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100 Special Pharmacology questions

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1) Which groups of antibacterials have a bacteriostatic effect?
  1. Tetracyclines
  2. Sulfonamides
  3. Beta-lactams
  4. Amphenicols
 2) What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactamase antibiotics based on?
  1. The binding of 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
  2. The binding on the specific binding protein
  3. The inhibition the active site of the transpeptidase enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan strands
  4. Activation of autolytic enzymes (inactivation of inhibitor)
 3) Cephalosporins are indicated to treat:
  1. Meningitis
  2. Urinary tract infections
  3. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
  4. Pneumonia
 4) Which of the amphenicols are used to treat infections of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract?
  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Thiamphenicol
  3. Florenicol
  4. Azidamphenicol
 5) Tetracyclines are indicated in:
  1. Local, organs and systemic infections
  2. Nephritis and hepatitis
  3. Osteomyelitis and arthritis
  4. Yeast infections
 6) Lincomycin and clindamycin belong to:
  1. Macrolides
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Lincosamides
  4. Tetracyclines
 7) Rifampicin (rifampin) is used to treat:
  1. Mastitis in cows
  2. Chronic granulomatous skin infection in dog
  3. Dysentery in swine
  4. Mycoplasma infections in poultry
 8) Sulfonamides are the structural analogs of?
  1. Deoxyribonucleic acid
  2. Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
  3. Folic acid
  4. Clavulanic acid
 9) Quinolones are contraindicated?
  1. In geriatric animals
  2. In animals with pyodermia
  3. In animals with known or suspected cns disorders
  4. In animals in pregnancy and during lactation
 10) Which groups do antihelmintics belong to?
  1. Antiprotozoals
  2. Antitrematodals
  3. Antinematodal
  4. Anticestodal
 11) Metronidazole and dimetrazole are used to treat:
  1. Coccidiosis
  2. Antitrichomoniasis and antihistomoniasis
  3. Metritis
  4. CNS disorders
 12) Mebendazol acts as an:
  1. Antinematodal agent
  2. Antitrematodal agent
  3. Anticestodal agent
  4. Antiectoparasitical agent
 13) Macrocyclic lactones are not effective against?
  1. Nematodes
  2. Trematodes
  3. Cestodes
  4. Ectoparasites
 14) Which of the following antiparasitic drugs are contraindicated for some dog breeds (collie, sheltie, long-haired whipped, australian shepherd)?
  1. Moxidectin
  2. Nitroscanate
  3. Ivermectin
  4. Eprinomectin
 15) Cypermetrine is an?
  1. Antinematodical
  2. Antitrematodical
  3. Anticestodical
  4. Antiectoparasitical (pesticide) agent
 16) Which of the following agents is not a local anesthetic?
  1. Procaine
  2. Tetracaine
  3. Metacaine
  4. Tiletamine
 17) Azaperone is used as:
  1. Anticonvulsive
  2. Neuroleptic
  3. Injection anesthetic
  4. Ataractic agent
 18) Alpha-2-adrenergic agonistic sedatives are?
  1. Diazepam and zolazepam (benzodiazepines)
  2. Detomidine and medetomidine
  3. Xylazine and romifidine
  4. Azaperone and droperidol (neuroleptic and antiemetic)
 19) Smooth muscle seizures (GIT) are relaxed by:
  1. Meloxicam (analgesic)
  2. Atipamezole (antisedan)
  3. Metamizole
  4. Triamcinolone (yeast and bac. Ear infection)
 20) What does Benazepril do?
  1. Stimulates the dopamine receptors
  2. Stimulates the production of surfactante
  3. Inhibits the angiotensin converting enzyme
  4. Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (pde)
 21) What do Mucolytics do?
  1. Break down respiratory mucus and enhance clearance
  2. Decrease the frequency and intensity of cough
  3. Stimulate the removal of mucus by coughing (expectorants)
  4. Stimulate the ?2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
 22) The steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
  1. Inhitbit the synthesis of cytokines (decrease)
  2. Inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators
  3. Inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
  4. Inhibit the enzyme hyaluronsynthetase (decrease)
 23) Flunixin is indicated in?
