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1)
Which groups of antibacterials have a bacteriostatic effect?
- Tetracyclines
- Sulfonamides
- Beta-lactams
- Amphenicols
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2)
What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactamase antibiotics based on?
- The binding of 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes
- The binding on the specific binding protein
- The inhibition the active site of the transpeptidase enzyme that cross-links the peptidoglycan strands
- Activation of autolytic enzymes (inactivation of inhibitor)
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3)
Cephalosporins are indicated to treat:
- Meningitis
- Urinary tract infections
- Osteomyelitis and arthritis
- Pneumonia
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4)
Which of the amphenicols are used to treat infections of the respiratory and gastrointestinal tract?
- Chloramphenicol
- Thiamphenicol
- Florenicol
- Azidamphenicol
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5)
Tetracyclines are indicated in:
- Local, organs and systemic infections
- Nephritis and hepatitis
- Osteomyelitis and arthritis
- Yeast infections
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6)
Lincomycin and clindamycin belong to:
- Macrolides
- Aminoglycosides
- Lincosamides
- Tetracyclines
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7)
Rifampicin (rifampin) is used to treat:
- Mastitis in cows
- Chronic granulomatous skin infection in dog
- Dysentery in swine
- Mycoplasma infections in poultry
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8)
Sulfonamides are the structural analogs of?
- Deoxyribonucleic acid
- Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA)
- Folic acid
- Clavulanic acid
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9)
Quinolones are contraindicated?
- In geriatric animals
- In animals with pyodermia
- In animals with known or suspected cns disorders
- In animals in pregnancy and during lactation
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10)
Which groups do antihelmintics belong to?
- Antiprotozoals
- Antitrematodals
- Antinematodal
- Anticestodal
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11)
Metronidazole and dimetrazole are used to treat:
- Coccidiosis
- Antitrichomoniasis and antihistomoniasis
- Metritis
- CNS disorders
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12)
Mebendazol acts as an:
- Antinematodal agent
- Antitrematodal agent
- Anticestodal agent
- Antiectoparasitical agent
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13)
Macrocyclic lactones are not effective against?
- Nematodes
- Trematodes
- Cestodes
- Ectoparasites
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14)
Which of the following antiparasitic drugs are contraindicated for some dog breeds (collie, sheltie, long-haired whipped, australian shepherd)?
- Moxidectin
- Nitroscanate
- Ivermectin
- Eprinomectin
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15)
Cypermetrine is an?
- Antinematodical
- Antitrematodical
- Anticestodical
- Antiectoparasitical (pesticide) agent
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16)
Which of the following agents is not a local anesthetic?
- Procaine
- Tetracaine
- Metacaine
- Tiletamine
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17)
Azaperone is used as:
- Anticonvulsive
- Neuroleptic
- Injection anesthetic
- Ataractic agent
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18)
Alpha-2-adrenergic agonistic sedatives are?
- Diazepam and zolazepam (benzodiazepines)
- Detomidine and medetomidine
- Xylazine and romifidine
- Azaperone and droperidol (neuroleptic and antiemetic)
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19)
Smooth muscle seizures (GIT) are relaxed by:
- Meloxicam (analgesic)
- Atipamezole (antisedan)
- Metamizole
- Triamcinolone (yeast and bac. Ear infection)
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20)
What does Benazepril do?
- Stimulates the dopamine receptors
- Stimulates the production of surfactante
- Inhibits the angiotensin converting enzyme
- Inhibits the enzyme phosphodiesterase (pde)
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21)
What do Mucolytics do?
- Break down respiratory mucus and enhance clearance
- Decrease the frequency and intensity of cough
- Stimulate the removal of mucus by coughing (expectorants)
- Stimulate the ?2-adrenergic receptors in bronchial smooth muscle
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22)
The steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs?
- Inhitbit the synthesis of cytokines (decrease)
- Inhibit the release of inflammatory mediators
- Inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase
- Inhibit the enzyme hyaluronsynthetase (decrease)
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23)
Flunixin is indicated in?
- Bronchopneumonia
- Diarrhea
- Acute and chronic inflammatory disease of skeletal apparatus
- Heart failure
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24)
Oxytocin is indicated?
- In atony of uterus after parturition
- In agalactia
- In spasms of uterus
- As a protective of pregnancy
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25)
Chlorhexidine is used as:
- Anesthetic
- Antiflogistic
- Antiseptic
- Antiparazitic agent
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26)
Amoxicillin and ampicillin are pencillins:
- With a narrow spectrum
- With an extended spectrum
- With penicillinase-resistance
- With a broad spectrum
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27)
Tetracyclines?
- Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 30s subunit of microbial ribosomes
- Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50s subunit of microbial ribosomes
- Inhibit the synthesis of cell wall
- Inhibit the enzyme transpeptidase
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28)
Valnemuline is used to treat:
- Vulvovaginitis in mares
- Dysentery in swine
- Acute masitis of cows
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29)
Bacitracine is used to treat:
- Upper respiratory tract infections
- Skin, ear and eye infections
- Gastrointestinal infections
- Bovine mastitis
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30)
What is the effect of quinolones?
