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CACMA Exam Practice Questions

Number of questions: 300

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About the CACMA exam

The California Certified Medical Assistant (CACMA) examination assesses the skills and knowledge required of entry-level medical assistants. The exam is set by the California Certifying Board for Medical Assistants (CCBMA).

Passing the CACMA exam earns you a certificate and allows you to use the CACMA credential after your name.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CACMA exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the nine sections of the exam: 1. Scrubbing Patient Charts, 2. Checking-In Patients, 3. Rooming Patients, 4. Collecting Patient Vitals , 5. Performing Point of Care Orders, 6. Administering Medications/Vaccines, 7. Discharging Patients, 8. Responding to Codes/Emergencies, and 9. Managing Communication.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Scrubbing Patient Charts
  2. Checking-In Patients
  3. Rooming Patients
  4. Collecting Patient Vitals
  5. Performing Point of Care Orders
  6. Administering Medications/Vaccines
  7. Discharging Patients
  8. Responding to Codes/Emergencies
  9. Managing Communication

Section 1: Scrubbing Patient Charts

1.1) Where in a SOAP note does the doctor propose a treatment plan?
  1. Subjective
  2. Objective
  3. Assessment
  4. Plan
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) When you find a document in the wrong record, you should:
  1. advise the patient's doctor
  2. destroy the document and complete an incident report
  3. leave the document in the record
  4. refile the document in the correct record
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) A hospital uses a terminal digit filing system. To find record 12-08-35, which number(s) would you use first?
  1. 08
  2. 35
  3. 12
  4. 5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Documentation about a patient's diet, sleep patterns, and exercise patterns may be found in the:
  1. admission form
  2. history
  3. operative note
  4. physical exam
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) How often should adults get a tetanus booster shot?
  1. Every 10 years
  2. Every 15 years
  3. Every 20 years
  4. Every 25 years
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) A patient calls the clinic with a life-threatening emergency. Which action should the medical assistant take?
  1. Advise the patient to call 911
  2. Book the patient into the next possible appointment
  3. Give first aid instructions over the phone
  4. Tell the patient to come in right away
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Which appointment slot is best for fasting patients?
  1. First thing in the morning
  2. Late morning
  3. Mid-afternoon
  4. Last appointment of the day
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What is the first step in verifying patient insurance?
  1. Calling the insurance company
  2. Collecting the patient’s insurance information
  3. Recording the insurance information in the EMR
  4. Scheduling the patient’s appointment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) What should you do if a patient's credit card is declined?
  1. Ask if they have another card
  2. Call the patient's bank
  3. Cut up the card
  4. Waive the payment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) A check marked NSF means:
  1. no service fee has been charged for the transaction
  2. the account has insufficient funds
  3. the check is a forgery
  4. the check was cashed at the wrong bank
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) The three or four-digit number on the back of a credit card is the:
  1. card security code
  2. credit card number
  3. expiry date
  4. issue date
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which document is written, dated, and signed and instructs a bank to pay the bearer a specific amount of money?
  1. Check
  2. Passbook
  3. Warrant
  4. Wire transfer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) At what age is it recommended to begin colorectal cancer screening in average-risk adults?
  1. 18
  2. 25–30
  3. 45–50
  4. 65–70
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Mammograms for women aged 45–54 should be performed every:
  1. 3 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 1 year
  4. 3 years
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Checking-In Patients

2.1) Which federal law requires emergency departments to stabilize and treat anyone, regardless of their insurance status or ability to pay?
  1. Emergency Medical Treatment and Labor Act (EMTALA)
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) A medical assistant prints out a patient's demographic information so the patient can review it for errors. Once the patient has reviewed the information, what should the medical assistant do with it?
  1. Dispose of it by shredding
  2. Give it to the doctor
  3. Give it to the patient to take home
  4. Put it in the patient’s file
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A patient has a health insurance plan with a $25 copay for doctor visits. She goes to the doctor three times in one month. What is the total amount she will pay in copays for the month?
  1. $50
  2. $25
  3. $0
  4. $75
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) A patient has a health insurance plan that pays 50% of allowed charges for out-of-network doctor visits. The patient visits an out-of-network doctor and the bill comes to $100. The health insurance allows only a $50 charge for the visit. How much would the patient have to pay out of pocket for the visit?
  1. $25
  2. $50
  3. $75
  4. $100
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) An arrangement where the patient pays for part of their medical expenses and the insurer pays for the rest is called a:
  1. co-pay
  2. deductible
  3. modifier
  4. premium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Medicare Part B pays for ______of approved charges.
  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. 80%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) The date an insurance policy begins is known as the ___________ date.
  1. coverage
  2. disclosure
  3. effective
  4. embarkation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What does 1EG4-TE5-MK72 on this card represent?
  1. Insurance policy number
  2. Medicare Beneficiary Identifier
  3. Medicare's phone number
  4. Social Security Number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What is the difference between copays and coinsurance?
  1. Copays apply to medications, while coinsurance covers medical services
  2. Copays are charged after the deductible is met, while coinsurance applies before the deductible is met
  3. Copays are fixed costs, while coinsurance is percentage-based
  4. Copays are paid at the end of the year, while coinsurance is paid at the time of service
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What is the date of birth on this driving license?
  1. 1st July 1970
  2. 7th January 1970
  3. 8th February 2012
  4. 20nd August 2012
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) An unconscious man is brought into an emergency ward. A medical assistant tries using his driver's license to find him in the hospital database. The date of birth on the license reads 07/12/1987 but the date the assistant enters into the computer is 07/21/1987. What type of error is this?
  1. Double entry
  2. Omission
  3. Transposition
  4. Truncation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which of these should be written on a patient's wristband?
  1. Bay number
  2. Bed number
  3. Medical record number
  4. Room number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) On this patient's wristband, what does 12-19-2016 mean?
  1. Admission date
  2. Date of birth
  3. Date of death
  4. Date the patient started taking medication
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Once patient registration is complete, the patient should receive a copy of which of the following?
  1. A list of CLIA-waived tests
  2. HIPAA Notice of Privacy Practices
  3. The hospital's mission statement
  4. Vaccine information statement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which of these documents is suitable as legal photo identification?
  1. Company-issued employee ID card
  2. Credit card
  3. Driver's license
  4. Student ID card
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Rooming Patients

