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Sections

1. Standards of Practice
2. Medical Terminology
3. Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology
4. Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Management
5. Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection
6. Laboratory Safety
7. Laboratory Equipment
8. Histology and Cytology
9. Clinical Microbiology
10. Clinical Chemistry
11. Clinical Hematology
12. Transfusion Medicine
13. Electrocardiograms

Section 1: Standards of Practice

1.1) Which of these laws primarily concerns data privacy?

1. Canada Health Act
2. HCCA
3. Ontario Regulation 107/96 Controlled Act
4. PIPEDA
5. RHPA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) What is the term for mechanisms and processes protecting health information from unauthorized access?

1. Accountability
2. Confidentiality
3. Isolation
4. Secrecy
5. Security

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:

1. accountability
2. confidentiality
3. privacy
4. secrecy
5. security

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?

1. Agree to call the patient at home
2. Give the results to the patient
3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
4. Print a copy of the results for the patient but keep the original results in the patient's file
5. Refer the request to the supervisor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:

1. commercial control
2. corporate compliance
3. critical thinking
4. quality assurance
5. risk management

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) What is the purpose of a custody seal on a sample container?

1. To help identify the sample if the container is misplaced
2. To prevent air from entering the container
3. To prevent air from escaping from the container
4. To show whether the container has been tampered with
5. To show who currently has custody of the container

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) A failure to take proper care over a task is called:

1. abuse
2. culpability
3. fraud
4. negligence
5. restitution

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Which PIPEDA principle requires organizations to have clear, readily available policies about how they manage personal information?

1. Accountability
2. Consent
3. Individual access
4. Openness
5. Safeguards

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must be able to explain why they are collecting personal information?

1. Accountability
2. Accuracy
3. Challenging compliance
4. Identifying purposes
5. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) PIPEDA has how many fair information principles?

1. 5
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10
5. 12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) Ontario's Health Care Consent Act states that a patient can refuse treatment if they have:

1. a lawyer
2. a terminal disease
3. a treatment plan
4. mental capacity
5. private health insurance

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which act sets out the rights and duties of all of Ontario's workers?

1. Canada Health Act
2. Canadian Human Rights Act
3. Health Care Consent Act
4. Occupational Health and Safety Act
5. Regulated Health Professions Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) The Regulated Health Professions Act defines a controlled act as:

1. a law that can only be changed by the federal government
2. a law that controls the movement and supply of hazardous materials In Canada
3. a law that sets the standards for health professionals in Canada
4. an activity that can cause harm if performed by an unqualified person
5. an activity that requires the patient’s consent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Which of these acts only applies in Ontario?

1. Access to Information Act
2. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act
3. Hazardous Products Act
4. Personal Health Information Protection Act
5. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which act is part of the Health Professions Procedural Code?

1. Canada Health Act
2. Health Care Consent Act
3. Occupational Health and Safety Act
4. Personal Health Information Protection Act
5. Regulated Health Professions Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) What is the CMLTO?

1. The national association for medical laboratory technicians in Canada
2. The national certifying body for medical laboratory assistants in Canada
3. The provincial association for medical laboratory professionals in Ontario
4. The provincial governing body for medical laboratory technologists in Ontario
5. The trade union for medical laboratory technicians in Canada

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which Ontario Act governs specimen collection centres and medical laboratories?

1. Canada Health Act
2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments
3. Laboratory Services Act
4. Laboratory and Specimen Collection Centre Licensing Act
5. Medical Laboratory Technology Act

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Who enforces the Personal Health Information Protection Act (PHIPA)?

1. Health Canada
2. Information and Privacy Commissioner
3. Ministry of Health
4. Ontario Human Rights Commission
5. Public Health Ontario

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Which principle of the Canada Health Act requires provinces to provide all services deemed medically necessary?

1. Accessibility
2. Comprehensiveness
3. Portability
4. Public administration
5. Universality

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) What is the national professional society for Canada's medical laboratory professionals?

1. ASCLS
2. ASCP
3. CMLTO
4. CSMLS
5. MLPAO

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Medical Terminology

2.1) The term "comorbidity" means:

1. a clinically insignificant condition
2. a disease passed onto someone else
3. a disease present in two or more patients
4. the death of two patients at the same time
5. two or more health conditions in the same patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What word means the production of lymphocytes?

1. Lymphadenitis
2. Lymphedema
3. Lymphocytopenia
4. Lymphoid
5. Lymphopoiesis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) The gap between two neurons is called a(n):

1. axon
2. dendrite
3. stimulus
4. synapse
5. ventricle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) What is the negative log of hydrogen ion concentration known as?

1. SG
2. SI
3. pH
4. pKa
5. the T/S constant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) What is macrocytosis?

1. A blood cancer
2. A high concentration of white blood cells
3. A platelet deficiency
4. A tumour
5. Abnormally large red blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) An injection into the tissues between the skin and muscle is called a(n) _________ injection.

1. intradermal
2. intradermous
3. intramuscular
4. intravenous
5. subcutaneous

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) What is asepsis?

1. An inflammatory immune response triggered by an infection
2. Blood clotting
3. Cell death
4. The absence of pathogens and infections
5. The first stage of sepsis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What is a frozen section?

1. A batch of patient blood samples transported on dry ice
2. A biopsy procedure where a tissue specimen is frozen, cut and then analyzed
3. A surgical technique that uses freezing cold to kill cancerous cells
4. A urine sample transported to the lab on dry ice, defrosted and then tested
5. The part of donated patient blood that forms crystals when frozen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Enzymes end with which suffix?

1. -ase
2. -cyte
3. -ose
4. -osis
5. -phage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What does the prefix entero- mean?

1. Entire
2. Inside
3. Intestine
4. Outside
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which suffix means 'resembling'?

1. -eal
2. -ic
3. -lith
4. -oid
5. -osis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) What does the suffix -poesis mean?

1. Dilation
2. Falling
3. Production
4. Resembling
5. Softening

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) What does the prefix oligo- mean?

1. Before
2. Few
3. Many
4. Same
5. Under

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What does the medical abbreviation O&P stand for?

1. Occult platelets
2. Oncology and pediatrics
3. Ongoing procedure
4. Operation and post-operation
5. Ova and parasites

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What blood test does PPT stand for?

1. Partial thrombin time
2. Partial thromboplastin time
3. Proportional thrombin time
4. Proportional thromboplastin time
5. Proportional thyroxine time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) FBS stands for _________ blood sugar.

1. fasting
2. fatal
3. fetal
4. final
5. first

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Which term means the spread of cancer cells from their site of origin to another part of the body?

1. Anaplasia
2. Encapsulation
3. Infiltration
4. Invasion
5. Metastasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) What is nocturia?

1. Black urine
2. Blood in the urine
3. Difficulty urinating
4. Excessive urination at night
5. Pain during a period

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) What is the medical term for fever?

1. Bradycardia
2. Hypertension
3. Hypothermia
4. Pyrexia
5. Tachypnea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) What is the medical term for fainting?

1. Edema
2. Exsanguination
3. Singultus
4. Syncope
5. Vertigo

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) A patient who is 'febrile' has:

1. a fever
2. a weak heart rhythm
3. an infection
4. low blood sugar
5. muscle wasting

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What is the medical term for a heart attack?

1. Angina
2. Angina pectoris
3. Arrhythmia
4. Cardiomyopathy
5. Myocardial infarction

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Coagulation is more commonly known as:

1. bleeding
2. clotting
3. dissolving
4. mixing
5. sweating

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is the name for the series of reactions that stop blood flow after a cut?

1. Agglutination
2. Erythropoiesis
3. Hemolysis
4. Hemostasis
5. Homeostasis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade via the extrinsic pathway?

1. Factor X
2. Factor XII
3. Prothrombinase
4. Thrombin
5. Tissue factor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?

1. Bradycardia
2. Endocardia
3. Epicardia
4. Myocardia
5. Tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is the term for an antigen able to elicit an immune response?

1. Adjuvent
2. Epitope
3. Hapten
4. Immunogen
5. Paratope

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Neurons that transmit nerve impulses toward the central nervous system are called ____________ neurons.

1. bipolar
2. central
3. intermediary
4. motor
5. sensory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) A three-base sequence in DNA or RNA is known as a(n):

1. amino acid
2. codon
3. nucleic acid
4. nucleotide
5. ribosome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Icteric serum contains high amounts of:

1. bacteria
2. bilirubin
3. hemolyzed red blood cells
4. protein
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which term means the ability of a procedure to detect only a substance of interest instead of other substances?

1. Analytical sensitivity
2. Analytical specificity
3. Diagnostic sensitivity
4. Diagnostic specificity
5. Diagnostic subjectivity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?

1. Target channel adapter
2. Threshold crossing alert
3. Trichloroacetic acid
4. Trichloroethane
5. Tricyclic antidepressant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Red blood cells are also known as:

1. eosinophils
2. erythrocytes
3. lymphocytes
4. monocytes
5. thrombocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) What is the name for the lung secretion that is tested for malignant cells?

1. Saliva
2. Simulacrum
3. Spittle
4. Sputum
5. Synovial fluid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Basic Biology, Anatomy and Physiology

3.1) Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are bones of the:

1. cranium
2. face
3. pelvis
4. spine
5. thorax

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:

1. cellular, chemical, organelle, organ, tissue, system
2. chemical, cellular, organelle, organ, tissue, system
3. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system
4. organelle, chemical, tissue, cellular, system, organ
5. organelle, system, tissue, cellular, chemical, organ

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Around 60% of the human adult body is:

1. blood
2. bone
3. muscle
4. skin
5. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which element is the basis of organic chemistry?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Iron
4. Nitrogen
5. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to:

1. galactose
2. glucagon
3. glycogen
4. maltose
5. sucrose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What is the end product of purine metabolism?

1. Allantoin
2. Hypoxanthine
3. Urea
4. Uric acid
5. Xanthine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which of these coagulation factors is in the common pathway of coagulation?

1. Factor II
2. Factor IX
3. Factor VII
4. Factor XI
5. Factor XIII

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Which chromosome is only present in males?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. X
5. Y

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which of these defense mechanisms is non-specific?

1. B-cell production
2. Cell-mediated immunity
3. Skin
4. T-cell production
5. The immunologic response

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:

1. homogenization
2. hyalinization
3. liquidation
4. precipitation
5. vasodilatation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these hormones does the pituitary gland produce?

