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CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 3

Number of questions: 180

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About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 180 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) Which of these is a good laboratory safety rule?
  1. Leave a machine switched on when performing repairs
  2. Use one hand to carry testing samples, not two
  3. Wait until the end of the shift to clean up spills
  4. Wear safety goggles when working with strong chemicals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) "Insidious" hazards are hazards that:
  1. are easily overlooked
  2. happen quickly
  3. involve chemicals
  4. involve fumes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which of these liquids is flammable?
  1. Bleach
  2. Ethanol
  3. Nitric acid
  4. Saline
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Which rating of fire extinguisher is used in chemical fires?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
  2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
  3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
  4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Refer to the image below: Another name for this type of fire extinguisher is a _________ fire extinguisher.
  1. ABC
  2. AFFF foam
  3. carbon dioxide
  4. class F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Which fire extinguisher is best for electrical fires?
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. AFFF foam
  3. ABC powder
  4. Dry powder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What are the components of the fire triangle?
  1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
  2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
  4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Dry ice is dangerous because it burns, suffocates and:
  1. can explode
  2. catches fire when exposed to air
  3. causes viral infections
  4. is highly toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which of these is personal protective equipment (PPE)?
  1. A fire extinguisher
  2. A first aid kit
  3. A hand-washing station
  4. Gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) In which of these situations should a lab technician remove their gloves?
  1. Before carrying specimens through a designated clean area
  2. Before loading the autoclave
  3. Before using a restroom
  4. For cleaning a chemical spill
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Nitrile gloves:
  1. are a good substitute for latex gloves
  2. are cheaper than latex gloves
  3. are less resistant to punctures than latex gloves
  4. are unsuitable for routine laboratory work
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the chain of survival?
  1. Call 911, defibrillation, start CPR
  2. Call 911, start CPR, defibrillation
  3. Defibrillation, call 911, start CPR
  4. Start CPR, call 911, defibrillation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What is post-exposure prophylaxis?
  1. An auto-immune disease
  2. The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen
  3. The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen
  4. Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Flammable
  2. Oxidizing
  3. Self-heating
  4. Self-reactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called:
  1. disinfection
  2. eradication
  3. sanitation
  4. sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) A disinfectant may become ineffective if:
  1. it is kept in a dark place
  2. it is left at room temperature
  3. it is not diluted properly
  4. the container is kept tightly sealed during storage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which method of sterilization uses steam under pressure?
  1. Dry heat autoclaving
  2. Filtration
  3. Microwaving
  4. Moist heat autoclaving
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Ethanol can NOT kill:
  1. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Salmonella typhosa
  3. fungi
  4. spores
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) The lab manual says to use a 10% bleach solution to decontaminate the centrifuge. However, no bleach is available. What would be the most suitable alternative?
  1. 70% ethanol
  2. Antibacterial soap and water
  3. Povidone-iodine
  4. Sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Class 1 hazardous materials are:
  1. explosive
  2. infectious
  3. poisonous
  4. radioactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) What worldwide system gives recommendations on how to label hazardous chemicals?
  1. GHS
  2. HCS
  3. HPR
  4. HazCom
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) When should a "stat" glucose test be performed?
  1. Immediately
  2. Within 1 hour
  3. 2 hours after the last meal
  4. Within 4 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) When drawing a patient's blood, which of these steps should come first?
  1. Apply the tourniquet
  2. Clean the site
  3. Identify the patient
  4. Insert the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A patient has an arteriovenous (AV) fistula in his left arm and an IV in his right arm. From where should you draw a blood sample?
  1. Above the AV fistula
  2. Above the IV
  3. Below the AV fistula
  4. Below the IV
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To remove microorganisms
  4. To remove oil and sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) For venipuncture, the tourniquet should be applied ________________ the needle insertion point.
  1. 1-2 inches above
  2. 1-2 inches below
  3. 3-4 inches above
  4. 3-4 inches below
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What can happen if an angle of 35 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. The needle may go completely through the vein
  2. The needle may miss the vein completely
  3. The needle will enter above the vein
  4. The sample may be rejected due to hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Which statement is true about performing a venipuncture?
  1. Disinfect the entry site with a 70% alcohol swab
  2. Ensure the bevel of the needle is pointing down when the needle enters the vein
  3. Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle
  4. Remove the needle first, then the tourniquet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:
  1. petechiae
  2. scarring
  3. thrombosis
  4. varicose veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. In which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist collect the blood samples?
