifying agent?
  1. Calcium acetate
  2. Chloroform
  3. EDTA
  4. Ethanol
  5. Formaldehyde
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8.14) During tissue dehydration, tissue is placed in increasing strengths of which substance?
  1. Chromic acid
  2. Ethanol
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Sodium citrate
  5. Water
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8.15) In tissue processing for paraffin sections, which step comes after dehydration?
  1. Clearing
  2. Decalcification
  3. Embedding
  4. Fixation
  5. Staining
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8.16) Which ethanol strength is used last when dehydrating tissues?
  1. 60%
  2. 70%
  3. 80%
  4. 90%
  5. 100%
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8.17) What is the most common clearing agent?
  1. Aniline oil
  2. Benzene
  3. Cedarwood oil
  4. Oil of wintergreen
  5. Xylene
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8.18) Which clearing agent does NOT make tissues transparent/translucent?
  1. Benzene
  2. Cedarwood oil
  3. Chloroform
  4. Toluene
  5. Xylene
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8.19) Why do clearing agents need to be miscible with alcohol?
  1. So they can dehydrate tissues completely
  2. So they can remove dehydrating agents from tissues
  3. To prevent bacteria from growing in the clearing agent
  4. To prevent damage to the clearing agent
  5. To prevent damage to the tissue
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8.20) After fixation, bone tissue samples must be:
  1. decalcified
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature for at least 24 hours
  4. melted
  5. refrigerated
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8.21) Why are tissues dehydrated before embedding?
  1. Because pathogens require water
  2. Because wax is hydrophobic
  3. To make the tissue transparent
  4. To remove calcium ions from the specimen
  5. To stop autolysis and putrefaction
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8.22) What is used to dehydrate tissue samples?
  1. Alcohol solutions
  2. EDTA
  3. Hot air
  4. Sunlight
  5. Xylene
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8.23) If paraffin is not infiltrated properly, the tissue will:
  1. become soft and crumbly
  2. become too hard to cut properly
  3. freeze
  4. liquefy
  5. lose its colour
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8.24) What does a tissue cassette do?
  1. Cuts tissue after processing
  2. Holds tissue during processing
  3. Keeps tissue refrigerated
  4. Labels slides
  5. Records the structures in a tissue specimen onto a computer
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8.25) Which of these decalcifying agents decalcifies tissues via chelation?
  1. EDTA
  2. Formic acid
  3. Hydrochloric acid
  4. Nitric acid
  5. Picric acid
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8.26) Which of these factors would increase the tissue processing time for a histology specimen?
  1. Dense tissue
  2. Few pieces of tissue in the tissue cassette
  3. High temperature
  4. Porous tissue
  5. Small specimen size
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8.27) A freezing microtome is also known as a:
  1. cryostat
  2. hand microtome
  3. icestat
  4. sledge microtome
  5. ultramicrotome
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8.28) What is the most common type of microtome in laboratories?
  1. Cryostat
  2. Hand microtome
  3. Rotary microtome
  4. Sledge microtome
  5. Ultramicrotome
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8.29) Plastic sections used in transmission electron microscopy are typically cut how thick?
  1. 60–100 nm
  2. 60–100 μm
  3. 6–10 μm
  4. 6–10 mm
  5. 6–10 cm
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8.30) Microtomes can cut tissue at thicknesses varying from 2 to 50 ________
  1. nanometres
  2. micrometres
  3. millimetres
  4. centimetres
  5. metres
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8.31) Why are tissues embedded in paraffin wax?
  1. So they can be cut into sections
  2. So they can be fixed in formalin
  3. To decalcify them
  4. To kill microorganisms
  5. To stain them
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8.32) Tissues are sectioned using a:
  1. coverslipper
  2. microtome
  3. paraffin dispenser
  4. tissue embedding centre
  5. tissue processor
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8.33) Microtome blades should generally be angled at around:
  1. 5 degrees
  2. 15 degrees
  3. 25 degrees
  4. 35 degrees
  5. 45 degrees
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8.34) What does the H&E staining method use as a dewaxing agent?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Eosin
  3. Formalin
  4. Hematoxylin
  5. Xylene
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8.35) Identify the false statement about the preparation of reticulocyte smears.
  1. Reticulocyte smears are used to determine the number of white blood cells in a sample
  2. The dyes used can be new methylene blue or brilliant cresyl blue
  3. The stain and the cells must be left to react for 15 minutes before making the smear
  4. The stain is dissolved in saline
  5. The staining technique is called supravital staining
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8.36) In which stage of histology are mordants used?
  1. Decalcification
  2. Dehydration
  3. Fixation
  4. Sectioning
  5. Staining
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8.37) What are the two dyes in the Romanowsky stain?