1. Insulin
2. Prolactin
3. T4
4. TRH
5. Testosterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?

1. FSH
2. Glucagon
3. Insulin
4. Progesterone
5. T4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which hormone stimulates contractions of the uterus during childbirth?

1. Human chorionic gonadotropin
2. Luteinizing hormone
3. Oestrogen
4. Oxytocin
5. Progesterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?

1. Brain
2. Large intestine
3. Pancreas
4. Spleen
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What is the final part of the digestive system?

1. Anus
2. Cecum
3. Duodenum
4. Ileum
5. Rectum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which of these is a disaccharide?

1. Fructose
2. Galactose
3. Glucose
4. Starch
5. Sucrose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the main site for the absorption of digested food?

1. Kidneys
2. Large intestine
3. Liver
4. Small intestine
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which sensory neuron responds to changes in the chemical composition of the blood?

1. Chemoreceptor
2. Mechanoreceptor
3. Nociceptor
4. Photoreceptor
5. Proprioceptor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What type of sensory neuron detects pain?

1. Chemoreceptor
2. Electromagnetic receptor
3. Mechanoreceptor
4. Nociceptor
5. Thermoreceptor

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which type of neuron sends impulses from the central nervous system to effectors such as muscles and glands?

1. Chemoreceptor
2. Interneuron
3. Motor
4. Nociceptor
5. Sensory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What is the functional unit of the lungs?

1. Alveoli
2. Follicle
3. Lobule
4. Nephron
5. Neuron

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) What is the function of the respiratory system?

1. To fight off infections
2. To make enzymes
3. To regulate the endocrine system
4. To regulate the heartbeat
5. To supply oxygen to tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) What is the largest vein in the body?

1. Aorta
2. Hepatic portal vein
3. Iliac vein
4. Inferior vena cava
5. Pulmonary vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Cells secrete out large proteins with the process of:

1. endocytosis
2. exocytosis
3. osmosis
4. phagocytosis
5. pinocytosis

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which element is found in protein but not in carbohydrates and fats?

1. Carbon
2. Hydrogen
3. Nitrogen
4. Oxygen
5. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) Which organ system releases hormones?

1. Cardiovascular
2. Digestive
3. Endocrine
4. Reproductive
5. Urinary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Meningitis is an infection of which body system?

1. Circulatory
2. Digestive
3. Endocrine
4. Nervous
5. Urinary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which of these is a function of the integumentary system?

1. Digestion of food
2. Filtration of blood
3. Production of red blood cells
4. Regulation of body temperature
5. Synthesis of insulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Addison's disease, Graves' disease, and Hashimoto's disease are all diseases of which body system?

1. Cardiovascular
2. Digestive
3. Endocrine
4. Immune
5. Respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which body system do hypotension and arteriosclerosis affect?

1. Cardiovascular
2. Endocrine
3. Genitourinary
4. Integumentary
5. Respiratory

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Which organ system does the kidney belong to?

1. Circulatory
2. Digestive
3. Endocrine
4. Lymphatic
5. Urinary

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) How many kinds of stop codons are there in the genetic code?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) What is another name for the innate immune system?

1. Adaptive
2. Cellular
3. Humoral
4. Nonspecific
5. Specialized

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Fat molecules consist of three fatty acids and a ___________ backbone.

1. amino acid
2. glycerol
3. hydrocarbon
4. monosaccharide
5. polysaccharide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which antibody does the body make first when it fights a new infection?

1. IgA
2. IgC
3. IgE
4. IgG
5. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Which antibody can cross the placenta?

1. IgA
2. IgD
3. IgE
4. IgG
5. IgM

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which of these is a plasma protein involved in coagulation?

1. Albumin
2. Erythropoietin
3. Fibrinogen
4. Gamma globulin
5. Immunoglobulin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. ESR
3. Hct
4. Hgb
5. MCV

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?

1. Anterior tibial
2. Cephalic
3. External iliac
4. Femoral
5. Posterior tibial

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which cells contribute most to blood clotting?

1. Lymphocytes
2. Neutrophils
3. Platelets
4. Red blood cells
5. White blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) What is this blood cell?

1. Macrophage
2. Monocyte
3. Neutrophil
4. Platelet
5. Red blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) Formed elements are:

1. blood plasma
2. blood serum
3. the clotting factors in blood
4. the white blood cells produced during an infection
5. white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) What causes colloid osmotic pressure in blood?

1. Proteins in the blood
2. Proteins in the interstitial fluid
3. Sodium and chloride ions in the blood
4. Sodium and chloride ions in the intestinal fluid
5. The water component of the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) What is the major hematopoietic site in adults?

1. Blood
2. Bone marrow
3. Liver
4. Lymph nodes
5. Spleen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) Which molecule binds to hemoglobin with an affinity 240 times that of oxygen?

1. ATP
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Cholesterol
5. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) How many heme groups does a hemoglobin molecule have?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) Lysosomes contain:

1. DNA
2. chromosomes
3. digestive enzymes
4. hemoglobin
5. mitochondria

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) An immature neutrophil is called a:

1. LE cell
2. band cell
3. blast cell
4. packed cell
5. reticulocyte

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) Which cell contains hemoglobin?

1. Basophil
2. Lymphocyte
3. Monocyte
4. Platelet
5. Red blood cell

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) The GTT is a test for:

1. allergies
2. kidney function
3. liver function
4. sugar metabolism
5. thyroid function

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Laboratory Mathematics and Quality Management

4.1) How would you prepare a 50 mL 1/10 dilution of bleach?

1. 3 mL of bleach to 47 mL of water
2. 4 mL of bleach to 46 mL of water
3. 5 mL of bleach to 45 mL of water
4. 6 mL of bleach to 44 mL of water
5. 7 mL of bleach to 43 mL of water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) What is one part chemical to five parts water expressed as a dilution factor?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?

1. 1%
2. 10%
3. 25%
4. 50%
5. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) A lab assistant makes a 1/6 dilution of serum in water. The assistant then performs a glucose test on the diluted serum. The result is 4.0 mmol/L. What result should the lab assistant report to the doctor?

1. 0.66 mmol/L
2. 4.0 mmol/L
3. 24.0 mmol/L
4. 40.0 mmol/L
5. 60.0 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) 0.5 mol of solute is dissolved in 1 litre of solution. What is the concentration of the solution in mol/cm³?

1. 0.0005
2. 0.02
3. 2
4. 200
5. 500

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) How many grams of NaOH are in 100 mL of a 15% NaOH solution?

1. 15 g
2. 30 g
3. 45 g
4. 60 g
5. 75 g

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) A dilution factor of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?

1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent
5. 10 parts specimen, 1 part diluent

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) What is the molarity of a 3 L solution that contains 1.2 moles?

1. 0.4
2. 1.8
3. 2.5
4. 3.6
5. 5.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) How many millilitres of 5% hydrochloric acid are needed to make 500 mL of 2% hydrochloric acid?

1. 100
2. 200
3. 300
4. 400
5. 500

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) A lab technician has a litre of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?

1. 214 mL
2. 528 mL
3. 1,214 mL
4. 1,528 mL
5. 2,528 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/v solution?

1. (solute mass / solution mass) × 100
2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
3. (solute volume / solution volume ) × 100
4. (solution volume / solute mass) × 100
5. (solution volume / solute volume) × 100

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 20
5. 150

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) A test gives the following control values:

Day	1	2	3	4
Result (U/L)	1.2	1.5	1.8	2.1

These control values demonstrate a(n):

1. outlier
2. random pattern
3. random variation
4. repeating pattern
5. trend

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Which of these units is the smallest?

1. Centimetre
2. Metre
3. Micrometre
4. Millimetre
5. Nanometre

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) What is 37°C in Fahrenheit to the nearest whole number?

1. 5.5°F
2. 67.3°F
3. 37.8°F
4. 98.6°F
5. 120.2°F

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) What is 120°F in Celsius rounded to one decimal place?

1. 40.2°C
2. 42.9°C
3. 44.8°C
4. 46.2°C
5. 48.9°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) What is 2.08691 rounded to three significant figures?

1. 2.08
2. 2.086
3. 2.087
4. 2.089
5. 2.09

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) What is 13.55 millimetres rounded to the nearest millimetre?

1. 13 mm
2. 13.5 mm
3. 13.6 mm
4. 14 mm
5. 56 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) What is 3.5 × 10⁹ rounded to one significant figure?

1. 3
2. 3 × 10⁹
3. 3.6 × 10⁹
4. 4
5. 4 × 10⁹

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) In the equation 3² = 9, the number 2 is called the:

1. base
2. exponent
3. function
4. logarithm
5. reciprocal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) An automated cell counter gives a result of 6,500 cells/mm³. However, the doctor's clinic requires the result in cells/L. What result should you report to the doctor?

1. 6.5 x 10⁵ cells/L
2. 6.5 x 10⁶ cells/L
3. 6.5 x 10⁷ cells/L
4. 6.5 x 10⁸ cells/L
5. 6.5 x 10⁹ cells/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) What is the value of x in 2ˣ = 16?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) 10³ equals:

1. 30
2. 100
3. 300
4. 1,000
5. 10,000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) 100 microlitres is equal to how many millilitres?

1. 0.01 mL
2. 0.1 mL
3. 1 mL
4. 10 mL
5. 100.000 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) What is 2,000 cc of blood in litres?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
5. 10

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) What is the term for the following graph shape?

1. Binomial sequence
2. Normal distribution
3. Polynomial function
4. Quadratic chart
5. Reciprocal graph

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) What does the standard deviation tell you?

1. How many errors are in the data set
2. How spread out the data is
3. The average value in the data set
4. The most common number in the data set
5. The number the data tends to cluster around

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) How many of the following quality control results are beyond 2 standard deviations from the mean?

QC results	120, 289, 365, 432, 678
Mean	377
Coefficient of variation	15%

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) A test has a mean of 10.0 and a standard deviation of 1.4. If all control values must fall within 2 standard deviations of the mean, what is the acceptable range for the control values?

1. 7.2–12.8
2. 8.3–11.7
3. 8.6–11.4
4. 8.6–11.7
5. 9.0–11.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?

