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Pharmacology

Number of questions: 28

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1) The use of genetic information to guide the choice of drug therapy is called:
  1. Pharmacoepidemiology
  2. Pharmacogenetics
  3. Biotechnology
  4. Pharmacogenomics
 2) The magnitude of the receptors to a drug is related to the:
  1. Total number of receptors for the drug
  2. Number of receptors occupied by the drug
  3. Number of vacant receptors in the tissue
  4. Number of phosphorylated receptors in the tissue
 3) In Australia, drugs and poisons are regulated by placing them in:
  1. Jurisdictions
  2. Classifications
  3. Regulations
  4. Schedules
 4) The statement that best describes a partial agonist is:
  1. Partial agonists produce the same maximal response as the endogenous ligand
  2. Partial agonists produce less than the maximal response even when all the receptors are occupied
  3. Partial agonists are always less potent than full agonists
  4. Partial agonists bind to the receptor and block the action of the endogenous ligand without producing any effects of their own
 5) Drug A has a hepatic clearance (CLH) of 60L/h. Assuming the liver blood flow is 90L/h (QH), the hepatic extraction ratio (EH) of Drug A is: CLH = EH X QH
  1. 0.33
  2. 0.67
  3. 0.54
  4. 1.50
 6) Drug A has a volume of distribution (Vd) of 30L and the target plasma drug concentration (CP) is 12mg/L. The loading dose required is: Vd = Dose/CP
  1. 360mg
  2. 2.5mg
  3. 25mg
  4. 400mg
 7) Transdermal drug administration:
  1. Is most suitable for highly polar drugs
  2. Is not subject to first-pass metabolism
  3. Provides rapid and complete absorption
  4. Is most suitable for unconscious persons
 8) In first-order drug elimination:
  1. Drug half-life is directly proportional to drug concentration
  2. The rate of elimination is directly proportional to drug concentration
  3. Drug clearance is directly proportional to plasma drug concentration
  4. The rate of elimination is constant
 9) Drug A has a systemic clearance of 20L/h and a volume of distribution of 400L. The half-life of the drug is:
  1. 20.86h
  2. 0.05h
  3. 13.86h
  4. 0.03h
 10) Functions associated with noradrenergic pathways in the central nervous system include:
  1. Feeding behavior
  2. Induction of sleep
  3. Control of mood
  4. Release of hormones
 11) The use of selegiline in Parkinson's disease is based on its ability to: The enzyme that breaks down dopamine to make dopamine last longer
  1. Selectively inhibit type B monoamine oxidase
  2. Increase dopamine
  3. Inhibit peripheral degradation of levodopa
  4. Protect dopamine from intra-neuronal degradation
 12) Drug therapy for Parkinson's disease is focused on:
  1. Increasing dopamine levels or stimulating acetylcholine effects
  2. Increasing dopamine levels or blocking acetylcholine effects
  3. Decreasing dopamine levels or stimulating acetylcholine effects
  4. Decreasing dopamine levels or blocking acetylcholine effects
 13) The mechanism of action of diazepam and other benzodiazepines is:
  1. Facilitating the action of GABA on GABAA receptors, thereby enhancing chloride influx into the neuronal cell
  2. Inhibiting the action of GABA on GABAA receptors, thereby inhibiting chloride influx into the neuronal cell
  3. Facilitating the action of GABA on GABAA receptors, thereby inhibiting chloride influx into the neuronal cell
  4. Facilitating the action of GABA on GABAB receptors, thereby enhancing chloride influx into the neuronal cell
 14) Pilocarpine lowers intraocular pressure by:
  1. Decreasing aqueous humour formation
  2. Contracting the ciliary muscle
  3. Relaxing the iris sphincter muscle
  4. Relaxing the ciliary muscle
 15) Activation of muscarinic M3 receptors leads to:
  1. Cardiac slowing
  2. Central nervous system stimulation
  3. Improving neurocognition
  4. Exocrine gland secretion
 16) The actions of insulin include:
  1. Inhibition of glycogen synthesis
  2. Inhibition of gluconeogenesis
  3. Inhibition of protein synthesis
  4. Inhibition of glucose uptake by muscle
 17) In the cardiac fast response cell action potential: the major current-carrying ion for phase 0 is:
  1. Potassium
  2. Calcium
  3. Sodium
  4. Magnesium
 18) The most common adverse effect of glipizide is:
  1. Hypoglycaemia
  2. Fluid retention
  3. Liver dysfunction
  4. Lactic acidosis
 19) Nifedipine inhibits ______ to cause dilatation of arteries/arterioles:
  1. T-type calcium ion channel
  2. L-type calcium ion channel
  3. Delayed rectifier potassium ion channel
  4. Sodium ion channel
 20) Which of the following drugs prevents thrombus formation in angina by reducing thromboxane A2 synthesis?
  1. Fondaparinux
  2. Aspirin
  3. Heparin
  4. Dabigatran
 21) Which cellular organelle is responsible for the calcium storage in cardiac muscle cell:
  1. Nucleus
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
  4. Cell membrane
 22) Losartan is a/an _______ antagonist:
  1. B1-adrenoceptor
  2. A1-adrenoceptor
  3. LDL receptor
  4. Angiotensin 2 receptor
 23) The Na+/K+/2Cl- transporter is inhibited by:
  1. Amiloride
  2. Frusemide
  3. Acetazolamide
  4. Hydrochlorothiazide
 24) Hyperkalaemia is most likely to occur following the administration of:
  1. Frusemide
  2. Hydrochlorothiazide
  3. Amiloride
  4. Bendroflumethiazide
 25) Myositis leading to rhabdomyolysis is a potentially severe adverse effect of:
  1. Atorvastatin
  2. Resins
  3. Colestipol
  4. Cholestyramine
 26) Which of the following statements relating to neonatal pharmacokinetics is FALSE:
  1. Relative to adults, protein binding is decreased
  2. Relative to adults, gastric emptying time is reduced
  3. Relative to adults, neonates have functional immaturity of drug metabolising enzyme systems
  4. Relative to adults, glomerular filtration and tubular secretion are decreased
 27) In epidermal growth factor kinase cascade, MAP (mitogen-activated protein) kinase acts to phosphorylate:
  1. DNA
  2. Transcription factors
  3. Cyclic AMP
  4. Ion channels
 28) Which substance blocks ion channels of N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptors for excitatory amino acids?
  1. Ketamine
  2. Cyclosporine
  3. Verapamil
  4. Cyclothiazide

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