  1. Auramine O and rhodamine B
  2. Carbol fuchsin and methylene blue
  3. Crystal violet and carbol fuchsin
  4. Crystal violet and safranin
  5. Methylene blue and eosin
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8.38) Hematoxylin ripens into:
  1. cyanmethemoglobin
  2. hematein
  3. hematone
  4. hematurg
  5. hemoglobin
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8.39) The Pap stain stains keratin which colour?
  1. Black
  2. Blue
  3. Green
  4. Orange
  5. Purple
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8.40) Which of these could cause stain precipitation?
  1. Excessive buffer
  2. Excessive humidity in the air
  3. Excessive rinsing after applying the stain
  4. Insufficient staining time
  5. Use of aged staining solutions
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Section 9: Clinical Microbiology

9.1) Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain identify?
  1. Acid-fast
  2. Facultative anaerobic
  3. Flagellated
  4. Gram-negative
  5. Spore-forming
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9.2) When giving specimens for culture and sensitivity, the patient should:
  1. be off antibiotics for several days before collection
  2. come to the lab first thing in the morning
  3. eat a diet high in sugar before the test
  4. fast for 12 to 14 hours
  5. have all x-rays done before collection
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9.3) In vivo testing is useful for diagnosing:
  1. HIV
  2. Hepatitis A
  3. Rubella virus
  4. tuberculosis
  5. whopping cough
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9.4) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?
  1. To ensure an adequate flow of air
  2. To maximize spore formation
  3. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
  4. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
  5. To stop the specimen from escaping
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9.5) What is the purpose of the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion test?
  1. To assess the metabolic properties of bacteria for identification purposes
  2. To detect microbial antigens in clinical samples
  3. To detect random mutations in microbial DNA
  4. To determine the sensitivity of bacteria to various antibiotics
  5. To diagnose viral infections
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9.6) In a patient with HIV, which of these samples would have the highest concentration of the virus?
  1. Feces
  2. Saliva
  3. Serum
  4. Sweat
  5. Urine
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9.7) What is the term for round bacteria that grow in clusters?
  1. Bacillococci
  2. Diplococci
  3. Spirochetes
  4. Staphylococci
  5. Streptococci
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9.8) All bacteria:
  1. are eukaryotic
  2. are single-celled
  3. have a nuclear membrane
  4. have chloroplast
  5. have mitochondria
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9.9) Mycobacteria are typically grown at which temperature?
  1. 22°C
  2. 37°C
  3. 50°C
  4. 65°C
  5. 72°C
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9.10) What is the term for bacteria that produce pigment regardless of whether they are grown in the dark or the light?
  1. Magnetotactic
  2. Scotochromogenic
  3. Stromatolitic
  4. Syntrophic photosynthetic
  5. Xerotrophic
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9.11) Staphylococcus aureus grows best in which type of environment?
  1. Aerobic
  2. Anaerobic
  3. Highly acidic
  4. Highly alkaline
  5. Microaerobic
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9.12) Streptococci are arranged in which shape?
  1. Boxes
  2. Chains
  3. Clusters
  4. Octets
  5. Tetrads
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9.13) The cell wall of bacteria is made predominantly of which substance?
  1. Cellulose
  2. Chitin
  3. Disaccharides
  4. Peptidoglycan
  5. Starch
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9.14) Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. What is this capsule called?
  1. Cyst
  2. Scab
  3. Sheath
  4. Spore
  5. Tunic
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9.15) The time interval from exposure to an infectious agent to the onset of symptoms is called the __________ period.
  1. acute
  2. expectancy
  3. incubation
  4. morbidity
  5. waiting
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9.16) Which of these will NOT grow on agar plates?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Mould
  4. Protozoa
  5. Viruses
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9.17) Fildes agar is made by adding which substance to nutrient agar?
  1. 2% alkaline glutaraldehyde
  2. Cytochrome oxidase
  3. Egg yolk
  4. Peptic digest of blood
  5. Skirrow's campylobacter selective media
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9.18) What are the key ingredients in MacConkey agar?
  1. Lactose, bile salts, crystal violet dye, and neutral red
  2. Lactose, bile salts, salicin, and bromothymol blue
  3. Lactose, eosin Y, and methylene blue
  4. Mannitol, salt
  5. Starch, beef infusion, acid hydrolysate of casein
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9.19) In an agar slant tube, what is the top, angled region of the agar called?
  1. Cap
  2. Cork
  3. Crest
  4. Head
  5. Slant
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9.20) On CLED agar, lactose-positive bacteria form what colonies of what colour?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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9.21) What indicator is used in CLED agar?
  1. Acid fuchsin
  2. Bromothymol blue
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Phenol red
  5. Phenolphthalein
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9.22) What is the purpose of the freeze-and-thaw cycles in the preparation of laked blood?