1. 50%
2. 68%
3. 83%
4. 95%
5. 99.7%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) A thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) quality control chart has the following data for the normal control:

Statistic	Value
Count	43
Mean	2.4 mIU/L
2 SD	1.2 mIU/L

Calculate the coefficient of variation for the control.

1. 25%
2. 35%
3. 40%
4. 50%
5. 60%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.

1. 4.5
2. 4.7
3. 4.9
4. 5.1
5. 5.3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) The value that appears most often in a set of data values is called the:

1. average
2. coefficient of variation
3. mean
4. median
5. mode

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) To find the median of an even number of numbers, arrange the set in order and:

1. subtract the mean from the largest number
2. subtract the smallest number from the largest number
3. take the mean of the two middle numbers
4. use the larger of the two middle numbers
5. use the smaller of the two middle numbers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) Type III water can be used for:

1. cell and tissue cultures
2. cleaning glassware
3. gas chromatography
4. liquid chromatography
5. molecular biology

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) What is the specific gravity of distilled water at 4°C?

1. 1.000
2. 1.001
3. 1.100
4. 1.101
5. 1.111

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Water that does not contain charged particles is called ________ water.

1. chlorinated
2. de-ionized
3. distilled
4. flat
5. heavy

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Which quality management method is also known as the Deming cycle?

1. Statistical process control
2. Kaizen
3. Lean
4. Plan-Do-Check-Act
5. Six Sigma

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which of these situations would cause random errors?

1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
5. An uncalibrated instrument that consistently gives the same inaccurate reading for the same value being measured

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) A lab technician is counting the number of colonies on an agar plate. She accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?

1. Environmental
2. Instrumental
3. Observational
4. Systematic
5. Theoretical

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?

1. Calculating test results incorrectly
2. Interpreting results incorrectly
3. Mislabelling a blood specimen
4. Reporting a result on the wrong patient
5. Sending results to the wrong patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?

1. Accuracy
2. Agreement
3. Precision
4. Reliability
5. Reproducibility

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) The coefficient of variation is a measure of:

1. accuracy
2. central tendency
3. precision
4. sensitivity
5. specificity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) Precise values:

1. are always between 0 and 1
2. are caused by random errors
3. are close to the true value
4. are the same as the true value
5. fall within a narrow range

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) A cancer screening test detects cancer in 95% of people with cancer. What can you confer about this test?

1. The predictability is 5%
2. The sensitivity is 5%
3. The sensitivity is 95%
4. The specificity is 5%
5. The specificity is 95%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) Calculate the positive predictive value for the data below.

True positives	82
True negatives	55
False positives	10
False negatives	5

1. 83%
2. 85%
3. 87%
4. 89%
5. 91%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) A screening test erroneously detects disease in a high number of healthy people. This test shows:

1. high precision
2. high predictability
3. high sensitivity
4. low accuracy
5. low specificity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) A new method for diagnosing celiac disease is trialled on 1,200 patients. The method detects 26 true positives, 9 false positives, 1,145 true negatives and 20 false negatives. Calculate the diagnostic sensitivity of the test to one decimal place.

1. 56.5%
2. 69.4%
3. 71.8%
4. 82.1%
5. 99.2%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic sensitivity?

1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
2. False negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
3. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
4. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
5. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) A cancer screening test has the following results:

True positives	100
True negatives	15
False positives	85
False negatives	0

The test shows high:

1. accuracy
2. reliability
3. reproducibility
4. sensitivity
5. specificity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) A test with low sensitivity is more likely to give:

1. a positive predictive value
2. false negatives
3. false positives
4. true negatives
5. true positives

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) A screening test detects 700 cases of illness in 1,000 sick people and 400 cases of illness in 1,000 healthy people. Calculate the test's sensitivity.

1. 30%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 60%
5. 70%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) The following data pertains to a new diagnostic test:

True positives	30
True negatives	40
False positives	12
False negatives	10

Calculate the negative predictive value.

1. 80%
2. 82%
3. 90%
4. 92%
5. 93%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?

1. Daily
2. Weekly
3. Monthly
4. Every three months
5. Yearly

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Specimen Procurement, Processing and Data Collection

5.1) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:

1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
3. take a blood sample from the mother
4. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
5. tell the mother not to worry

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) If a patient refuses to have blood drawn:

1. ask the patient for a CSF sample instead
2. ask the patient for a urine sample instead
3. notify the patient's nurse or physician
4. restrain the patient and draw the blood
5. try to convince the patient to be cooperative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A phlebotomist needs to draw an urgent blood sample from a patient. However, the patient is asleep. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Cancel the test
2. Come back later when the patient is awake
3. Draw the sample while the patient is asleep
4. Take a capillary sample instead
5. Wake up the patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first?

1. Apply the tourniquet
2. Clean the site
3. Identify the patient
4. Insert the needle
5. Palpate the vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient?

1. Check the patient's white blood cell count first
2. Do not draw blood from the right arm
3. Make sure the patient is lying down
4. Make sure the patient is sitting
5. Perform a finger stick check first

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?

1. Basilic
2. Cephalic
3. Median antibrachial
4. Median cubital
5. Superior vena cava

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?

1. To decrease the oxygen level
2. To make the veins more prominent
3. To monitor blood pressure
4. To prevent hematoma
5. To prevent nerve damage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Petechiae appear when a phlebotomist applies a tourniquet to a patient's arm. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Call a nurse
2. Cancel the draw
3. Continue with the draw
4. Perform the draw without a tourniquet
5. Try the other arm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?

1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
3. To prevent a fire hazard
4. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
5. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?

1. A deep hematoma may form
2. Nothing will happen as this is the correct angle
3. The needle may enter above the vein
4. The needle may go completely through the vein
5. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?

1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
2. Asking the patient to release their fist upon blood flow
3. Drawing blood from sclerosed or occluded veins
4. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
5. Massaging the site before inserting the needle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:

1. hypertension
2. petechiae
3. scarring
4. thrombosis
5. varicose veins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14-month-old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which of these actions should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw?

1. Ask the mother if she can breastfeed the baby
2. Give the baby something sweet to eat
3. Release the tourniquet
4. Try a new tube
5. Try to collect blood from the baby's heel instead

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) When drawing blood, when should the phlebotomist remove the tourniquet?

1. After removing the needle from the arm
2. As soon as a suitable vein has been found
3. Five minutes after applying the tourniquet
4. Ten minutes after applying the tourniquet
5. While the last tube to be drawn is filling

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) What are tan top vacutainer tubes used for?

1. Blood bank testing
2. Blood culture
3. Lactic acid testing
4. Lead testing
5. Therapeutic drug monitoring

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) For which test are Westergren tubes used?

1. Differential
2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
3. Hematocrit
4. Microhematocrit
5. Reticulocyte count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?

1. Green
2. Grey
3. Light blue
4. Red
5. SST

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:

1. anti-hemophilia factor
2. calcium ions
3. fibrinogen
4. prothrombin
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a light blue top tube with a butterfly needle?

1. Ask the patient to open and close their fist several times
2. Draw a discard tube
3. Get a bucket of ice ready
4. Label the tube
5. Make sure the patient is lying down

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?

1. Differential
2. Hematocrit
3. Platelet count
4. Prothrombin time
5. Red blood cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) A phlebotomist has to collect a lavender top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from a patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?

1. Green, lavender, light blue
2. Green, light blue, lavender
3. Lavender, green, light blue
4. Light blue, green, lavender
5. Light blue, lavender, green

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a light blue top tube. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:

1. add a little blood from another tube
2. fill another light blue top tube partly full and mix the two tubes
3. mark the tube QNS
4. repeat the procedure with a new light blue top
5. submit the tube for testing as usual

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) What is the purpose of the gel in SST vacutainer tubes?

1. To indicate whether organisms have metabolized glucose
2. To prevent glycolysis
3. To prevent the blood from clotting
4. To separate DNA, RNA, and proteins according to molecular size
5. To separate blood cells from serum or plasma during centrifugation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) Light blue top vacutainer tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:

1. 1:3
2. 1:6
3. 1:9
4. 1:12
5. 1:15

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which anticoagulant is used to collect arterial blood gas specimens?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Potassium oxalate
4. Sodium fluoride
5. Trisodium citrate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?

1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
5. A 29-gauge needle and syringe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) After a blood draw, which of these instructions should you tell the patient?

1. Bend your arm a few times
2. Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes
3. Refrain from drinking fluids for the next 2–3 hours
4. Refrain from drinking tea or coffee for the next 24 hours
5. Walk around if you feel lightheaded

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) A phlebotomist has just finished collecting blood samples from a patient. However, the phlebotomist realises she has forgotten to collect a tube. What should she do?

1. Ask the patient to schedule another appointment
2. Perform a second collection for the missing tube
3. Redraw all the tubes
4. Transfer some blood from a full tube to the empty tube
5. Write "not collected" on the empty tube and ask a manager to sign it

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do?

1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
3. Notify the patient's nurse
4. Stop applying pressure to the venipuncture site
5. Tell the patient it is okay to leave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?

1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
3. Mix the sample with glass beads
4. Remove gloves and wash hands
5. Seal one end of the tube with clay

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) Which of these specimens should NOT be centrifuged?

1. Prostate specific antigen
2. Complete blood count
3. Glucose
4. Prothrombin time
5. Vitamin B12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight-year-old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do?

1. Force the swab into her mouth
2. Scold her for behaving badly
3. Swab her nose instead
4. Swab the inside of her ear instead
5. Talk to her about the test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?

1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
4. Give the clergy member your phone number and tell him to call you when he has finished
5. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) Which specimen is needed for the glycosylated hemoglobin test?

1. Cerebrospinal fluid
2. Plasma
3. Serum
4. Urine
5. Whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:

1. SAF fixative
2. a buffer
3. agar
4. saline
5. sodium hypochlorite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) When collecting a semen sample, the patient should:

1. collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops
2. keep the sample on ice during transport
3. refrain from sexual activity for at least two weeks beforehand
4. use a latex condom
5. use a lubricant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) How far into the nasal cavity must a swab be inserted to reach the nasopharynx?

1. 1–2 cm
2. 3–4 cm
3. 5–6 cm
4. 7–8 cm
5. 9–10 cm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?

1. Fish
2. Oranges
3. Popcorn
4. Red meat
5. Whole wheat bread

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?