  1. Gold and lavender
  2. Grey and gold
  3. Grey and lavender
  4. Grey and light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) A phlebotomist has to collect a lavender top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from a patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, lavender, light blue
  2. Green, light blue, lavender
  3. Lavender, green, light blue
  4. Light blue, green, lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Green top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Citrate
  2. EDTA
  3. Fluoride
  4. Heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which vacutainer tube is used for hemoglobin testing?
  1. Green
  2. Grey
  3. Lavender
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) What colour tube is used for stat chemistry tests?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) For which vacutainer tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which of these vacutainer tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. PST
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Dark green
  2. Gold
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red top, green top, light blue top, and lavender top. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Blood for a white blood cell count is generally collected in which colour vacutainer?
  1. Black
  2. Blue
  3. Grey
  4. Lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) What colour is the EDTA vacutainer tube?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) EDTA prevents blood clots by binding:
  1. calcium
  2. chloride
  3. plasma
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What is the main purpose of tiger top tubes?
  1. Preventing clots
  2. Preventing glycolysis
  3. Separating plasma from blood cells
  4. Separating serum from blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) When a test requires plasma, the blood sample must be collected in a tube containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. chelating agent
  4. clot activator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Which colour vacutainer tube is known as the "citrate tube"?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Dark green
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What can happen if blood specimen tubes are not adequately mixed with anticoagulant?
  1. Clotting
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hyperglycemia
  4. Leukocytosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Venipuncture needles are colour-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Which tool is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?
  1. 18-gauge
  2. 19-gauge
  3. 20-gauge
  4. 21-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) After a blood draw, patients should avoid:
  1. driving
  2. eating a large meal
  3. heavy lifting
  4. lying down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which term means a location towards the front of the body?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which term means away from the origin?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Which plane separates the body into left and right?
  1. Medial
  2. Oblique
  3. Sagittal
  4. Transverse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What does the prefix oligo- mean?
  1. Before
  2. Few
  3. Many
  4. Under
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) FBS stands for _________ blood sugar.
  1. fasting
  2. fatal
  3. final
  4. first
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) What is edema?
  1. A bruise on the head
  2. A collection of blood outside blood vessels
  3. Swelling caused by fluid retention
  4. The final product of the blood coagulation step in hemostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?
  1. Calcium
  2. Mercury
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) What is the major cation found in extracellular fluid?
  1. Magnesium
  2. Potassium
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) From smallest to largest, the levels of organization of the body are:
  1. chemical, cellular, organelle, organ, tissue, system
  2. chemical, organelle, cellular, tissue, organ, system
  3. organelle, chemical, tissue, cellular, system, organ
  4. organelle, system, tissue, cellular, chemical, organ
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Which of these is a primary lymphoid organ?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymph node
  3. Peyer's patch
  4. Spleen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which element is the basis of organic chemistry?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Factor I is also known as:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. proaccelerin
  3. prothrombin
  4. tissue thromboplastin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) Multiple sclerosis occurs when:
  1. axons do not reach the threshold level
  2. dendrites cannot receive impulses
  3. myelin sheaths are destroyed
  4. the cellular sheaths are destroyed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Which autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:
  1. homogenization
  2. hyalinization
  3. precipitation
  4. vasodilatation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) The thyroid gland secretes triiodothyronine (T3) and which other hormone?
  1. Corticosteroid
  2. Thymosin
  3. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
  4. Thyroxine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Which gland secretes cortisol?
  1. Adrenal
  2. Pineal
  3. Pituitary
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) What are the end products of protein digestion?
  1. Amino acids
  2. Fatty acids
  3. Monosaccharides
  4. Triglycerides
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Maltose
  4. Sucrose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) Nerve cells are also called:
  1. axons
  2. glial cells
  3. neuroglial cells
  4. neurons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) What is the function of the respiratory system?
  1. To make enzymes
  2. To regulate the endocrine system
  3. To regulate the heartbeat
  4. To supply oxygen to tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?
  1. Arteries
  2. Capillaries
  3. Lymph vessels
  4. Veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Which of these is a vein in the arm?
  1. Femoral
  2. Jugular
  3. Median cubital
  4. Radial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) In this diagram of the heart, which line is pointing to the left ventricle?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) What cellular structure is called the powerhouse of the cell?