  1. To destroy crystals
  2. To filter out the dissolved materials
  3. To kill pathogenic bacteria
  4. To lyse the red blood cells
  5. To reduce the density of the blood
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9.23) What is the most commonly used egg-based culture media?
  1. Hektoen Enteric
  2. Levenstein-Johnson
  3. MacConkey
  4. Salmonella-Shigella
  5. Thayer Martin
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9.24) A lab technician performs Gram staining of a urine specimen. Under a microscope, the lab technician sees gram-negative cocci in chains. What mistake did the lab technician make?
  1. Forgot the iodine treatment step
  2. Forgot to bring the urine specimen to room temperature
  3. Performed the safranin counterstain too quickly
  4. Stirred the urine specimen excessively
  5. Used too much crystal violet
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9.25) What is the Gram stain appearance of E. coli?
  1. Gram-negative coccus
  2. Gram-negative rod
  3. Gram-positive rod
  4. Gram-positive rod
  5. Gram-positive tetrad
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9.26) In Gram staining, what will happen if the decolourizer is not left on long enough?
  1. All organisms will appear colourless
  2. All organisms will appear gram-negative
  3. All organisms will appear gram-positive
  4. Gram-positive organisms will appear gram-negative and vice versa
  5. No cells will appear on the slide
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9.27) Which of these is a step in Gram staining?
  1. Add three drops of carbolfuchsin to the specimen
  2. Chill the specimen on a refrigerated plate
  3. Cover the specimen with iodine for 1 minute
  4. Infiltrate the specimen with paraffin wax
  5. Soak the specimen in an organic solvent such as xylene
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9.28) In Gram staining, which of these situations can cause gram-negative cells to appear colourless?
  1. Omission of the counterstain step
  2. Omission of the iodine treatment step
  3. Omission of the primary stain step
  4. Over-decolourizing
  5. Under-decolourizing
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9.29) What colour are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?
  1. Green
  2. Orange
  3. Purple
  4. Red
  5. Yellow
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9.30) What is the term for a rod-shaped microorganism that appears red after Gram staining?
  1. Gram-negative bacillus
  2. Gram-negative cocci
  3. Gram-positive bacillus
  4. Gram-positive cocci
  5. Gram-positive spirillum
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9.31) What are the three common types of acid-fast staining?
  1. Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort
  2. Nigrosin negative, methylene blue exclusion, and carbol fuchsin
  3. Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck
  4. Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite
  5. Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine
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9.32) What unique property allows acid-fast bacteria to retain the acid-fast stain when subjected to acid-alcohol?
  1. Lipopolysaccharide outer layer
  2. The ability to ferment lactose
  3. The ability to produce coagulase
  4. Thick peptidoglycan layer
  5. Waxy, lipid-rich cell wall
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9.33) The acid-fast stain is most commonly used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Meningococcal disease
  2. Tuberculosis
  3. AIDS
  4. Strep throat
  5. Pertussis
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9.34) In acid-fast staining, what colour are non-acid fast bacteria?
  1. Blue
  2. Orange
  3. Pink
  4. Red
  5. Yellow
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9.35) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what would happen if you forget to sterilize your loop in between each quadrant streak?
  1. A lack of individual colonies
  2. Growth in only the first quadrant
  3. Growth in quadrants 3 and 4 but no growth in quadrants 1 and 2
  4. Large individual colonies in quadrant 1
  5. No growth in any quadrant
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9.36) A lab technician streaks an agar plate with a pure culture of bacteria. However, the next day, the lab technician observes a contaminant growing along the streak lines of the plate. Which of these could be the cause of the contamination?
  1. The agar medium was contaminated
  2. The culture was contaminated
  3. The incubator's temperature was incorrectly set
  4. The loop was flamed too many times
  5. The plate was exposed to airborne contaminants
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9.37) Where should you label a Petri plate?
  1. Inside the plate
  2. On the bottom of the plate
  3. On the inside of the lid
  4. On the side of the lid
  5. On the top of the lid
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9.38) Which of these agar plates has been streaked correctly?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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9.39) What type of atmosphere is required for strict anaerobic growth?
  1. Elevated carbon dioxide
  2. No carbon dioxide
  3. No oxygen
  4. Reduced carbon dioxide
  5. Reduced oxygen
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9.40) What is the term for an organism that can grow in the presence of oxygen but does not perform aerobic respiration?
  1. Aerotolerant aerobe
  2. Aerotolerant anaerobe
  3. Facultative aerobe
  4. Facultative anaerobe
  5. Obligate anaerobe
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9.41) A doctor orders a blood smear for malaria. After collecting an EDTA blood specimen from the patient, the lab technician should prepare the blood smear within:
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
  5. 24 hours
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Section 10: Clinical Chemistry

10.1) What does the specific gravity of urine measure?