1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
2. Estrogen
3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
4. Human placental lactogen
5. Progesterone

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) The sweat test diagnoses which disease?

1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Infection
3. Muscular dystrophy
4. Pneumonia
5. Sarcomas

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?

1. 10
2. 18
3. 20
4. 28
5. 31

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) Which sample does a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require?

1. 24-hour urine
2. 72-hour stool
3. Heparinized plasma
4. Random urine
5. Serum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) The creatinine clearance test:

1. is a liver function test
2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
5. requires urine samples only

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?

1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Stool
4. Sweat
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Which urine collection technique collects urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?

1. Biopsy
2. Dipstick test
3. Necropsy
4. Suprapubic aspiration
5. Urinary catheter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests?

1. Boric acid
2. Chlorhexidine
3. HCl
4. NaHCO₃
5. No preservative

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?

1. Adequately filling two media vials
2. Asepsis of the collection site
3. Ensuring the patient is fasting
4. Selecting the collection site
5. Timing of the second set of cultures

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?

1. Complete blood count
2. Fetal fibronectin
3. Free light chains test
4. Legal paternity test
5. Prothrombin time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?

1. The date the specimen was collected
2. The name of the patient's doctor
3. The name of the person who collected the specimen
4. The time the specimen was collected
5. The type of specimen collected

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?

1. Cancel the requisition
2. Cool the finger using an ice pack
3. Puncture the site again
4. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
5. Squeeze the finger

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?

1. To ensure the needle fully enters the skin
2. To facilitate blood sample collection
3. To prevent excessive bleeding
4. To prevent scar formation
5. To reduce pain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?

1. It could cause excessive blood loss
2. It could damage bones and nerves
3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
4. The fingers are needed for venipuncture
5. The infant may move their finger during the puncture

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?

1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
3. To increase blood flow to the area
4. To keep the patient calm
5. To remove pathogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?

1. Arm
2. Finger
3. Heel
4. Thigh
5. Thumb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?

1. 1 mm
2. 2 mm
3. 3 mm
4. 4 mm
5. 5 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) A patient produces a semen sample at home. When bringing the sample to the clinic, the patient should keep the sample:

1. at room temperature
2. frozen
3. next to a hot water bottle
4. on ice
5. refrigerated

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) Which of these chemicals can preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?

1. Acetone
2. Boric acid
3. Potassium chloride
4. Sodium bicarbonate
5. Sodium hypochlorite

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) When urine is left at room temperature, which of these increases?

1. Bilirubin
2. Ketones
3. Leukocytes
4. Nitrites
5. Urobilinogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) Extra precautions are necessary when labelling specimens for:

1. C&S
2. HIV
3. blood typing
4. factor assays
5. therapeutic drug monitoring

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.60) When shipping infectious substances, where should you write the technical name of the infectious agent?

1. Air waybill
2. Outside packaging
3. Primary container
4. Secondary container
5. Shipper’s Declaration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.61) Before you perform urinalysis on a refrigerated urine specimen, you must bring the urine to room temperature and _______ it.

1. boil
2. centrifuge
3. filter
4. freeze
5. stir

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Laboratory Safety

6.1) When trying to fix an electrical machine, you should first:

1. replace old cables
2. replace the circuit boards
3. replace the fuses
4. turn off all electricity to the lab
5. turn the machine off

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) A skin cut is an example of which link in the chain of infection?

1. Infectious agent
2. Mode of transmission
3. Portal of entry
4. Reservoir
5. Susceptible host

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Which of these is an example of regulated waste?

1. Disposable ear speculums
2. Empty medicine bottles
3. Patient gowns
4. Sterile dressings
5. Used blood tubes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) When incinerating medical waste:

1. disinfect all articles beforehand
2. ensure at least three people are present
3. ensure complete burning takes place
4. ensure the temperature reaches at least 12,000°C
5. sanitize all articles beforehand

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Class C fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. cooking oils
3. electrical equipment
4. flammable liquids
5. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) CO₂ fire extinguishers are effective against which type of fire?

1. Flammable gas
2. Flammable liquid
3. Magnesium
4. Paper
5. Wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which fire extinguisher is best for electrical fires?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. AFFF foam
3. ABC powder
4. Dry powder
5. Water mist

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) What is the most common type of fire extinguisher in clinical laboratories?

1. ABC
2. Carbon dioxide charged
3. Class A
4. Class B
5. Class C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Class A fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. cooking oils
3. electrical equipment
4. flammable liquids
5. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:

1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
2. is highly flammable
3. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
4. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
5. uses kerosene to extinguish fires

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:

1. can extinguish electrical fires
2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
3. carries a risk of electric shock
4. needs to be kept grounded
5. requires charging before use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) Refer to the image below: Which of these fires can this fire extinguisher extinguish?

1. Electrical equipment
2. Methanol
3. Oil bath
4. Cardboard boxes
5. Hydrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) What are the components of the fire triangle?

1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
3. Rescue, Alarm, 911
4. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
5. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?

1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
2. Call the manufacturer's phone number
3. Pull the pin
4. Squeeze the handle
5. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) Class D fires involve:

1. combustible metals
2. cooking oils
3. electrical equipment
4. flammable liquids
5. paper and wood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. K

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) When handling strong acids in a laboratory:

1. add water to acid when diluting
2. keep a weak acid nearby to neutralize spills
3. wear eye protection
4. wear latex gloves
5. wear open-toed shoes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Chemicals that produce harmful vapours should be used in a:

1. autoclave
2. biological safety cabinet
3. fume hood
4. public space
5. sealed room

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) You accidentally breathe in picric acid. After moving outside to fresh air, what should be your next step?

1. Ask someone to perform CPR
2. Ask someone to perform artificial respiration
3. Drink several glasses of water
4. Self-induce vomiting
5. Take several deep breaths

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) What is the term for a chemical that immediately damages human tissue on contact?

1. Carcinogenic
2. Combustible
3. Corrosive
4. Flammable
5. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and:

1. can explode
2. catches fire when exposed to air
3. causes cancer
4. causes viral infections
5. is highly toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) What component of Drabkin's solution is highly toxic?

1. Acetone
2. Cyanide
3. Lead
4. Mercury
5. Sulphur

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) You find an old bottle of picric acid in the laboratory. The picric acid is dry. There are crystals in the bottle. How should you dispose of it?

1. Call a bomb disposal service
2. Dilute it with water and pour it down the drain
3. Dilute it with water and pour it into a hazardous waste container
4. Pour it down the drain
5. Send it for incineration

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) Which of these is personal protective equipment (PPE)?

1. A fire extinguisher
2. A first aid kit
3. A hand-washing station
4. Fire blankets
5. Gloves

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which type of glove has the highest resistance to permeation by gases?

1. Butyl
2. Neoprene
3. Nitrile
4. PVC
5. Rubber

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) Which of these must be worn by staff visiting a patient in enteric isolation?

1. Gown
2. Hazard suit
3. Helmet
4. Lead apron
5. Shoe covers

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) The three main types of ionizing radiation are alpha, beta and:

1. delta
2. gamma
3. lambda
4. theta
5. zeta

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Gamma radiation is usually shielded with:

1. aluminum
2. glass
3. lead
4. paper
5. steel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) What does ABC stand for in first aid?

1. Active body control
2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
3. Always be careful
4. Arms, back, collar bone
5. Attention, beware, check

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) When administering CPR, give:

1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
5. 5 compressions followed by 15 breaths

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) Where on the patient should you place your hands for CPR?

1. The centre of the chest
2. The diaphragm
3. The pectoral muscles
4. The pelvis
5. The stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) In first aid, what does the D of the ABCDE approach stand for?

1. Dehydration
2. Disability
3. Dizziness
4. Drug allergy
5. Drug overdose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) A patient is experiencing hives, difficulty breathing, and sneezing. The patient is most likely:

1. experiencing insulin overdose
2. going into anaphylactic shock
3. having a heart attack
4. having a stroke
5. hyperventilating

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?

1. Call 911
2. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
3. Flush the burn with water
4. Go to the emergency department
5. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) Which of these is most likely to occur when lifting a heavy object or overworking a muscle?

1. Fracture
2. Laceration
3. Neuropathy
4. Sprain
5. Strain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) What is the first step in caring for a wound with heavy bleeding?

1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing
3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
5. check their blood glucose level with a glucose meter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) The chain of survival is a four-step process that can help save the lives of victims of:

1. cardiac arrest
2. diabetic coma
3. drug overdose
4. massive blood loss
5. stroke

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) According to Ontario Regulation 682, positive lab findings that indicate the presence of a communicable disease must be reported to the medical officer of health:

1. immediately
2. within 12 hours
3. within 24 hours
4. within one month
5. at the supervisor’s discretion

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) In the chain of infection, which link comes after the portal of exit and before the portal of entry?

1. Infectious agent
2. Mode of transmission
3. Portal of transition
4. Reservoir
5. Susceptible host

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) Which mode of transmission involves the transfer of infectious agents from one person to another during physical contact with blood or other body fluids?

1. Aerosol
2. Direct contact
3. Droplets
4. Indirect contact
5. Vectors

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Flammable
2. Oxidizing
3. Radioactive
4. Self-heating
5. Self-reactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) What does this pictogram mean?

1. Biohazard
2. Carcinogenic
3. Corrosive
4. Radioactive
5. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) Which section of a safety data sheet gives the flammability of a chemical?

1. Accidental release measures
2. Handling and storage
3. Identification
4. Physical and chemical properties
5. Transport information

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Which of these items of information is found on a safety data sheet?

1. Expiry date
2. Health hazards
3. Price
4. Production date
5. Recommended reading list

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?

1. 4
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12
5. 16

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) Which of these is NOT found on a safety data sheet?

1. Physical characteristics
2. Fire potential
3. Health hazards
4. Safe handling measures
5. Noise level

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) Who is responsible for preparing safety data sheets?

1. The customer
2. The end-user
3. The government
4. The laboratory manager
5. The manufacturer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?

1. Biological safety cabinet
2. Flammable storage cabinet
3. Freezer
4. Fume hood
5. Refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) What is the correct place to store a stock solution of ethanol?