  1. Bronchopneumonia
  2. Diarrhea
  3. Acute and chronic inflammatory disease of skeletal apparatus
  4. Heart failure
 24) Oxytocin is indicated?
  1. In atony of uterus after parturition
  2. In agalactia
  3. In spasms of uterus
  4. As a protective of pregnancy
 25) Chlorhexidine is used as:
  1. Anesthetic
  2. Antiflogistic
  3. Antiseptic
  4. Antiparazitic agent
 26) Amoxicillin and ampicillin are pencillins:
  1. With a narrow spectrum
  2. With an extended spectrum
  3. With penicillinase-resistance
  4. With a broad spectrum
 27) Tetracyclines?
  1. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes
  2. Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of microbial ribosomes
  3. Inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
  4. Inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase
 28) Valnemuline is used to treat:
  1. Vulvovaginitis in mares
  2. Dysentery in swine
  3. Acute masitis of cows
 29) Bacitracine is used to treat:
  1. Upper respiratory tract infections
  2. Skin, ear and eye infections
  3. Gastrointestinal infections
  4. Bovine mastitis
 30) What is the effect of quinolones?
  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Bactericidal
  3. Bacteriostatic in low doses
  4. Bactericidal in high doses
 31) Which of the listed agents are used to control coccidiosis?
  1. Metronidazole, dimetridazole, ornidazole
  2. Homidium, imidocarb, quinuronium
  3. Monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin
  4. Diclazuril, nicarbazin, robenidine
 32) Febantel is an:
  1. Antinematodical
  2. Antitrematocidal
  3. Anticestodical
  4. Antiprotozoal agent
 33) Which of the following belong to ectoparasiticides?
  1. Benzimidazoles
  2. Macrocyclic lactones
  3. Halogenated salicylanilides
  4. Ionophores
 34) Amitraz is effective against?
  1. Fleas and lice
  2. Ticks
  3. Mange in cattle, pig and dog
  4. Tapeworm
 35) Halothane is used to:
  1. Induce anesthesia
  2. Alleviate the joints pain
  3. Regulate of cardiac arrhytmias
  4. Improve the hepatic metabolism
 36) What is Propofol?
  1. General IV anesthesia
  2. Neuroleptic
  3. Parasympathomimetic
  4. Sedative
 37) Drugs suppressing fear, tension and aggression in animals are called:
  1. Sedatives
  2. Anticonvulsives
  3. Tranquilisers
  4. Analeptics
 38) Romifidine is used as a:
  1. Neuroleptic
  2. Anticonvulsive
  3. Sedative
  4. Spasmolytic drug
 39) Which of these is used as an antitussive agent?
  1. Dextromethorphan
  2. Clenbuterol
  3. Acetylcysteine
  4. Codeine
 40) What is the effect of meloxicam?
  1. Anti-inflammatory
  2. Antipyretic
  3. Analgetic
  4. Chondroprotective
 41) What do salivary stimulants do?
  1. Increase the appetite in animal to consume feed and promote digestion
  2. Relieve or stop the symptoms of diarrhea
  3. Operate supplementation in the disorders of energy supply precursors in digestive tract of polygastric animals
  4. Stimulate the production and secretion of bile, pancreatic and gastric enzyme
 42) Frequency and force of uterine contraction is stimulated by:
  1. Prolactin
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Estradiol
  4. Ergometrine
 43) Which of the following agents is effective against dermatophytes (ringworm)?
  1. Tannic acid
  2. Ketoconazole
  3. Itraconazole
  4. Eniloconazole
 44) Iodophors are used as:
  1. Anticoccidial agents
  2. Emetic agents
  3. Antiseptic agents
  4. Chondroprotecive agents
 45) Tocopherol is indicated for:
  1. Softening of the bone
  2. Visual disturbance
  3. Megaloblastic anemia
  4. Myodystrophy
 46) Which of the following antimicrobials influence the permeability of cell membranes?