  1. Bacterial contaminate
  2. The concentration of particles
  3. The level of nitrates
  4. The pH of urine
  5. The weight of the urine
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10.2) What is the term for a sodium level of 130 mmol/L?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Hypernatremia
  4. Hypokalemia
  5. Hyponatremia
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10.3) Which abnormal urine condition is associated with diabetes?
  1. Anuria
  2. Dysuria
  3. Oliguria
  4. Polyuria
  5. Pyuria
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10.4) Low-carbohydrate diets may cause an increased amount of _____________ in urine.
  1. blood
  2. erythrocytes
  3. ketones
  4. leukocytes
  5. urobilinogen
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10.5) Patients with symptoms of thirst and frequent urination should receive which of the following tests?
  1. Basic metabolic panel
  2. Fasting blood glucose
  3. Lipid panel
  4. Prothrombin time
  5. Tissue transglutaminase IgA test
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10.6) The presence of ten or more white blood cells in a cubic millimetre of urine is called:
  1. ischuria
  2. oliguria
  3. polyuria
  4. pyuria
  5. uraturia
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10.7) Which test requires the patient to avoid foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?
  1. 5-H1AA urine test
  2. 72- hour fecal fat test
  3. Glucose tolerance test
  4. Lipid profile
  5. Stool culture and sensitivity
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10.8) The alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test requires which type of sample?
  1. Blood
  2. Cerebrospinal fluid
  3. Feces
  4. Sputum
  5. Urine
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10.9) What does sulfosalicylic acid detect in urine?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Glucose
  3. Ketones
  4. Protein
  5. White blood cells
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10.10) Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup?
  1. 24-hour
  2. Catheter
  3. Clean-catch
  4. Random
  5. Timed
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10.11) What is the glycosylated hemoglobin test also known as?
  1. Fasting plasma glucose test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. HbA1c test
  4. Hematocrit test
  5. Hemoglobin electrophoresis test
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10.12) A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:
  1. a blood sample and a urine sample
  2. one blood sample
  3. one urine sample
  4. two or more blood samples
  5. two or more urine samples
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10.13) If a patient vomits halfway through an oral glucose tolerance test, what should you do?
  1. Stop the test because the test is now invalid
  2. Restart the test with a second dose of glucose
  3. Ask the patient if they would like to continue the test
  4. Allow the patient to rest for a few minutes before continuing with the test
  5. Adjust the results for the vomit
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10.14) How much glucose is given to a non-pregnant patient for an oral glucose tolerance test?
  1. 5 g
  2. 25 g
  3. 75 g
  4. 150 g
  5. 300 g
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10.15) According to WHO guidelines for the oral glucose tolerance test, the patient should drink the dose of glucose within:
  1. 5 minutes
  2. 10 minutes
  3. 20 minutes
  4. 30 minutes
  5. 1 hour
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10.16) Blood specimens for sodium testing must be transported at which temperature?
  1. –20°C
  2. 1–6°C
  3. 20–24°C
  4. 37–40°C
  5. 55°C
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10.17) Which test result becomes falsely increased by removing the stopper from a blood specimen?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Glucose
  3. Iron
  4. pCO2
  5. pH
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10.18) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. centrifuged
  2. discarded
  3. frozen
  4. left at room temperature
  5. refrigerated
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10.19) Cloudy white urine is a sign of:
  1. a urinary tract infection
  2. dehydration
  3. excessive consumption of vitamin B6
  4. jaundice
  5. liver disease
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10.20) During a macroscopic urinalysis, which of these is assessed?
  1. Acidity
  2. Colour
  3. Glucose levels
  4. Ketones
  5. Specific gravity
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10.21) What is the reference range for glucose in cerebrospinal fluid?
  1. 2.8–4.4 mmol/L
  2. 4.4–5.5 mmol/L
  3. 5.8–6.9 mmol/L
  4. 6.9–8.3 mmol/L
  5. 8.3–10.0 mmol/L
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10.22) What is the normal range for the specific gravity of urine?
  1. 0.905–0.930
  2. 0.930–0.955
  3. 0.955–0.980
  4. 0.980–1.005
  5. 1.005–1.030
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10.23) What is the normal range for AST in adult blood?
  1. 1–5 units/L
  2. 10–40 units/L
  3. 63–90 units/L
  4. 79–102 units/L
  5. 116–125 units/L
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10.24) Which of these lipid profile results is abnormal for a man?
  1. Total cholesterol: 2.6 mmol/L
  2. LDL: 8.2 mmol/L
  3. HDL: 1.7 mmol/L
  4. Triglycerides: 0.8 mmol/L
  5. HDL: 2.0 mmol/L
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10.25) What is the optimal LDL cholesterol level in adults?
  1. <3 mmol/L
  2. 3 to 5 mmol/L
  3. 5 to 8 mmol/L
  4. 8 to 10 mmol/L
  5. >10 mmol/L
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10.26) What is the normal range for ALT in adult blood?