1. Biological safety cabinet
2. Flammable safety cabinet
3. Freezer
4. Fume hood
5. Refrigerator

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) Always keep picric acid:

1. dry
2. frozen
3. refrigerated
4. ventilated
5. wet

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) How are ethers stored?

1. In airtight bottles
2. In the light
3. In the refrigerator
4. Next to oxidizers
5. Underwater

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) In which of these situations is a workplace label NOT required?

1. A hazardous product is made at the workplace and used in that workplace
2. A hazardous product is poured into a container and is used immediately
3. A hazardous product is transferred into another container
4. A supplier label becomes lost or illegible
5. A supplier label does not meet the Hazardous Products Regulations

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) Which of these items of information is NOT required on a supplier label of a hazardous product?

1. A hazard statement describing the nature of the hazard posed by the product
2. A hazard symbol
3. The contact details of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer
4. The name of the product
5. The website of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) Under WHMIS 2015, supplier labels must:

1. be in English and French
2. contain a photo of the hazardous product
3. follow a set format
4. have a hatched border
5. have a link to the supplier's social media pages

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) Cold sterilization uses _________ to sterilize medical instruments.

1. chemicals
2. cold air
3. ice
4. liquid nitrogen
5. pressure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 40%
5. 50%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?

1. 1% ethyl alcohol
2. 10% ethyl alcohol
3. 40% ethyl alcohol
4. 70% ethyl alcohol
5. 100% ethyl alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) Which pathogen cannot be inactivated by conventional sterilization methods such as autoclaving, 70% ethanol, UV disinfection, and gamma irradiation?

1. Bacillus anthracis
2. Coccidioides immitis
3. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
4. Prions
5. Smallpox

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?

1. Can shock or cause acid damage
2. Contains selenium or argon
3. Safety assessed
4. Simple asphyxiant
5. Substance abuse

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) How many Risk Groups are microorganisms classified into?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5
5. 6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) Which ISO is the standard for risk management specifically in medical laboratories?

1. ISO 15189
2. ISO 15190
3. ISO 22367
4. ISO 22870
5. ISO 31000

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.62) Class 1 hazardous materials are:

1. corrosive
2. explosive
3. infectious
4. poisonous
5. radioactive

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.63) In which shape must the marking UN 3373 appear?

1. Circle
2. Diamond
3. Hexagon
4. Pentagon
5. Triangle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.64) What does label this mean when shipping hazardous substances?

1. The goods are being shipped in a limited quantity
2. The goods are categorized as a miscellaneous hazard
3. The hazards of the goods are unknown
4. The material inside is fragile
5. The substances inside are unknown

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.65) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:

1. Attention
2. Caution
3. Hazardous
4. Notice
5. Warning

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Section 7: Laboratory Equipment

7.1) What is the recommended method for drying glassware after cleaning it?

1. Blowing on it
2. Heating it in a hot air oven
3. Leaving it to air-dry
4. Rinsing it with acetone
5. Wiping it with a paper towel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) You should start timing the autoclave when the desired temperature for the autoclave is reached and:

1. steam enters the inner sterilizing chamber
2. the autoclave door opens
3. the pressure reaches 15 lbs per square inch
4. the sterilization indicator changes colour
5. the warning light starts flashing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Where are sterilization indicators placed in an autoclave?

1. Close to the air exhaust valve
2. In the center of each article
3. On the bottom shelf of the autoclave
4. On the outside of each pack
5. Outside the autoclave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) What type of water does an autoclave use?

1. Carbonated water
2. Distilled water
3. Mineral water
4. Saltwater
5. Tap water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Why must all air be removed from an autoclave before switching it on?

1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
2. Air increases the risk of explosion
3. Air prevents the chemical reaction between steam and the glassware
4. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
5. Steam can break the glassware

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?

1. Dry heat autoclaving
2. Dry oven
3. Filtration
4. Microwaving
5. Moist heat autoclaving

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Which of these methods results in sterilization?

1. Autoclaving
2. Chemical disinfectants
3. Freezing
4. Refrigeration
5. Soap and water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) What is the temperature of a laboratory refrigerator?

1. −4°C
2. 0°C
3. 3°C
4. 20°C
5. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?

1. pH 1
2. pH 4
3. pH 7
4. pH 10
5. pH 14

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) The main use of a buffer is to:

1. accentuate changes in pH
2. keep a solution neutral
3. make a solution more acidic
4. make a solution more basic
5. minimize changes in pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) Preventive maintenance means:

1. ensuring proper disposal of waste
2. fixing things before they break
3. identifying unexpected failures
4. repairing equipment after it fails
5. turning off machines when they are not in use

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) Stray light can be measured in spectrophotometers with:

1. a cut-off filter
2. a mercury-vapour lamp
3. a potassium dichromate solution
4. deionized water
5. holmium oxide glass

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) Which instrument is used to measure urine hydrogen ion concentration?

1. Coulter counter
2. Microscope
3. Refractometer
4. Spectrophotometer
5. pH meter

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) What is the universal solvent?

1. 0.85% sodium chloride
2. 10% ethanol
3. 8.5% sodium chloride
4. Pure ethanol
5. Water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) A ____________ microscope will remain in focus when you zoom in and out.

1. convergent
2. divergent
3. focused
4. parfocal
5. unifocal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?

1. Dark-field
2. Electron
3. Florescent
4. Light
5. Phase-contrast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.17) Which objective should you begin with when focusing a microscope?

1. 10x
2. 40x
3. 100x
4. 1000x
5. High power

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.18) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?

1. Clean the eyepiece
2. Clean the objective
3. Open the iris
4. Rotate the diopter adjustment rings
5. Tighten the tension adjustment

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.19) Pipettes marked TC are:

1. allowed to drain freely
2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
3. more common than TD pipettes
4. rinsed out after delivery
5. used for toxic, corrosive liquids

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.20) What do the double rings mean on this pipette?

1. The last drop must be blown out
2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
3. The pipette measures a precise volume
4. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
5. The volume is measured at this point

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.21) Which of these glasswares is designed to deliver specific volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Round-bottom flask
4. Volumetric flask
5. Volumetric pipette

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.22) What is the reading of this pipette?

1. 10.4
2. 10.45
3. 10.5
4. 10.55
5. 10.6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.23) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?

1. Beaker
2. Erlenmeyer flask
3. Graduated cylinder
4. Graduated pipette
5. Volumetric flask

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.24) The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?

1. 70% ethanol
2. Antibacterial soap and water
3. Hydrogen sulfide
4. Povidone-iodine
5. Sodium bicarbonate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.25) Preventive maintenance for a centrifuge includes:

1. cleaning under the centrifuge
2. ensuring the centrifuge is balanced
3. inspecting the power cords for damage
4. keeping the centrifuge in an easy-to-reach location
5. moving the centrifuge to a new location

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.26) Which centrifuge counters heat generated during high speeds?

1. Angle head
2. Cytospin
3. Microhematocrit
4. Refrigerated
5. Ultracentrifuge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.27) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:

1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
2. the centrifuge is balanced
3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
4. the cover is open
5. you have removed the rubber cushions in the cups

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.28) In a pH meter, the reference electrode typically contains a saturated solution of:

1. ethanol
2. hydrochloric acid
3. magnesium citrate
4. potassium chloride
5. sulfuric acid

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Section 8: Histology and Cytology

8.1) How much of formalin is formaldehyde?

1. 3.7–4.0%
2. 10%
3. 37–40%
4. 77–80%
5. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Which of these is a fixative?

1. Cytospray
2. Giemsa
3. Hematoxylin
4. Methylene blue
5. Wright's stain

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Buffered commercial formalin is approximately ____ formaldehyde gas by weight/volume.

1. 4%
2. 10%
3. 40%
4. 70%
5. 100%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which of these is the slowest method of decalcification?

1. EDTA
2. Formic acid
3. Hydrochloric acid
4. Nitric acid
5. Perenyi’s fluid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) Which of these is a disadvantage of xylene as a clearing agent?

1. Expensive
2. Immiscible with paraffin wax
3. Removes aniline dyes
4. Slow
5. Toxic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) What is the purpose of tissue infiltration?

1. To give structural support to the tissue
2. To keep the cells alive
3. To rehydrate the tissue
4. To remove bacteria from the tissue
5. To remove water from the tissue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) There are white patches on slides after the deparaffinization step. Which of these could be the cause?

1. The dye was overoxidized
2. The dye was too acidic
3. The dye was too alkaline
4. The slides were in xylene for an insufficient amount of time
5. The slides were too dry before deparaffinization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) Which of these is a decalcification agent?

1. Ammonia
2. EDTA
3. Formalin
4. Toluene
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) A histologist is cutting tissue into sections using a microtome. However, the tissue sections keep sticking to the block on the return stroke. Which of the following actions would correct the problem?

1. Cool the block with ice
2. Decalcify the block
3. Increase the clearance angle
4. Place the sections in the water bath
5. Tighten the knife in the holder

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) Approximately how thick is a histological section?

1. 5–10 µm
2. 50–100 µm
3. 0.5–1 mm
4. 5–10 mm
5. 50–100 mm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) What is the most widely used medium for infiltration and embedding?

1. Formic acid
2. Liquid nitrogen
3. Paraffin wax
4. Permount
5. Xylene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) Tissue flotation baths are set at what temperature?

1. 30–40°C
2. 40–50°C
3. 50–60°C
4. 60–70°C
5. 70–80°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) A lab technician cuts paraffin sections and places them in a water bath. However, the sections do not flatten properly and remain wrinkled. What should the lab technician do?

1. Change the water in the water bath
2. Check the water bath for air bubbles
3. Cut the sections smaller
4. Increase the temperature of the water bath
5. Place the sections in a vacuum integration bath

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains?

1. Hematoxylin and eosin
2. Methenamine silver and mucicarmine
3. Methylene blue and oil red
4. Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur
5. Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) What colour is hematoxylin?

1. Blue-purple
2. Green
3. Orange
4. Pink-purple
5. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) What is the decolourizer in H&E staining?

1. Acid-alcohol
2. Eosin
3. Hematoxylin
4. Orange G
5. Peroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple, or black?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Keratin
4. Mitochondria
5. Nuclei

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) What colour is eosin?

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Orange
4. Pink
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) Which of these is a common ripening agent for hematoxylin?

1. Hematin
2. Hydrochloric acid
3. Iron
4. Sodium iodate
5. Tungsten

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) The Pap stain helps detect which disease?