  1. Sulfonamides
  2. Tetracyclines
  3. Polyene antibiotics
  4. Aminoglycosides
 47) Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are?
  1. Ampicillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin
  2. Carbecillin, cloxacilli, dicloxacillin
  3. Cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin
 48) Streptomycin, neomycin and gentamycin belong to?
  1. Macrolides
  2. Aminoglycosides
  3. Tetracyclines
  4. Penicillins
 49) Tetracyclines have the following unwanted effects?
  1. GIT abnormalities
  2. Hepatotoxicity
  3. Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
  4. All of the above
 50) Tiamulin and valnemulin belong to?
  1. Ansamycins
  2. Diterpene antibiotic
  3. Extended-spectrum penicillins
  4. Macrolides
 51) Agents potentiating sulfonamides are?
  1. Trimethoprim, ormetoprim, diaveridine
  2. Sulbactam, clavulanic acid
  3. Paba, clavulanic acid
  4. Paba, dihydrofolic acid
 52) Which of these agents are not quinolones?
  1. Difloxacin
  2. Marbofloxacin
  3. Cephalexin
  4. Cephalotin
 53) Praziquantel is effective against:
  1. Cestodes (tapeworms)
  2. Fleas and lices
  3. Trematodes
  4. Nematodes
 54) Which of the following general anesthesics belong to inhalants?
  1. Thiopental
  2. Desfluran
  3. Ketamine
  4. Propofol
 55) Which of the following local anesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional anesthesia?
  1. Procaine
  2. Lidocaine
  3. Ketamine
  4. All of the above
 56) Atropine is indicated:
  1. In premedication of anesthesia
  2. Spasmolytic agent
  3. In heart arrhythmia
  4. To treat glaucoma
 57) Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
  1. Morphine
  2. Buprenoophine
  3. Naloxone
  4. Butorphanol
 58) Which of the following property combination is peculiar (special) to the majority of NSAIDs?
  1. Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
  2. Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
  3. Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
  4. Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic
 59) Ketoprofen and carprofen are?
  1. Antitussive drugs
  2. Anti-inflammatory drugs
  3. Fungicidal drugs
  4. Chondroprotectives
 60) Aluminum silicate (kaolin) is used?
  1. As a sedative
  2. As a treatment of heart arrhytmias
  3. As an antacid (line stomach and relieve heartburn)
  4. As an antiseptic
 61) Which of the following agents are indicated for synchronisation of oestrus?
  1. Gonadorelin
  2. Altrenogest
  3. Melengestrol
  4. Nandrolone
 62) What does iron deficiency cause?
  1. Anemia
  2. Hypogonadism
  3. Increase of GIT peristatic
  4. Osteopathies
 63) Antibiotic inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis is?
  1. Erythtromycin
  2. Tylosin
  3. Rifampin
  4. Rifaximin
 64) What is the effect of lincosamides?
  1. Bacteriostatic
  2. Bacteriocidal
  3. Bacteriostatic in low doses
  4. Bbacteriocidal in high doses
 65) Sulfonamides have the following unwanted side effects?
  1. Hematopoietic disturbances
  2. Crystal urea
  3. Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
  4. All of the above
 66) What drugs belong to quinolones?
  1. Oxacyline
  2. Flumequine
  3. Enrofloxacin
  4. Orbifloxacin
 67) What are ionopores effective against?
  1. Coccidia
  2. Round worm
  3. Tape worm or flukes
 68) Levamizole, netomidine, febantel are?
  1. Antinematodal
  2. Anti protozoan
  3. Antitrematodal
  4. Anticestodal
 69) Which of the following are NOT macrocyclic lactones?
  1. Doramectin
  2. Selamectin
  3. Neobimin
  4. Ciosantel
 70) Carbaryl and propoxur are used against?