3.1) Which of these is a sign that a patient is stressed?
  1. Willingness to do as you ask
  2. Crying
  3. Constricted pupils
  4. Eye contact
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) When you suspect someone might be trans-identified, how do you know which pronoun to use?
  1. Ask a family member of the person
  2. Ask the person what pronouns they prefer
  3. Decide based on a person’s appearance
  4. Use the pronoun of the person’s biological gender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) What does the PHQ-9 measure?
  1. Degree of cognitive impairment
  2. Depression severity
  3. Pain intensity
  4. Symptoms of drug abuse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) What tool screens for anxiety?
  1. CAGE questionnaire
  2. GAD-7
  3. PHQ-9
  4. PSYRATS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  3. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  4. "What is your name?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Which of these information would you place in the "S" section when using SOAP charting?
  1. Patient's description of symptoms
  2. Physician's diagnosis
  3. Physician's examination
  4. Test results
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) How should a medical assistant prepare a patient for a punch biopsy?
  1. Anesthetize the site
  2. Clean the skin with a povidone-iodine solution
  3. Place the patient in the lithotomy position
  4. Put on sterile gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Which of these is found in a dressing pack?
  1. Mask
  2. Scalpel
  3. Scissors
  4. Swabs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) A patient says he has burned his leg. What would be an appropriate question to screen for a medical emergency?
  1. "Are you able to drive a car?"
  2. "Are you married?"
  3. "Are you taking any medications?"
  4. "How did the burn happen?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) The CAGE questionnaire is used to help diagnose which health problem?
  1. Alcoholism
  2. Post-natal depression
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Sleeping disorders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which of these questions is relevant when asking a patient about their current medications?
  1. "Does your insurance cover the cost of your medications?"
  2. "How often do you take your medication?"
  3. "What medications have you used in the past?"
  4. "Where do you buy your medications?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) What is the purpose of medication reconciliation?
  1. To ensure the patient understands how to take their medication
  2. To identify medication errors
  3. To reduce the workload of the pharmacy
  4. To update the patient's medication list with new prescriptions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) What is a relevant question to ask a patient when assessing their neurological system?
  1. "Do you experience dizziness?"
  2. "Do you have a cough?"
  3. "Do you have any rashes?"
  4. "Do you have joint pain?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which of these questions is pertinent to taking a patient's past medical history?
  1. "Do any of your family members have health problems?"
  2. "Do you have any dietary restrictions?"
  3. "Have you ever been hospitalized?"
  4. "How often do you drink alcohol?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What is the best question to determine a patient's chief complaint?
  1. "Do you have any allergies?"
  2. "Have you had any recent illnesses?"
  3. "What were you doing before you came here?"
  4. “What brings you here today?”
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What is a relevant question to ask a patient when assessing their endocrine system?
  1. "Do you have chest pain?"
  2. "Do you sweat excessively?"
  3. "Have you ever coughed up blood?"
  4. "Have you had any genital discharge?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the purpose of a health screening questionnaire?
  1. To assess the patient's mental health needs
  2. To ensure patients receive only the treatment they need
  3. To ensure the patient's insurance company will pay for the treatment
  4. To identify health problems before the patient is admitted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) A patient looks dishevelled. His speech is disorganized; he jumps from topic to topic, making it difficult to follow what he is saying. He says he has started hearing voices that comment on his actions. What problem does the patient most likely have?
  1. Bipolar disorder
  2. Cushing's syndrome
  3. Hypothyroidism
  4. Schizophrenia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) In healthcare, what does the abbreviation H&P mean?
  1. Health and psychology
  2. Heart rate and pressure
  3. History and physical
  4. Hospital and pharmaceutical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which patient position is used to examine the abdomen?
  1. Prone
  2. Sims
  3. Sitting
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which position is this patient in?
  1. Fowler
  2. Knee-chest
  3. Lithotomy
  4. Sim's
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Which position is this patient in?
  1. Fowler's
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Sim's
  4. Trendenlenburg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) A patient states on his health screening questionnaire that he is taking warfarin, aspirin, and ibuprofen. These medications increase the patient's risk of:
  1. bleeding
  2. cardiac arrest
  3. diabetes
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What does a MAR chart show?
  1. A patient's daily activities and appointments
  2. A patient's daily meal plans and nutrition intake
  3. The drugs that have been administered to a patient
  4. The exercises in a patient's physical therapy regimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Collecting Patient Vitals