  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nucleus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) In DNA, which base pairs with adenine?
  1. Cytosine
  2. Guanine
  3. Thymine
  4. Uracil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which type of anemia is due to excessive red blood cell destruction?
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Pernicious anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Which of these diseases is a glycogen storage disease?
  1. Gilbert's syndrome
  2. Graves' disease
  3. Legionnaires' disease
  4. Von Gierke disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) In which of these situations is a workplace label NOT required?
  1. A hazardous product is made at the workplace and used in that workplace
  2. A hazardous product is poured into a container and is used immediately
  3. A hazardous product is transferred into another container
  4. A supplier label becomes lost or illegible
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. clot activator
  4. serum separating gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) Blood specimens for which test are placed in circles on special filter paper?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Complete blood counts
  3. Malaria
  4. Phenylketonuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:
  1. anemia
  2. erythremia
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) Anticoagulant therapy is monitored by performing a:
  1. ESR
  2. FBS
  3. Hgb
  4. PT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Grey
  4. Pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) Which area is swabbed to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) How far into the nasal cavity must a swab be inserted to reach the nasopharynx?
  1. 3–4 cm
  2. 5–6 cm
  3. 7–8 cm
  4. 9–10 cm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Where is a specimen for a rapid strep test obtained?
  1. Ear canal
  2. Nasopharynx
  3. Nose
  4. Throat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) Urine is applied to a pregnancy strip. After several minutes, the strip shows no lines. This means the result is:
  1. inconclusive
  2. invalid
  3. negative
  4. positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) Which test requires the patient to avoid foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?
  1. 5-H1AA urine test
  2. 72- hour fecal fat test
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Stool culture and sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:
  1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
  2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
  3. phosphates and bilirubin
  4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) What does sulfosalicylic acid detect in urine?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Glucose
  3. Protein
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Urine dipstick tests are a type of ____________ examination.
  1. chemical
  2. microscopic
  3. physical
  4. visual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Lactose tolerance testing:
  1. can diagnose a patient’s inability to digest milk sugar
  2. requires a urine sample
  3. requires blood samples to be taken over 24 hours
  4. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) During the glucose tolerance test, patients should:
  1. sit
  2. walk
  3. run
  4. jog
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) You puncture a patient's finger for a finger stick blood test but no blood comes out. What should you do?
  1. Cool the finger using an ice pack
  2. Puncture the site again
  3. Scrape the puncture site against the test strip
  4. Squeeze the finger
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?
  1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
  2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
  3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
  4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Which media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?
  1. Blood agar
  2. Cary-Blair media
  3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
  4. MacConkey agar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) A patient produces a semen sample at home. When bringing the sample to the clinic, the patient should keep the sample:
  1. at room temperature
  2. next to a hot water bottle
  3. on ice
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Which category of hazardous goods does this label represent?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Miscellaneous
  3. Oxidizing
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?
  1. Target channel adapter
  2. Trichloroacetic acid
  3. Trichloroethane
  4. Tricyclic antidepressant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) The liquid that separates out when blood clots is:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. lymph
  3. plasma
  4. serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) Serum and plasma both contain:
  1. clotting factors
  2. plasma proteins
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) Plasma is obtained by centrifuging:
  1. a red top tube
  2. a tube containing an anticoagulant
  3. an SST tube
  4. clotted blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) How long does it take for blood to circulate the body?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 1 hour
  3. 1 day
  4. 1 week
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Red blood cells are mainly composed of:
  1. albumin
  2. alpha- and beta- globulins
  3. hemoglobin
  4. mitochondria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Neutrophils:
  1. are part of the adaptive immune system
  2. are part of the innate immune system
  3. contain hemoglobin
  4. have no nucleus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) What does the PKU test detect?
  1. A genetic defect in metabolism
  2. A sex-linked anemia
  3. A viral disease
  4. Severe kidney disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) Creatinine clearance tests check the health of which organ?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidney
  3. Liver
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) Which colour vacutainer tube is known as the "SPS tube"?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Pink
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which vacutainer tube contains no additives?
  1. Pink
  2. Red (glass)
  3. Red (plastic)
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What additive prevents glycolysis in blood samples?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which lab equipment helps draw liquids into a pipette?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer cylinder
  3. Funnel
  4. Safety bulb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Polyethylene
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Soda-lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What does the term 'gross examination of tissue' mean?