  1. 7–56 units/L
  2. 35–79 units/L
  3. 74–100 units/L
  4. 78–107 units/L
  5. 126–135 units/L
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10.27) What is the normal range for serum hCG levels in non-pregnant women?
  1. <5 mIU/mL
  2. 5 to 10 mIU/mL
  3. 10 to 20 mIU/mL
  4. 20 to 30 mIU/mL
  5. >40 mIU/mL
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10.28) The normal value for glomerular filtration rate is _____ or above.
  1. 30
  2. 90
  3. 150
  4. 210
  5. 260
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10.29) How many times a day does a healthy person urinate?
  1. 1 to 7 times
  2. 4 to 10 times
  3. 7 to 13 times
  4. 10 to 16 times
  5. 13 to 19 times
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10.30) An arterial blood specimen submitted for blood gas analysis was obtained at 8:30 AM but was not received in the laboratory until 11:00 AM. What should the laboratory do?
  1. Centrifuge the sample before performing the test
  2. Perform the test ASAP
  3. Perform the test only if the specimen was submitted in ice water
  4. Request a new sample
  5. Request a venous blood specimen
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10.31) Which of these tests indicates the health of the kidneys?
  1. ALT
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Creatinine clearance
  4. TSH
  5. Troponin T
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10.32) Which organ does the bile acid test assess?
  1. Bladder
  2. Brain
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
  5. Stomach
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10.33) Which of these cholesterol results indicates an increased risk for cardiovascular disease?
  1. Low HDL and high LDL
  2. Low LDL and high HDL
  3. Low LDL and low VLDL
  4. Low VLDL and high HDL
  5. Low chylomicrons and high HDL
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10.34) Which samples are taken during a glucagon stimulation test?
  1. Glucagon, cortisol, and epinephrine
  2. Glucagon, insulin, and epinephrine
  3. Glucagon, somatostatin, and epinephrine
  4. Glucose, cortisol, and growth hormone
  5. Glucose, insulin, and epinephrine
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10.35) Elevation of which isoenzyme is typical of muscle disease?
  1. ALP
  2. ALT
  3. CK-BB
  4. CK-MB
  5. CK-MM
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10.36) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T3 test
  5. Total T4 test
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10.37) When is a blood sample drawn for determination of the trough level of a drug?
  1. 2-3 hours after drug administration
  2. 24-48 hours after drug administration
  3. After the first urine excretion
  4. Just after drug administration
  5. Just before drug administration
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10.38) A woman has symptoms of weakness and fatigue. The results of a serum electrolyte test are as follows:
Electrolyte Result
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Potassium 4.3 mmol/L
Chloride 65 mmol/L
Magnesium 0.95 mmol/L
Phosphate 1.3 mmol/L
Which of the results is abnormal?
  1. Sodium
  2. Potassium
  3. Chloride
  4. Magnesium
  5. Phosphate
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Section 11: Clinical Hematology

11.1) In hematology, what does HCT stand for?
  1. Hematocrit
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Hemoglobin colour testing
  4. High cell total
  5. High cell turbidity
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11.2) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient was taking an anticoagulant medication?
  1. Prothrombin time
  2. Red blood cell count
  3. White blood cell count
  4. Hematocrit
  5. Hemoglobin concentration
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11.3) Which of these patients has anemia?
HCT RBC (x10¹²/L) Hemoglobin (g/dL)
Patient 1 50% 4.6 14.1
Patient 2 41% 6.2 16.8
Patient 3 38% 4.8 10.6
Patient 4 42% 7.2 13.5
  1. Patient 1
  2. Patient 2
  3. Patient 3
  4. Patient 4
  5. All patients are healthy
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11.4) What does an antiglycolytic agent do?
  1. Enhance coagulation
  2. Inhibit thrombin formation
  3. Prevent a specimen from clotting
  4. Prevent glucose from becoming glycogen
  5. Prevent the breakdown of glucose
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11.5) Which anticoagulant works by inactivating thrombin?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium citrate
  5. Sodium fluoride
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11.6) What is the ESR?
  1. How quickly red blood cells settle in whole blood
  2. The average size of red blood cells
  3. The concentration of C-reactive protein in a blood sample
  4. The proportion of blood that is made up of cells
  5. The ratio of erythrocytes to leukocytes
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11.7) Which of these tests is included in a complete blood count?
  1. ALP
  2. CRP
  3. ESR
  4. Hb
  5. PT
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11.8) When using a standard white blood cell pipette for determining a white blood cell count, you draw the blood to the 0.5 mark. You should then draw the diluting fluid to which mark?
  1. 1.0
  2. 1.5
  3. 11
  4. 101
  5. 121
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11.9) The icterus index is a measure of which colour of serum?