  1. Nematodes
  2. Trematodes
  3. Cestoda
  4. Ectoparasites
 71) The state of general anesthesia usually includes?
  1. Analgesia
  2. Loss of consciousness inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
  3. Amnesia
  4. All of the above
 72) Pancuronium and vecuronium produce?
  1. Motility of GIT
  2. Muscle relaxant
 73) Indicate the sedative drug which is a phenothiazine derivative?
  1. Xylazine
  2. Apipamisole
  3. Acepromazine
  4. Chlorpromazine
 74) Morphine causes the following effects, EXCEPT for:
  1. Constipation
  2. Dilatation of biliary duct
  3. Coronary vasoconstriction
  4. Miosis
 75) What of the following agents are NOT NSAIDs?
  1. Sulfasalazine
  2. Carprofen
  3. Ketoprofen
  4. Triamcinolone
 76) What diuretic agent is used to treat hypertension?
  1. Benazepril
  2. Hydrochlorotiazide
  3. Captopril
  4. Prazosine
 77) Theopylline is indicated?
  1. In the management of intrathoracic collapsing trachea
  2. For cough suppression
  3. Treatment of productive cough
  4. To stimulate respiration after anesthesia
 78) which laxative drug belongs to neuromuscular purgatives?
  1. Magnesium sulfate
  2. Dihydroxyant
  3. Dimeticonum
  4. Carbachol
 79) What is used to release spasm of smooth muscles in GIT?
  1. Anocoline
  2. Atropine
  3. Scopolamine
  4. Papaverine
 80) All of the following agents are esterogens, except for:
  1. Mestranol
  2. Diethyl stilbosterol
  3. Altrenogest
  4. Estradiol
 81) Which of the following is a fatsoluble (lipophilic) vitamin?
  1. Asorbic acid (Vit C)
  2. Tocopherol (Vit E)
  3. Thiamine (Vit B1)
  4. Riboflavine (Vit B2)
 82) Which vitamin is an antisterility vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin E
  3. Vitamin B7
 83) Which medication can be given and will not break down in the gastric juice?
  1. Penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin)
  2. Oxacillin and cloxacillin
 84) Codeine is used for:
  1. Coughing treatment
  2. Tracheal collapse
  3. Antitussive
 85) Which of the following are effects of atropine?
  1. Spasmolytic
  2. Intestinal hypermotility
  3. Salivation
 86) What is Rifampin's mode of action?
  1. Nucelic acid inhibition
  2. Protein synthesis inhibition
  3. Damage of cell envelope
 87) What is beta-lactam's mode of action?
  1. Nucelic acid inhibition
  2. Protein synthesis inhibition
  3. Inhibits cell wall synthesis
 88) Quinolones are?
  1. Bacteristatic
  2. Bactericidal
 89) Which drug is a natural progestin?
  1. Estradiol
  2. Estrogen
  3. Progesterone
 90) Cytochrome 450 mechanism. What does pinching of the ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum do?
  1. Cytochrome p450 are responsible for most of phase I reactions in drug detoxification.
  2. Metabolism
  3. Detoxification
  4. Increase ph
 91) Which is not considered pharmacokinetics?
  1. Absorption
  2. Distribution
  3. Mechanism of drug action
  4. Elimination
 92) Which of these is an osmotic laxative?
  1. Magnesium salt (Glauber salt)
  2. Sodium salts (Epsom salts)
  3. Sugar alcohol (mannitol and sorbitol)
  4. All of the above
 93) What are the mosot influencial factors on capillary diffusion?
  1. Protein levels
  2. Hydrostatic pressure
  3. Net filtration pressure
  4. All of the above
 94) What do antiparasitic drugs do?
  1. Interior the parasites reproductive cycle
  2. Paralysis of the parasites peripheral muscles
  3. Inhibit the energy production
  4. All of the above
 95) Which of these medications is an antiemetic?
  1. Amoxicillin
  2. Dimethicone
  3. Metoclopramide
  4. Xylazine

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