- Bacteriostatic
- Bactericidal
- Bacteriostatic in low doses
- Bactericidal in high doses
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31)
Which of the listed agents are used to control coccidiosis?
- Metronidazole, dimetridazole, ornidazole
- Homidium, imidocarb, quinuronium
- Monensin, lasalocid, salinomycin
- Diclazuril, nicarbazin, robenidine
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32)
Febantel is an:
- Antinematodical
- Antitrematocidal
- Anticestodical
- Antiprotozoal agent
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33)
Which of the following belong to ectoparasiticides?
- Benzimidazoles
- Macrocyclic lactones
- Halogenated salicylanilides
- Ionophores
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34)
Amitraz is effective against?
- Fleas and lice
- Ticks
- Mange in cattle, pig and dog
- Tapeworm
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35)
Halothane is used to:
- Induce anesthesia
- Alleviate the joints pain
- Regulate of cardiac arrhytmias
- Improve the hepatic metabolism
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36)
What is Propofol?
- General IV anesthesia
- Neuroleptic
- Parasympathomimetic
- Sedative
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37)
Drugs suppressing fear, tension and aggression in animals are called:
- Sedatives
- Anticonvulsives
- Tranquilisers
- Analeptics
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38)
Romifidine is used as a:
- Neuroleptic
- Anticonvulsive
- Sedative
- Spasmolytic drug
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39)
Which of these is used as an antitussive agent?
- Dextromethorphan
- Clenbuterol
- Acetylcysteine
- Codeine
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40)
What is the effect of meloxicam?
- Anti-inflammatory
- Antipyretic
- Analgetic
- Chondroprotective
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41)
What do salivary stimulants do?
- Increase the appetite in animal to consume feed and promote digestion
- Relieve or stop the symptoms of diarrhea
- Operate supplementation in the disorders of energy supply precursors in digestive tract of polygastric animals
- Stimulate the production and secretion of bile, pancreatic and gastric enzyme
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42)
Frequency and force of uterine contraction is stimulated by:
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
- Estradiol
- Ergometrine
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43)
Which of the following agents is effective against dermatophytes (ringworm)?
- Tannic acid
- Ketoconazole
- Itraconazole
- Eniloconazole
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44)
Iodophors are used as:
- Anticoccidial agents
- Emetic agents
- Antiseptic agents
- Chondroprotecive agents
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45)
Tocopherol is indicated for:
- Softening of the bone
- Visual disturbance
- Megaloblastic anemia
- Myodystrophy
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46)
Which of the following antimicrobials influence the permeability of cell membranes?
- Sulfonamides
- Tetracyclines
- Polyene antibiotics
- Aminoglycosides
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47)
Penicillinase-resistant penicillins are?
- Ampicillin, oxacillin, cloxacillin
- Carbecillin, cloxacilli, dicloxacillin
- Cloxacillin, dicloxacillin, nafcillin
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48)
Streptomycin, neomycin and gentamycin belong to?
- Macrolides
- Aminoglycosides
- Tetracyclines
- Penicillins
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49)
Tetracyclines have the following unwanted effects?
- GIT abnormalities
- Hepatotoxicity
- Dental hypoplasia, bone deformities
- All of the above
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50)
Tiamulin and valnemulin belong to?
- Ansamycins
- Diterpene antibiotic
- Extended-spectrum penicillins
- Macrolides
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51)
Agents potentiating sulfonamides are?
- Trimethoprim, ormetoprim, diaveridine
- Sulbactam, clavulanic acid
- Paba, clavulanic acid
- Paba, dihydrofolic acid
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52)
Which of these agents are not quinolones?
- Difloxacin
- Marbofloxacin
- Cephalexin
- Cephalotin
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53)
Praziquantel is effective against:
- Cestodes (tapeworms)
- Fleas and lices
- Trematodes
- Nematodes
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54)
Which of the following general anesthesics belong to inhalants?
- Thiopental
- Desfluran
- Ketamine
- Propofol
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55)
Which of the following local anesthetics is used for infiltrative and regional anesthesia?
- Procaine
- Lidocaine
- Ketamine
- All of the above
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56)
Atropine is indicated:
- In premedication of anesthesia
- Spasmolytic agent
- In heart arrhythmia
- To treat glaucoma
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57)
Which of the following agents is a full antagonist of opioid receptors?
- Morphine
- Buprenoophine
- Naloxone
- Butorphanol
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58)
Which of the following property combination is peculiar (special) to the majority of NSAIDs?
- Antihistaminic, antipyretic, analgesic
- Immunodepressive, anti-inflammatory, analgesic
- Antipyretic, analgesic, anti-inflammatory
- Anti-inflammatory, immunodepressive, antihistaminic
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59)
Ketoprofen and carprofen are?
- Antitussive drugs
- Anti-inflammatory drugs
- Fungicidal drugs
- Chondroprotectives
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60)
Aluminum silicate (kaolin) is used?