  1. Green
  2. Orange
  3. Red
  4. White
  5. Yellow
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11.10) Platelet satellitism can occur in blood samples containing which additive?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
  5. Sodium oxalate
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11.11) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 15
  5. 30
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11.12) When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle?
  1. 15 degrees
  2. 30 degrees
  3. 45 degrees
  4. 60 degrees
  5. 90 degrees
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11.13) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using a dirty slide
  5. Using transfused blood
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11.14) A woman has the following blood test results:
Test Result
Red cell count 7.8 × 10¹²/L
White cell count 7.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets 242 × 10⁹/L
What term applies to these results?
  1. Hypererythrocytosis
  2. Leukocytosis
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukorrhea
  5. Polycythemia
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11.15) A man has the following blood test results:
Test Result
Red cell count 5.4 × 10¹²/L
White cell count 6.5 × 10⁹/L
Platelets 660 × 10⁹/L
Which term applies to these results?
  1. Anemia
  2. Neutropenia
  3. Polycythemia
  4. Thrombocytopenia
  5. Thrombocytosis
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11.16) Calculate the international normalised ratio (INR) from the following information.
Control PT 11.0 seconds
Patient's PT 16.5 seconds
International Sensitivity Index 1
  1. 0.5
  2. 1.5
  3. 2.5
  4. 3.5
  5. 4.5
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11.17) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:
  1. ESR
  2. FBS
  3. Hct
  4. Hgb
  5. PT
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11.18) Which red blood cell index is a measure of the average size of red blood cells?
  1. MCH
  2. MCHC
  3. MCV
  4. RBC
  5. RDW
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11.19) Which red blood cell index is the amount of hemoglobin in a decilitre of packed red blood cells?
  1. MCH
  2. MCHC
  3. MCV
  4. RBC
  5. RDW
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11.20) In healthy individuals, the hematocrit is roughly equal to three times the:
  1. blood pressure
  2. hemoglobin
  3. mean corpuscular volume
  4. red blood cell count
  5. white blood cell count
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11.21) What is the formula for calculating mean corpuscular volume (MCV)?
  1. (1 SD of the MCV / MCV) × 10
  2. (HGB / Hct) × 10
  3. (HGB / RBC) × 10
  4. (Hct / RBC) × 10
  5. RBC/10 × MCV
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11.22) In hematology, what does RDW stand for?
  1. Real donor width
  2. Red blood cell distribution width
  3. Red direct width
  4. Red draw white
  5. Reticulocyte distribution width
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11.23) Which microscope objective is used first when examining a stained blood film?
  1. 10x
  2. 40x
  3. 50x
  4. 70x
  5. 100x oil immersion
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11.24) Which of these tests is centrifuged?
  1. Blood gas
  2. Blood smear
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  5. Hematocrit
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11.25) Where are urine reagent strips stored?
  1. In a cool, dry place
  2. In a jar, exposed to air
  3. In an incubator (37°C)
  4. In the freezer
  5. In the refrigerator
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11.26) At what temperature are cold agglutinin samples stored before testing?
  1. –18°C
  2. –6°C
  3. 6°C
  4. 20°C
  5. 37°C
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11.27) Serum specimens for vitamin K should be:
  1. kept at 37–40°C
  2. kept away from light
  3. kept frozen
  4. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
  5. mixed with glass beads
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11.28) A urine specimen arrives at the laboratory five hours after it was collected. To be acceptable for culture testing, the specimen must have been:
  1. kept at room temperature
  2. kept frozen
  3. kept refrigerated
  4. mixed with a preservative additive
  5. mixed with an antiglycolytic agent
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11.29) What is the reference range for serum albumin?
  1. 35–55 g/L
  2. 45–65 g/L
  3. 65–80 g/L
  4. 80–95 g/L
  5. 95–110 g/L
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11.30) Which of these is a normal RBC result for men?
  1. 5.6 × 10⁶ cells/μL
  2. 6.9 × 10⁶ cells/μL
  3. 7.5 × 10⁶ cells/μL
  4. 8.3 × 10⁶ cells/μL
  5. 9.8 × 10⁶ cells/μL
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11.31) What is the normal hemoglobin range for women?
  1. 12–15 g/dL
  2. 15–18 g/dL
  3. 16–20 g/dL
  4. 18–22 g/dL
  5. 20–24 g/dL
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11.32) What is the normal range for the prothrombin time (PT) test?
  1. 11–14 seconds
  2. 15–18 seconds
  3. 20–23 seconds
  4. 25–28 seconds
  5. 31–35 seconds
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11.33) In high levels, which vitamin causes false negative results on the fecal occult blood test?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B6
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Vitamin C
  5. Vitamin D
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11.34) The HIV antigen test detects which antigen?