  1. Cutting tissue into very thin sections
  2. Examination of dead or decaying tissue
  3. Examination of tissue with a microscope
  4. Examination of tissue with the naked eye
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which of these is a fixative?
  1. Cytospray
  2. Giemsa
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Wright's stain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the term for formaldehyde dissolved in water?
  1. Acetone
  2. Cytospray
  3. Ethyl acetate
  4. Formalin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which ethanol strength is used last when dehydrating tissues?
  1. 70%
  2. 80%
  3. 90%
  4. 100%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which of these stains is a Romanowsky stain?
  1. Gram
  2. Jefferson
  3. Leishman
  4. Sudan
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Van Gieson's stain is a mixture of picric acid and:
  1. acid fuchsin
  2. methylene blue
  3. thionine
  4. toluidine blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which of these is a common ripening agent for hematoxylin?
  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium iodate
  4. Tungsten
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) The Pap stain stains which structure blue, purple, or black?
  1. Cytoplasm
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Nuclei
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Hematoxylin ripens into:
  1. hematein
  2. hematone
  3. hematurg
  4. hemoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What colour is eosin?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Pink
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which two stains are routinely used in Pap stains?
  1. Hematoxylin and eosin
  2. Methenamine silver and mucicarmine
  3. Periodic acid-Schiff-diastase and azur
  4. Perl's Prussian blue and mucicarmine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the ratio of eosin to methylene blue in eosin methylene blue?
  1. 1:1
  2. 1:2
  3. 3:1
  4. 6:1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) In which stage of histology are mordants used?
  1. Decalcification
  2. Fixation
  3. Sectioning
  4. Staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What is the decolourizing agent in the Ziehl Neelsen stain?
  1. Absolute alcohol
  2. Acetone
  3. Acid alcohol
  4. Xylol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which of these would slow the growth of pathogenic bacteria?
  1. A moist environment
  2. An acidic pH
  3. Darkness
  4. Nutrients
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Why are specimens for anaerobic culture placed in anaerobic jars?
  1. To maximize spore formation
  2. To minimize exposure of the specimen to oxygen
  3. To minimize the exposure of the specimen to UV light
  4. To stop the specimen from escaping
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:
  1. ability to ferment lactose
  2. ability to hydrolyze starch
  3. ability to utilise the safranin dye
  4. hemolytic activity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which type of bacteria is Löwenstein-Jensen media used to isolate?
  1. Escherichia
  2. Haemophilus
  3. Listeria
  4. Mycobacteria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What are the three common types of acid-fast staining?
  1. Calcofluor, fast green, and Gram-Twort
  2. Periodic acid-Schiff, alcian, and Bismarck
  3. Trichrome, sulfate, and Wade-Fite
  4. Ziehl-Neelsen, Kinyoun, and auramine-rhodamine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) When performing a quadrant streak plate, what would happen if you forget to sterilize your loop in between each quadrant streak?
  1. A lack of individual colonies
  2. Growth in only the first quadrant
  3. Growth in quadrants 3 and 4 but no growth in quadrants 1 and 2
  4. No growth in any quadrant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) For how many minutes should a microhematocrit be centrifuged?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 15
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) When preparing a blood smear, which of these could cause the blood smear to be too thin?
  1. A small drop size
  2. Holding the spreader at a high angle
  3. Spreading the blood too slowly
  4. Using transfused blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What is the purpose of activated charcoal in transport media?
  1. To absorb toxic substances
  2. To kill non-pathogens
  3. To maintain a neutral pH
  4. To prevent the overgrowth of extraneous organisms
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Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) What is the dilution factor 1/5 expressed as a dilution ratio?
  1. 1:4
  2. 1:5
  3. 1:6
  4. 5:1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) How many millilitres of 5% hydrochloric acid are needed to make 500 mL of 2% hydrochloric acid?
  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 400
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) How would you prepare 400 mL of a 1% v/v acetic acid solution?
  1. 1 mL of glacial acetic acid in 399 mL of water
  2. 2 mL of glacial acetic acid in 398 mL of water
  3. 3 mL of glacial acetic acid in 397 mL of water
  4. 4 mL of glacial acetic acid in 396 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) What is the best way to clean glassware containing water-insoluble solutions?