1. Cervical cancer
2. Cushing's syndrome
3. Granulomatosis
4. Muscular dystrophy
5. Pernicious anemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) In regressive staining, tissue sections are ___________ and then differentiated with dilute acid until the optimal endpoint is reached.

1. dehydrated
2. flattened
3. hydrated
4. overstained
5. sectioned

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.22) A section is prepared with H&E staining. Under the microscope, the nuclei appear too pale. Which of these could be the cause?

1. Insufficient dehydration
2. The pH of the eosin solution was above 5.0
3. The section was not dried properly before beginning deparaffinization
4. Understaining with eosin
5. Understaining with hematoxylin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.23) Cytological smears are usually fixed with:

1. 10% alcohol
2. 2% formalin
3. 20% formalin
4. 95% alcohol
5. toluene

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.24) What can be added to synovial fluid to reduce its viscosity?

1. 0.05% hyaluronidase
2. 1% ammonium hydroxide
3. 10x phosphate-buffered saline
4. 5% acetic acid
5. sodium chloride

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Section 9: Clinical Microbiology

9.1) Why are bacterial smears heat-fixed before staining?

1. To make the cell walls visible under the microscope
2. To make the smear easier to cut into sections
3. To prevent the cells from washing off the slide during staining
4. To provide a warm temperature for the bacteria to grow
5. To remove alcohol from the slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria?

1. Acetone
2. Crystal violet
3. Ethanol
4. Iodine
5. Safranin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) What is the correct order of reagents in Gram staining?

1. Crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
2. Crystal violet, safranin, acetone-alcohol, iodine
3. Iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol, safranin
4. Safranin, acetone-alcohol, crystal violet, iodine
5. Safranin, iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) Which microbes require oxygen levels that are lower than in the atmosphere?

1. Aerotolerant aerobes
2. Aerotolerant anaerobes
3. Facultative aerobes
4. Facultative anaerobes
5. Microaerophlies

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) What is the purpose of susceptibility testing?

1. To determine if a patient has an allergy to a drug
2. To determine the effectiveness of drug therapy
3. To identify which antibiotic will kill a pathogen
4. To identify which organism is in a specimen
5. To measure how fast a pathogen can be destroyed

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) What two gases are typically used to remove oxygen in anaerobic gas chambers?

1. Argon and methane
2. Carbon dioxide and argon
3. Carbon dioxide and methane
4. Helium and argon
5. Hydrogen and nitrogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) What colour does the methylene blue strip turn when an anaerobic environment has been achieved in an anaerobic jar?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) What term describes microorganisms that do not produce disease?

1. Apathogens
2. Aseptic organisms
3. Nonpathogens
4. Normal flora
5. Pathogens

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) What is the term for an organism that only grows when specific nutrients are included in its medium?

1. Anaerobe
2. Captious
3. Fastidious
4. Obligate
5. Pathogen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?

1. A moist environment
2. A temperature of 37°C
3. An acidic pH
4. Darkness
5. Nutrients

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.11) Which of these tests is used to differentiate between staphylococci and streptococci?

1. Catalase test
2. Citrate test
3. Coagulase test
4. Oxidase test
5. Urase test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.12) What term describes bacteria that grow best at cold temperatures?

1. Basophilic
2. Cytophilic
3. Keratinophilic
4. Psychrophilic
5. Thermophilic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.13) Yeast is a type of:

1. bacteria
2. fungus
3. mould
4. protozoa
5. virus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.14) Which agar plate can determine hemolysis?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Nutrient
5. Sabouraud

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.15) Which agar contains lactose and cystine but has a low level of electrolytes?

1. CLED
2. Hektoen enteric
3. Phenylethyl Alcohol
4. Salmonella-Shigella
5. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.16) What type of culture media promotes the growth of one type of organism while slowing the growth of others?

1. Differential
2. Enriched
3. Natural
4. Selective
5. Synthetic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.17) What organisms grow on MacConkey agar?

1. Acid-fast
2. Gram-negative
3. Gram-positive
4. Lactose positive
5. Non-acid fast

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.18) Which culture medium would be most appropriate to isolate Haemophilus influenza?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. MacConkey
4. Neomycin
5. Nutrient

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.19) What is the purpose of bile salts in agar?

1. As a general-purpose nutrient
2. To differentiate pathogenic enteric bacilli
3. To enable bacteria to produce hydrogen sulfide
4. To inhibit the growth of gram-positive bacteria
5. To provide an energy source for bacteria able to ferment bile

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.20) What variant of the blood agar plate contains red blood cells that have been lysed by slowly heating them to 80°C?

1. Chocolate
2. Hektoen Enteric
3. MacConkey
4. Phenylethyl Alcohol
5. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.21) Which agar is used to isolate gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus species and Streptococcus species?

1. Chocolate
2. Hektoen enteric
3. MacConkey
4. Phenylethyl alcohol
5. Thayer Martin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.22) Where should agar plates be stored before use?

1. In a cupboard
2. In a dry oven
3. In the freezer
4. In the fridge
5. Next to a window

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.23) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:

1. ability to ferment lactose
2. ability to hydrolyze starch
3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
4. cell wall structure
5. hemolytic activity

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.24) Which bacteria is Thayer-Martin agar used to culture and isolate?

1. E. coli
2. Klebsiella
3. Neisseria
4. Staphylococcus
5. Streptococcus

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.25) CLED agar is used to isolate bacteria from which type of specimen?

1. Blood
2. Rectal swab
3. Sputum
4. Urine
5. Vaginal swab

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.26) Which three sugars does triple sugar iron agar contain?

1. Glucose, fructose, and galactose
2. Glucose, fructose, and maltose
3. Glucose, galactose, and maltose
4. Glucose, sucrose, and galactose
5. Glucose, sucrose, and lactose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.27) What type of agar is Thayer-Martin media?

1. Blood
2. Chocolate
3. Luria Bertani
4. MacConkey
5. Neomycin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.28) After Gram staining, what colour are gram-negative organisms?

1. Dark blue
2. Green
3. Light blue
4. Purple or brown
5. Red or pink

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.29) A lab technician is performing a Gram stain. After flooding the slide with crystal violet and letting the slide stand for approximately one minute, the technician should rinse the slide with:

1. acetone
2. ethanol
3. iodine
4. safranin
5. water

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.30) The cell walls of gram-positive bacteria have what property that enables them to resist decolourization during Gram staining?

1. A high mycolic acid content
2. A layer of antigenic proteins
3. A lipid bilayer
4. A thick layer of peptidoglycan
5. Multiple endoflagella

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.31) What is the primary stain in acid-fast staining?

1. Carbol fuchsin
2. Eosin
3. Hematoxylin
4. Malachite green
5. Methylene blue

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.32) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.

1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
3. The loop should be flamed between streaks
4. The media is brought to room temperature before use
5. The media selected depends on the type of specimen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.33) What is the term for a microorganism that can live in both aerobic and anaerobic environments?

1. Apomidary
2. Facultative anaerobe
3. Multi-respiratory
4. Obligatory
5. Saprophytic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.34) Obligate aerobes:

1. are killed by oxygen
2. grow best in the absence of oxygen
3. grow best in the presence of oxygen but will also grow without it
4. grow equally well with or without oxygen
5. require oxygen to grow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.35) What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?

1. Facultative aerobe
2. Facultative anaerobe
3. Microaerophile
4. Reduced aerobe
5. Secondary aerobe

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.36) Where is a specimen for a rapid strep test obtained?

1. Ear canal
2. Nasopharynx
3. Nose
4. Rectum
5. Throat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.37) The H. pylori breath test detects which gas?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Hydrogen
4. Nitrogen
5. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.38) Which of these chemicals is used to preserve urine samples for microbiology?

1. Ammonia
2. Boric acid
3. Calcium hydroxide
4. Potassium hydroxide
5. Sodium hydroxide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.39) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?

1. To absorb toxic substances
2. To kill non-pathogens
3. To maintain a neutral pH
4. To maintain anaerobic conditions
5. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.40) When a person tests negative for COVID-19 with a rapid antigen test but is still suspected of having the virus, they should be tested with a(n):

1. ELISA
2. PCR test
3. Western blot
4. antibody test
5. lateral flow test

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Section 10: Clinical Chemistry

10.1) A urine sample is positive for hemoglobin and negative for glucose, leukocytes, and bacteria. The urine contains a normal level of urea. Which of these terms applies to the urine?

1. Hematuria
2. Hemoglobinuria
3. Hemosiderinuria
4. Urolithiasis
5. Uropygia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.2) High levels of which blood gas cause respiratory acidosis?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Methane
4. Nitrogen
5. Oxygen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.3) Which of these test results indicates diabetes?

1. A random blood glucose test of 4.5 mmol/L
2. Blood glucose level of 5.8 mmol/L two hours into a glucose tolerance test
3. Fasting blood glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L
4. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 4.8%
5. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 5.5%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.4) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.

1. blood
2. chloride
3. copper
4. lead
5. phosphatase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.5) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?

1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
5. Whether the patient has abnormal hemoglobin molecules

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.6) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?

1. Acetest
2. Clinitest
3. Ictotest
4. SSA
5. TCA

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.7) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:

1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
3. phosphates and bilirubin
4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
5. urea and aspartate transaminase

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.8) What is the minimum number of blood samples for the one-step glucose tolerance test?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.9) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, at what time should you take the final blood sample?

1. 11:00 am
2. 10:30 am
3. 11:30 am
4. 12:00 pm
5. 12:30 pm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.10) A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do?

1. Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day
2. Calculate how much sugar she has eaten, remove the same amount of sugar from the glucose drink, and then start the test
3. Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits
4. Start the test as the biscuits will not matter
5. Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.11) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 20.8 mmol/L. What should you do?

1. Do nothing and continue with the test
2. Give the patient something sugary to eat
3. Make a note and continue with the test
4. Start the test again
5. Tell the attending nurse immediately

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.12) During the glucose tolerance test, patients should:

1. sit
2. walk
3. run
4. jog
5. eat

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.13) You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 8:10 am. You give the patient the glucose drink at 8:13 am. He finishes the drink at 8:18 am. When should you collect the 1 hour specimen?