  1. CA-125
  2. CA15-3
  3. ESAT-6
  4. HBsAg
  5. p24
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Section 12: Transfusion Medicine

12.1) A man is genotype AO and a woman is genotype BO. What blood types could their children have?
  1. A only
  2. B only
  3. A and B
  4. A, B, and O
  5. A, B, AB, and O
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12.2) How many millilitres are in 10 cc of blood?
  1. 1
  2. 7.8
  3. 9.2
  4. 10
  5. 12
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12.3) A patient needs 4 units of blood for a transfusion. Roughly how much is this in millilitres?
  1. 350 mL
  2. 880 mL
  3. 1,200 mL
  4. 1,240 mL
  5. 1,800 mL
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12.4) What is the purpose of the rosette test?
  1. To detect fetomaternal hemorrhage in postpartum women
  2. To differentiate between the different possible types of anemia
  3. To screen for red blood cell antibodies in donated blood
  4. To screen for the West Nile virus in donated blood
  5. To test for blood group incompatibility before hematopoietic stem cell transplantation
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12.5) A type B− patient can receive a blood transfusion from which two blood types?
  1. B− and AB−
  2. B− and AB−
  3. B− and B+
  4. B− and O−
  5. O− and O+
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12.6) An O+ patient needs an emergency transfusion but the laboratory does not have any O+ blood available. Which type of blood could be given to the patient instead?
  1. AB+
  2. AB−
  3. B+
  4. B−
  5. O−
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12.7) What is the second-most important blood group system for blood transfusions?
  1. Kell
  2. Lutheran
  3. MNS
  4. P
  5. Rh
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12.8) Which blood type is most commonly used for intrauterine transfusions?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. AB−
  4. O+
  5. O−
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12.9) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:
  1. leukoextraction
  2. leukorebation
  3. leukoreduction
  4. leukoremoval
  5. leukotransference
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12.10) An apheresis donation is a donation:
  1. from a donor on a dialysis machine
  2. performed under general anesthetic
  3. taken from a leg vein instead of an arm vein
  4. where the blood is immediately transfused into the recipient patient
  5. where the donor gives specific blood components
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12.11) A unit of donated blood is roughly equivalent to how many pints?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
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12.12) Blood donations are routinely tested for which of these diseases?
  1. Diabetes
  2. HSV-1
  3. HTLV-I
  4. Hepatitis A
  5. Hepatitis D
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12.13) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?
  1. A donor with a bleeding arm should keep her arm raised for at least 30 minutes
  2. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
  3. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  4. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
  5. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes
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12.14) Which cryoprotective agent is most commonly used for red blood cells in blood banking?
  1. Ethylene
  2. Glycerol
  3. Mannitol
  4. Sorbitol
  5. Thiol
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12.15) For how long can donated platelets be stored at room temperature?
  1. 30 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 4 hours
  4. 24 hours
  5. 5 days
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12.16) What is the 4-hour rule in blood banking?
  1. Blood donors should not be kept waiting in the waiting room for more than 4 hours
  2. Blood donors should refrain from exercise four hours after donating blood
  3. Red blood cell units left out of refrigeration for more than 4 hours cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  4. Red blood cell units suspected of bacterial contamination should be left for 4 hours
  5. Transfusions of red blood cell units should be completed within 4 hours of their removal from refrigeration
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12.17) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:
  1. has been refrigerated
  2. has clots
  3. has white particulate matter
  4. is icteric
  5. is lipemic
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12.18) Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?
  1. Blood clots
  2. Bright cherry red colour
  3. Excessive and unusual air bubbles
  4. Growth of blue-green algae
  5. Increased opacity
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12.19) What temperature is thawed plasma stored at?
  1. −20°C or colder
  2. −6°C to −18°C
  3. 1 to 6°C
  4. 20 to 24°C
  5. 37 to 40°C
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12.20) Which of these situations could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. A+ mother and O− fetus
  2. AB+ mother and O− fetus
  3. AB− mother and O− fetus
  4. O+ mother and A− fetus
  5. O− mother and O+ fetus
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12.21) When performing an antiglobulin test, why must the lab technician wash the red blood cells before adding the AHG reagent?
  1. To ensure the antibodies bind to the antigens
  2. To neutralize excess AHG reagent
  3. To remove hemolyzed cells
  4. To remove pathogens such as bacteria and viruses
  5. To remove unbound serum globulins
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12.22) Why is incubation omitted in the direct antiglobulin test?
  1. Incubation will cause hemolysis
  2. Incubation would break apart the antibody-antigen complexes
  3. The antigen-antibody complex has already formed in vivo
  4. The direct antiglobulin test is used if there is not enough time to perform the indirect test
  5. The direct antiglobulin test only detects IgM antibodies
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12.23) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?
  1. RhC
  2. Rhc
  3. RhD
  4. RhE
  5. Rhe
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12.24) The ABO system of blood groups is based on the presence of which proteins on red blood cells?