  1. Rinse 2-3 times with ethanol then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  2. Rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  3. Rinse with copious amounts of tap water then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  4. Wash with hot soapy water, rinse thoroughly with tap water, and then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Which of these can NOT be autoclaved?
  1. Gloves
  2. Microbial growth media
  3. Organic solvents
  4. Stainless steel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?
  1. 100°C
  2. 121°C
  3. 140°C
  4. 160°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which of these reagents contains mercuric chloride?
  1. Bouin's fluid
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Picric acid
  4. Zenker's fluid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which of these is a decalcification agent?
  1. Ammonia
  2. EDTA
  3. Toluene
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) The two electrodes of a pH meter are called the ___________________ electrodes.
  1. capacitive and potentiated
  2. dry and wet
  3. glass and reference
  4. sealed and ground
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Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:
  1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
  2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
  3. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
  4. tell the mother not to worry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) The tendency of teams to lose their critical evaluative capabilities during decision-making is a phenomenon called:
  1. decision congruence
  2. group consensus
  3. groupthink
  4. the slippage effect
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of these is a formal way to end an email?
  1. Bye for now
  2. See you soon
  3. Thanks
  4. Yours sincerely
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted
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Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) QNS stands for:
  1. quality not satisfied
  2. quality not sufficient
  3. quantity not satisfied
  4. quantity not sufficient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Which of these is a quantitative result?
  1. A moderate amount of crystals seen
  2. A moderate number of bacteria present
  3. Specific gravity = 1.010
  4. Urine is brown
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) The middle value in a sorted data set is called the:
  1. average
  2. coefficient of variation
  3. mean
  4. median
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Precision indicates the:
  1. closeness of a result to the first standard deviation
  2. closeness of a result to the median value
  3. closeness of a result to the true value
  4. repeatability or reproducibility of a procedure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) The ABC analysis categorizes inventory items by their:
  1. expiry date
  2. importance
  3. location
  4. size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) PPE, biosafety cabinets, and fire extinguishers are examples of which risk response strategy?
  1. Accept
  2. Avoid
  3. Mitigate
  4. Transfer
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Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) A priest is with the patient when you arrive to collect a stat specimen. What should you do?
  1. Draw blood from a different patient and then check back
  2. Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen
  3. Go back to the lab and draw the specimen on the next sweep
  4. Wait outside the room for a few minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) What is a regulated profession?
  1. A profession that has no legal requirement or restriction on practice
  2. A profession that requires a specific professional qualification
  3. A profession that requires work experience
  4. A profession where workers work regular, 9–5 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Which of these helps ensure patient confidentiality?
  1. Discarding old records by throwing them into the trash
  2. Giving out patient information to journalists
  3. Sending confidential material via e-mail
  4. Verifying a patient's identity before giving confidential data
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) The obligation of a person or organization to not disclose health information is known as:
  1. accountability
  2. confidentiality
  3. privacy
  4. security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Which pillar of medical ethics is respect for the patient’s right to make decisions about their healthcare?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) What is Canada's federal data privacy law for private-sector organizations?
  1. HIPPA
  2. PHIPA
  3. PIPEDA
  4. WHMIS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which principle of the Canada Health Act states that all residents must have access to the same level of health care, regardless of their ability to pay?
  1. Accessibility
  2. Portability
  3. Public administration
  4. Universality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) What is the national certifying body for medical laboratory assistants in Canada?
  1. CMLTO
  2. CSMLS
  3. MLAT
  4. OSMT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) Which of these is a social determinant of health?
  1. Access to healthcare
  2. Exposure to pathogens
  3. Genetics
  4. Quality of laboratory equipment
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Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) Which specimen request has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Collect it by arterial puncture
  4. Try to draw it one more time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) Which of these is an example of critical thinking?
  1. Implementing the first solution identified to a problem
  2. Investigating a patient's abnormal blood test results
  3. Listening to what a patient tells you
  4. Reading the instruction manual of an autoclave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which of these is NOT involved in critical thinking?
  1. Evaluating your own biases
  2. Questioning
  3. Snap judgments
  4. Value judgments
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) Critical thinking can be defined as:
  1. accepting what people tell you is the truth
  2. analyzing and evaluating information to make decisions
  3. gathering as much information as possible
  4. making gradual improvements in understanding a topic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Get a new wrapper
  2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
  3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
  4. Throw the instrument away
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