1. 9:10 am
2. 9:13 am
3. 9:15 am
4. 9:18 am
5. 9:20 am

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.14) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:

1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
4. requires a urine sample
5. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.15) Why are urine samples refrigerated?

1. To agglutinate the red blood cells
2. To increase the levels of ammonia
3. To prevent bacterial growth
4. To prevent urine from turning acidic
5. To separate the liquid from any solid components present

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.16) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?

1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
2. Centrifuge the urine sample
3. Place a coverslip over the sample
4. Remove the supernatant
5. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.17) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:

1. diluted urine
2. heated urine
3. refrigerated urine
4. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
5. the supernatant of a centrifuged urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.18) What is the normal range for the pH of urine?

1. 0.6–4.0
2. 2.6–6.0
3. 4.6–8.0
4. 6.6–10.0
5. 8.6–12.0

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.19) Which of these serum electrolyte results is abnormal?

1. Calcium: 2.3 mmol/L
2. Chloride: 101 mmol/L
3. Magnesium: 1.01 mmol/L
4. Potassium: 6.5 mmol/L
5. Sodium: 140 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.20) Which of these is a normal blood creatinine level for a man?

1. 88 µmol/L
2. 177 µmol/L
3. 265 µmol/L
4. 354 µmol/L
5. 442 µmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.21) What is the normal range for thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)?

1. 0.4–5 mU/L
2. 5.4–10 mU/L
3. 10.4–15 mU/L
4. 15.4–20 mU/L
5. 20.4–25 mU/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.22) What is the normal range for total CO₂ levels in blood?

1. 2–9 mmol/L
2. 12–19 mmol/L
3. 22–29 mmol/L
4. 32–39 mmol/L
5. 42–49 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.23) Which hemoglobin A1c value is the threshold for diagnosing diabetes?

1. >4.5%
2. >5.5%
3. >6.5%
4. >7.5%
5. >8.5%

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.24) The results of which patient are consistent with fluid overload?

Patient	Gender	Creatinine	BUN
1	Male	131 µmol/L	11.8 mmol/L
2	Female	32 µmol/L	0.5 mmol/L
3	Female	95 µmol/L	3.4 mmol/L
4	Male	70 µmol/L	7.1 mmol/L

1. Patient 1
2. Patient 2
3. Patient 3
4. Patient 4
5. The results of all patients are normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.25) What is the normal range for blood sodium levels?

1. 56–65 mmol/L
2. 76–85 mmol/L
3. 96–105 mmol/L
4. 116–125 mmol/L
5. 136–145 mmol/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.26) Which test monitors the treatment of colorectal cancer?

1. Blood urea nitrogen test
2. Carcinoembryonic antigen test
3. Circulating tumor cells test
4. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
5. Lactate dehydrogenase test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.27) uPA a marker for which cancer?

1. Bladder
2. Breast
3. Colorectal
4. Ovarian
5. Thyroid

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.28) Elevated serum acid phosphatase levels may indicate which of these diseases?

1. Gout
2. Heart disease
3. Kidney disease
4. Liver disease
5. Prostate cancer

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.29) Which of these biochemistry results is critical?

1. ALT of 12 U/L in a pregnant woman during her third trimester
2. Creatinine of 707 µmol/L in a 13-year-old
3. Fasting glucose of 4.9 mmol/L in type 2 diabetic patient
4. Potassium of 4.2 mmol/L in a pre-dialysis patient
5. Total bilirubin of 15.4 µmol/L in a 1-day-old newborn

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.30) The anion gap is used to identify errors in the measurement of:

1. electrolytes
2. platelets
3. red blood cells
4. urea
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.31) Creatinine clearance is used to estimate the:

1. body's ability to clear glucose from the bloodstream
2. glomerular filtration rate
3. glomerular secretion of creatinine
4. renal glomerular and tubular mass
5. tubular secretion of creatinine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.32) The Friedewald equation estimates the level of:

1. HDL cholesterol
2. LDL cholesterol
3. lipoproteins
4. total cholesterol
5. triglycerides

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.33) A patient's cortisol levels are higher in the morning than in the evening. This is:

1. indicative of Addison's disease
2. indicative of Cushing syndrome
3. indicative of diabetes
4. indicative of hypopituitarism
5. normal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.34) Which of these specimens is NOT suitable for the urease enzymatic method of measuring urea?

1. Ammonium heparin plasma
2. K2-EDTA plasma
3. Lithium heparin plasma
4. Serum
5. Urine

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.35) What does a high value on the anion gap test indicate?

1. Acidosis
2. Alkalosis
3. Anemia
4. Malaria
5. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.36) The following blood results are from a 55-year-old male suffering from headaches and fatigue:

Test	Result
Glucose	4.5 mmol/L
HDL cholesterol	1.9 mmol/L
LDL cholesterol	2.1 mmol/L
Sodium	105 mmol/L
Creatinine	83 µmol/L

The blood test results suggest which disease?

1. Cushing's syndrome
2. Hypercholesterolemia
3. Hyponatremia
4. Kidney disease
5. Type II diabetes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.37) Which of these is a liver function test?

1. AST test
2. Creatine kinase test
3. Creatinine test
4. T4 test
5. Troponin test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.38) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Heart
3. Kidney
4. Liver
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.39) High levels of troponin indicate damage to which organ?

1. Heart
2. Kidneys
3. Liver
4. Lungs
5. Stomach

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.40) Glomerular filtration rate measures the health of which organ?

1. Bladder
2. Gallbladder
3. Intestine
4. Kidneys
5. Liver

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.41) The parathyroid hormone test investigates abnormal levels of which mineral?

1. Calcium
2. Iron
3. Magnesium
4. Potassium
5. Sodium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10.42) Which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high when taken in high doses?

1. Biotin
2. Calcium
3. Cobalamin
4. Thiamine
5. Vitamin D

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Section 11: Clinical Hematology

11.1) Blood for a white blood cell count is generally collected in which colour vacutainer?

1. Black
2. Blue
3. Grey
4. Lavender
5. Red

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.2) What does "leukopoiesis" mean?

1. High levels of white blood cells
2. Low levels of platelets
3. The breakdown of platelets
4. The conversion of glucose to glycogen
5. The synthesis of white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.3) A fasting plasma specimen is allowed to stand undisturbed in a refrigerator. After 24 hours, the specimen is visually inspected. A white creamy layer has formed on the top of the specimen. What is this creamy layer formed of?

1. Bacteria
2. Chylomicrons
3. High-density lipoproteins
4. White blood cells
5. β-lipoproteins

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.4) Which test counts the number of immature red blood cells in a blood sample?

1. Differential
2. Osmotic fragility test
3. Red blood cell count
4. Reticulocyte count
5. Stab cell count

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.5) What does the international normalized ratio (INR) measure?

1. How long blood takes to form a clot
2. How long erythrocytes take to separate from plasma
3. The average blood glucose level over the past 3 months
4. The concentration of C-reactive protein in a blood sample
5. The ratio of oxygen to carbon dioxide in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.6) Which of these specimens is unacceptable for testing?

1. A blood specimen collected for coagulation testing in a citrate tube
2. A blood specimen in an EDTA tube that is three-quarters full
3. A centrifuged blood specimen for bilirubin testing
4. A clotted blood specimen for HbA1c testing
5. A sputum specimen containing 52 leukocytes and 5 epithelial cells per LPF

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.7) Which hematology test determines the percentage of each type of leukocyte in a blood sample?

1. CBC
2. ESR
3. Hematocrit
4. Hemoglobin determination
5. WBC differential

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.8) Which of these tests detects occult blood in stool samples?

1. Blood typing
2. Fecal fat test
3. Guaiac test
4. Hemoglobin A1c
5. Rapid urease test

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.9) Which of these statements about the Westergren and Wintrobe methods is true?

1. Most laboratories use the Wintrobe method
2. The Westergren and Wintrobe methods are two commonly used methods for measuring hematocrit
3. The Westergren tube has a smaller diameter than the Wintrobe tube
4. The Westergren tube is longer than the Wintrobe tube
5. The Wintrobe method is more accurate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.10) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):

1. anticoagulant
2. antiglycolytic agent
3. antimicrobial agent
4. clot activator
5. serum separating gel

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.11) Which of these tests can detect inflammation?

1. ESR
2. Hematocrit
3. Hemoglobin
4. RBC count
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.12) Factor assays assess problems with:

1. clotting
2. platelets
3. red blood cells
4. serum
5. white blood cells

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.13) Why is it important to mix a blood sample before performing a cell count?

1. To ensure all blood components are evenly distributed
2. To mix the anticoagulant with the blood
3. To oxygenate the sample
4. To prevent clots
5. To prevent platelets from clumping together

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.14) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?

1. EDTA
2. Heparin
3. Sodium citrate
4. Sodium fluoride
5. Sodium oxalate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.15) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:

1. changes in cell electrical currents
2. colour absorption changes
3. diffusion
4. high-frequency sound waves
5. lightwave scattering

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.16) Which of these is needed to prepare defibrinated blood?

1. Filter paper
2. Glass beads
3. Syringe filter
4. UV light
5. Vacuum pump

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.17) What unit are hemoglobin values expressed in?

1. %
2. g/dL
3. mm/hour
4. mol/L
5. number per high power field

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.18) A 1/5 dilution is made for a manual white blood cell count. The technician counts 100 WBCs in ten squares of the hemocytometer. What is the white blood cell concentration?

1. 4×10⁵ cells/uL
2. 5×10⁵ cells/uL
3. 6×10⁵ cells/uL
4. 8×10⁵ cells/uL
5. 10×10⁵ cells/uL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.19) Which of these is included in a complete blood count?

1. Blood glucose levels
2. Cholesterol levels
3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. Hematocrit
5. pH

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.20) What is Wright's stain used primarily for?

1. Blood
2. Fat
3. Nervous tissue
4. Elastic fibers
5. Decalcified bone matrix

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.21) What is the hematocrit?

1. The average mass of hemoglobin per red blood cell
2. The average volume of red blood cells
3. The rate at which red blood cells descend in a tube
4. The time it takes for blood to clot
5. The volume percentage of red blood cells in blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.22) Which platelet function test measures the time it takes for platelets to form a clot and plug a hole in a tube?

1. Closure time
2. Flow cytometry
3. Lumiaggregometry
4. Platelet aggregometry
5. Viscoelastometry

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.23) What does the term "left shift" mean in hematology?