  1. Agglutinins
  2. Antibodies
  3. Antigens
  4. Enzymes
  5. Immunoglobulins
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12.25) Which blood type is the universal recipient?
  1. A+
  2. AB+
  3. B+
  4. O+
  5. O−
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12.26) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB+
  2. AB–
  3. A–
  4. B+
  5. O–
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12.27) A person with type AB blood has:
  1. A and B antibodies
  2. A and B antigens
  3. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
  4. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
  5. no antigens
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12.28) Where is blood generally stored?
  1. In a biological safety cabinet
  2. In a dark cupboard at room temperature
  3. In a water bath
  4. In the freezer
  5. In the refrigerator
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Section 13: Electrocardiograms

13.1) An arrhythmia is a heart rhythm that is:
  1. abnormal
  2. non-existent
  3. normal
  4. too fast
  5. too slow
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13.2) Systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure when which part of the heart contracts?
  1. Arteries
  2. Atria
  3. Valves
  4. Veins
  5. Ventricles
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13.3) Which cardiac testing procedure requires patients to keep a diary of their daily activities?
  1. Cardiac CT scan
  2. Cardiac MRI
  3. Cardiac stress test
  4. Holter monitor
  5. Nuclear stress test
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13.4) Which of the following information should be included in an ECG report?
  1. The patient's insurance details
  2. The patient's weight
  3. The room number where the ECG was performed
  4. The time of the recording
  5. Whether the patient was fasting
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13.5) How many leads are in a standard ECG?
  1. 10
  2. 12
  3. 14
  4. 16
  5. 18
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13.6) During ECG placement, to which part of the body is the ground lead attached?
  1. Chest
  2. Left arm
  3. Leg leg
  4. Right arm
  5. Right leg
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13.7) You are about to perform an ECG but the patient is worried the ECG will be painful. What should you tell the patient?
  1. "Don't worry as you will only feel a small amount of pain"
  2. "I can ask the doctor to give you an anesthetic if you like"
  3. "There is no need to worry as the ECG doesn't hurt"
  4. "You may feel a moderate amount of pain but don't worry as I can stop the machine at any time"
  5. "You may feel some pain but this is a necessary procedure"
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13.8) When performing an ECG, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Apply the limb electrodes
  2. Ask the patient to remove their clothing from the waist up
  3. Connect the lead wires to the electrodes
  4. Obtain the patient's consent
  5. Prepare the patient's skin for the application of the electrodes
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13.9) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?
  1. Anywhere between the left shoulder and the wrist
  2. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
  3. The fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  4. The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  5. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5
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13.10) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?
  1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Bundle branch block
  4. Tachycardia
  5. Unstable angina
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13.11) In a 12-lead ECG, which of these leads is bipolar?
  1. I
  2. V2
  3. aVF
  4. aVL
  5. aVR
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13.12) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V4 placed?
  1. Anywhere above the right ankle and below the torso
  2. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
  3. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
  4. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  5. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
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13.13) Leads V1 to V6 are called the _________ leads.
  1. amplified
  2. augmented
  3. cardiac
  4. chest
  5. limb
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13.14) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
  2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
  3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
  4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead
  5. Place the LL electrode on the patient's right leg instead
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13.15) Which of these statements about preparing a patient for an ECG is true?
  1. Alcohol wipes are used to clean the skin
  2. It is good practice to shave the patient’s entire chest
  3. The patient must be fasting
  4. The patient should be sitting
  5. The room must be cold
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13.16) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?
  1. The P wave
  2. The Q wave
  3. The R wave
  4. The S wave
  5. The U wave
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13.17) On ECG paper, how many millimetres normally represent one second?
  1. 5 mm
  2. 10 mm
  3. 15 mm
  4. 20 mm
  5. 25 mm
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13.18) You are performing an ECG on a patient. You observe a wide QRS complex while continuously monitoring the patient in lead II. Which lead placement is necessary to evaluate the location of a blockage in the bundle branch system?
  1. Lead I
  2. Lead II
  3. Lead III
  4. Lead V1
  5. Lead V4
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13.19) What part of the ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave?
  1. QRS complex
  2. QT segment
  3. R wave
  4. ST segment
  5. U wave
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13.20) What is the heart rate in the ECG strip below?
  1. 50 bpm
  2. 75 bpm
  3. 100 bpm
  4. 150 bpm
  5. 300 bpm
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13.21) You observe somatic tremor artifacts on the ECG. What can you do to reduce these artifacts?
  1. Check for sources of electrical interference
  2. Make sure the electrodes are secure
  3. Move the bed away from the wall
  4. Remind the patient to keep still
  5. Remove tension from the lead wires
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13.22) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. CPR compression
  4. Loose lead
  5. Muscle tremor
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