- As a sedative
- As a treatment of heart arrhytmias
- As an antacid (line stomach and relieve heartburn)
- As an antiseptic
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61)
Which of the following agents are indicated for synchronisation of oestrus?
- Gonadorelin
- Altrenogest
- Melengestrol
- Nandrolone
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62)
What does iron deficiency cause?
- Anemia
- Hypogonadism
- Increase of GIT peristatic
- Osteopathies
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63)
Antibiotic inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis is?
- Erythtromycin
- Tylosin
- Rifampin
- Rifaximin
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64)
What is the effect of lincosamides?
- Bacteriostatic
- Bacteriocidal
- Bacteriostatic in low doses
- Bbacteriocidal in high doses
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65)
Sulfonamides have the following unwanted side effects?
- Hematopoietic disturbances
- Crystal urea
- Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea
- All of the above
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66)
What drugs belong to quinolones?
- Oxacyline
- Flumequine
- Enrofloxacin
- Orbifloxacin
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67)
What are ionopores effective against?
- Coccidia
- Round worm
- Tape worm or flukes
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68)
Levamizole, netomidine, febantel are?
- Antinematodal
- Anti protozoan
- Antitrematodal
- Anticestodal
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69)
Which of the following are NOT macrocyclic lactones?
- Doramectin
- Selamectin
- Neobimin
- Ciosantel
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70)
Carbaryl and propoxur are used against?
- Nematodes
- Trematodes
- Cestoda
- Ectoparasites
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71)
The state of general anesthesia usually includes?
- Analgesia
- Loss of consciousness inhibition of sensory and autonomic reflexes
- Amnesia
- All of the above
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72)
Pancuronium and vecuronium produce?
- Motility of GIT
- Muscle relaxant
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73)
Indicate the sedative drug which is a phenothiazine derivative?
- Xylazine
- Apipamisole
- Acepromazine
- Chlorpromazine
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74)
Morphine causes the following effects, EXCEPT for:
- Constipation
- Dilatation of biliary duct
- Coronary vasoconstriction
- Miosis
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75)
What of the following agents are NOT NSAIDs?
- Sulfasalazine
- Carprofen
- Ketoprofen
- Triamcinolone
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76)
What diuretic agent is used to treat hypertension?
- Benazepril
- Hydrochlorotiazide
- Captopril
- Prazosine
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77)
Theopylline is indicated?
- In the management of intrathoracic collapsing trachea
- For cough suppression
- Treatment of productive cough
- To stimulate respiration after anesthesia
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78)
which laxative drug belongs to neuromuscular purgatives?
- Magnesium sulfate
- Dihydroxyant
- Dimeticonum
- Carbachol
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79)
What is used to release spasm of smooth muscles in GIT?
- Anocoline
- Atropine
- Scopolamine
- Papaverine
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80)
All of the following agents are esterogens, except for:
- Mestranol
- Diethyl stilbosterol
- Altrenogest
- Estradiol
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81)
Which of the following is a fatsoluble (lipophilic) vitamin?
- Asorbic acid (Vit C)
- Tocopherol (Vit E)
- Thiamine (Vit B1)
- Riboflavine (Vit B2)
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82)
Which vitamin is an antisterility vitamin?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin B7
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83)
Which medication can be given and will not break down in the gastric juice?
- Penicillin V (phenoxymethylpenicillin)
- Oxacillin and cloxacillin
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84)
Codeine is used for:
- Coughing treatment
- Tracheal collapse
- Antitussive
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85)
Which of the following are effects of atropine?
- Spasmolytic
- Intestinal hypermotility
- Salivation
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86)
What is Rifampin's mode of action?
- Nucelic acid inhibition
- Protein synthesis inhibition
- Damage of cell envelope
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87)
What is beta-lactam's mode of action?
- Nucelic acid inhibition
- Protein synthesis inhibition
- Inhibits cell wall synthesis
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88)
Quinolones are?
- Bacteristatic
- Bactericidal
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89)
Which drug is a natural progestin?
- Estradiol
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
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90)
Cytochrome 450 mechanism. What does pinching of the ribosomes from the endoplasmic reticulum do?
- Cytochrome p450 are responsible for most of phase I reactions in drug detoxification.
- Metabolism
- Detoxification
- Increase ph
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91)
Which is not considered pharmacokinetics?
- Absorption
- Distribution
- Mechanism of drug action
- Elimination
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92)
Which of these is an osmotic laxative?
- Magnesium salt (Glauber salt)
- Sodium salts (Epsom salts)
- Sugar alcohol (mannitol and sorbitol)
- All of the above
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93)
What are the mosot influencial factors on capillary diffusion?
- Protein levels
- Hydrostatic pressure
- Net filtration pressure
- All of the above
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94)
What do antiparasitic drugs do?
- Interior the parasites reproductive cycle
- Paralysis of the parasites peripheral muscles
- Inhibit the energy production
- All of the above
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95)
Which of these medications is an antiemetic?
- Amoxicillin
- Dimethicone
- Metoclopramide
- Xylazine
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