1. A decrease in the average size of red blood cells
2. A genetic disorder affecting the structure of hemoglobin
3. An increase in the number of immature neutrophils in the blood
4. The activation of complement on the left-hand side of the body
5. The presence of glomerular-type red blood cells in the blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.24) What is a buffy coat made of?

1. Granulocytes and fibrin
2. Platelets and plasma proteins
3. Red blood cells and granulocytes
4. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
5. White blood cells and platelets

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.25) Which of these could cause a thick blood smear?

1. Holding the spreader at a very high angle
2. Spreading the blood too quickly
3. Using a drop of blood that is too small
4. Using blood with clots in it
5. Using transfused blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.26) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?

1. Leukocytosis
2. Leukodystrophy
3. Leukopenia
4. Leukopoiesis
5. Leukorrhea

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.27) What is the term for a red cell count of 3.6 × 10¹²/L in men?

1. Anemia
2. Hemophilia
3. Leukocytosis
4. Leukopenia
5. Polycythemia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.28) The prothrombin time test is often used for patients taking which medication?

1. Atorvastatin
2. Levothyroxine
3. Metformin
4. Sertraline
5. Warfarin

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.29) The partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test requires what type of blood sample?

1. Arterial
2. Coagulated
3. Decalcified
4. Defibrinated
5. Frozen

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.30) What is the normal range for a PTT test?

1. 5–10 seconds
2. 15–25 seconds
3. 25–35 seconds
4. 40–55 seconds
5. 1–2 minutes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.31) Which test evaluates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation?

1. Bleeding time
2. Closure time
3. Partial thromboplastin time
4. Prothrombin time
5. Thrombin time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.32) What does the x-axis represent on a blood cell histogram?

1. Cell colour
2. Cell shape
3. Cell size
4. Number of cells
5. Time

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.33) Calculate the mean corpuscular volume (MCV) from these results.

Test	Result
RBC	5.0 × 10¹²/L
WBC	8.5 × 10⁹/L
PLT	320 × 10⁹/L
Hct	40%
Hgb	14.5 g/dL

1. 10 fL
2. 20 fL
3. 30 fL
4. 50 fL
5. 80 fL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.34) Which red blood cell index is a measure of the variability in the size of red blood cells?

1. CBC
2. MCH
3. MCV
4. RBC
5. RDW

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.35) What two parameters are needed to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)?

1. HCT and Hgb
2. Hgb and MCV
3. RBC and HCT
4. RBC and Hgb
5. RBC and WBC

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.36) A patient has the following hematology results:

Test	Result
RBC	4.21×10¹²/L
Hemoglobin	133 g/L
Hematocrit	0.397

Use the results to calculate the mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC).

1. 10.6 g/dL
2. 10.9 g/dL
3. 25.1 g/dL
4. 31.6 g/dL
5. 33.5 g/dL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.37) What is the normal colour of serum?

1. Bright red
2. Brown
3. Dark reddish-purple
4. Pink
5. Straw-yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.38) Which of these hematology results is critical?

1. Hemoglobin: 5 g/dL
2. INR: 2.9 seconds
3. Neutrophils: 7×10⁹/L
4. PT: 11 seconds
5. Platelets: 320×10⁹/L

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.39) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?

1. Plasma
2. Serum
3. Sweat
4. Urine
5. Whole blood

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11.40) Which of these hematology tests is outside the normal range?

1. PLT: 257 × 10⁹/L
2. PLT: 321 × 10⁹/L
3. RBC: 7.2 × 10¹²/L
4. WBC: 5.4 × 10⁹/L
5. WBC: 8.1 × 10⁹/L

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Section 12: Transfusion Medicine

12.1) At which temperature do warm antibodies react with red blood cells?

1. 15°C
2. 21°C
3. 37°C
4. 55°C
5. 100°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.2) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Grey
4. Pink
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.3) 1,000 cc of blood is equivalent to how many millilitres?

1. 220 mL
2. 450 mL
3. 750 mL
4. 850 mL
5. 1,000 mL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.4) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:

1. acids and bases
2. antigens and antibodies
3. lysing agents and red blood cells
4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
5. protons and electrons

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.5) A 70 kg non-bleeding man has a hematocrit of 31%. How many units of red blood cells are needed to raise his hematocrit to 40%?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
5. 5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.6) A patient with type A blood can receive which types of blood?

1. A and B
2. A and O
3. A, O, and AB
4. B
5. O, B, and AB

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.7) The antiglobulin test is also known as the _________ test.

1. Coombs
2. Fernsby
3. Gastrell
4. Loughty
5. Sallow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.8) Which of these blood products needs to be irradiated before being transfused into a patient?

1. Cryoprecipitate
2. Fractionated plasma products
3. Fresh frozen plasma
4. Frozen washed red cells
5. Granulocytes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.9) Why is donated blood kept refrigerated?

1. Because blood must be transfused cold
2. To increase its oxygen-carrying capacity
3. To prevent coagulation
4. To prevent the blood from producing alloantibodies
5. To slow bacterial growth

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.10) One unit of blood is equivalent to how many millilitres?

1. 450
2. 550
3. 800
4. 1,000
5. 1,200

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.11) Whole blood is stored between:

1. −12°C and −18°C
2. −6°C and 3°C
3. 2°C and 6°C
4. 8°C and 16°C
5. 36°C and 38°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.12) At what temperature is cryoprecipitate stored?

1. –18°C or below
2. –2°C to –16°C
3. 2–6°C
4. 21°C
5. 37°C

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.13) In antibody screens, what is the best pH for the incubation phase?

1. 6.8–7.2
2. 7.2–7.5
3. 7.5–7.8
4. 7.8–8.2
5. 8.2–8.6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.14) What type of transfusion reaction is caused by the destruction of incompatible red blood cells?

1. Anaphylactic
2. Febrile non-hemolytic
3. Hemolytic
4. Septic
5. Simple allergic

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.15) What is the most serious transfusion reaction?

1. Acute immune hemolytic reaction
2. Allergic reaction
3. Delayed hemolytic reaction
4. Febrile reaction
5. Graft-versus-host disease

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.16) People whose cells have the D antigen are known as:

1. D carriers
2. IgD-positive
3. RHAG carriers
4. Rh-positive
5. pro-D

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.17) What is the most common blood type in Canada?

1. AB–
2. B–
3. B–
4. O+
5. O–

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.18) A B− patient requires a blood transfusion but no B− blood is available. From which of these donors could the patient safely receive blood?

1. A+
2. AB+
3. A−
4. B+
5. O−

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12.19) A person with B and D antigens on their red blood cells is called:

1. A negative
2. A positive
3. B negative
4. B positive
5. O negative

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Section 13: Electrocardiograms

13.1) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:

1. <40 bpm
2. 40–60 bpm
3. 60–80 bpm
4. 80–100 bpm
5. >100 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.2) What is a Holter monitor?

1. A device that monitors the patient's brain activity during an ECG
2. A device that monitors the patient's breathing during an ECG
3. A portable ECG that measures a patient's heart activity over 24 hours or longer
4. A special ECG for measuring a patient's heart activity during an exercise stress test
5. A specialized 20-lead ECG designed for observing abnormal heartbeats that only occur intermittently

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.3) Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG?

1. To check for problems with the flow of electricity through the heart
2. To detect arrhythmias
3. To evaluate heart conditions
4. To evaluate the rate and rhythm of breathing
5. To see how well the heart is contracting and pumping

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.4) Which electrodes are used for lead III in electrocardiography?

1. LA and LL
2. LA and RA
3. LA and RL
4. RA and LL
5. RA and RL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.5) In electrocardiography, aVR, aVL, and aVF are called the:

1. alternating voltage leads
2. amplified voltage leads
3. augmented limb leads
4. depolarization-repolarization leads
5. standard chest leads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.6) In the IEC (International Electrotechnical Commission) system of ECG lead colour coding, what colour is the right arm electrode?

1. Black
2. Green
3. Red
4. White
5. Yellow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.7) When preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram, where is the V3 electrode placed?

1. Between the right shoulder and right wrist
2. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
3. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
4. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
5. Midway between V2 and V4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.8) In what lead is the QT interval best measured?

1. Lead I
2. Lead II
3. Lead III
4. aVL
5. aVR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.9) The special lead positions below help to diagnose which arrhythmia?

1. Atrial flutter
2. Bradycardia
3. Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)
4. Ventricular fibrillation
5. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.10) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:

1. AVE
2. AVF
3. AVL
4. AVM
5. AVR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.11) In setting up an ECG, where on the body is the LA electrode placed?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.12) Which ECG electrode is placed near the patient's right ankle?

1. LA
2. LL
3. RA
4. RL
5. V1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.13) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?

1. RA, LA and LL
2. RA, LA and RL
3. RA, LL and RL
4. V1, V2 and V3
5. V4, V5 and V6

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.14) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?

1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
5. Attaching the V3 lead midway between the V2 and V4 leads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.15) Which part of an ECG strip represents ventricular repolarization?

1. P wave
2. PR interval
3. QRS complex
4. S wave
5. T wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.16) To calculate the heart rate from an ECG rhythm strip, you can count the number of QRS complexes on the six-second strip and multiply by:

1. 6
2. 10
3. 16
4. 24
5. 60

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.17) What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?

1. J point
2. PR interval
3. QRS complex
4. QT interval
5. S wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.18) The figure below is an ECG representation of a heartbeat: Which arrow points to the S wave?

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d
5. e

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.19) One centimetre on ECG graph paper represents how many millivolts?

1. 0.1
2. 0.5
3. 1
4. 5
5. 10

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.20) What is the heart rate in this ECG strip?

1. 50 bpm
2. 75 bpm
3. 100 bpm
4. 150 bpm
5. 300 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.21) An alternating current artifact during an ECG can be identified by:

1. a fuzzy, irregular baseline
2. a wandering baseline
3. an interrupted baseline
4. large wavy lines
5. small spiked lines

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.22) What causes muscle artifacts on ECGs?

1. A broken cable
2. Body creams on the skin
3. Electrical interference
4. Electrodes that are too loose
5. Patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13.23) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?

1. AC interference
2. Baseline wander
3. CPR compression
4. Loose lead
5. Muscle tremor

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