4.1) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
  1. Hyperalbuminemia
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Hypertension
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) A high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow is called:
  1. asthma
  2. diphtheria
  3. epistaxis
  4. stridor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) What is the medical term for low levels of oxygen in the blood?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Hypoxemia
  4. Paroxysmal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) What is the medical term for fever?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Pyrexia
  4. Tachypnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the medical term for difficulty breathing when lying down?
  1. Dysphonia
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Hemothorax
  4. Orthopnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) What is the medical term for rapid breathing?
  1. Eupepsia
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Peritonitis
  4. Tachypnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) What is the medical term for shortness of breath?
  1. Anosmia
  2. Ascites
  3. Dyspnea
  4. Phlebitis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:
  1. 40–60 bpm
  2. 60–80 bpm
  3. 80–100 bpm
  4. >100 bpm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?
  1. Bradycardia
  2. Epicardia
  3. Myocardia
  4. Tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) A patient is 2 meters tall and weighs 100 kg. Calculate the patient's body mass index.
  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 25
  4. 40
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) The normal oxygen saturation in blood is ____ or higher.
  1. 50%
  2. 66%
  3. 90%
  4. 95%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) Which of these patients should be taken to a doctor immediately?
  1. A patient with itchy eyes, sneezing, and a runny nose
  2. A patient with an itchy rash on their arm after trying a new lotion
  3. A patient with chest discomfort and a blood pressure of 220/120
  4. A patient with cough, chills, and a temperature of 100.4°F (38.0°C)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) What does a sphygmomanometer measure?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Body temperature
  3. Motor reflexes
  4. The density of liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) Which medical term means a normal body temperature?
  1. Afebrile
  2. Febrile
  3. Hyperpyrexic
  4. Hypopyrexic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Where is an axillary temperature taken?
  1. Anus
  2. Armpit
  3. Ear
  4. Forehead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) What pulse is located on the top of the foot?
  1. Carotid
  2. Dorsalis pedis
  3. Femoral
  4. Popliteal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mmHg
  2. 60–79 mmHg
  3. 90–119 mmHg
  4. 120–139 mmHg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) The normal respiratory rate for adults is ________ breaths per minute.
  1. 4–12
  2. 12–20
  3. 20–28
  4. 28–36
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) A patient's blood pressure is 150/100. What is the patient's pulse pressure?
  1. 1.5
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 150
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) Pulse oximeters are generally attached to which body part?
  1. Earlobe
  2. Finger
  3. Forehead
  4. Wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) Where is the apical pulse found?
  1. Behind the knee
  2. On the throat
  3. On the wrist
  4. Over the heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Where is the temporal pulse point located?
  1. Armpit
  2. Forehead
  3. Mouth
  4. Rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) Which of these factors can interfere with the accuracy of pulse oximetry readings?
  1. Blood type
  2. Fingernail polish
  3. High blood pressure
  4. The contents of the patient's previous meal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mm Hg
  2. 60–79 mm Hg
  3. 90–119 mm Hg
  4. 120–139 mm Hg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) Where is a tympanic temperature taken?
  1. Ear
  2. Forehead
  3. Mouth
  4. Rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.
  1. 40 to 80
  2. 60 to 100
  3. 80 to 120
  4. 100 to 140
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) Which pulse is used to measure blood pressure when the brachial pulse is inaccessible?
  1. Dorsalis pedis
  2. Femoral
  3. Popliteal pulse
  4. Posterior tibial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) What is the most accurate place to measure a person's body temperature?
  1. Anus
  2. Armpit
  3. Ears
  4. Mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) What non-invasive test measures blood oxygen levels?
  1. Bioimpedance analysis
  2. Blood gas analysis
  3. Capnography
  4. Pulse oximetry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) What is normal body temperature?
  1. 21°C
  2. 32°C
  3. 37°C
  4. 100°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) A patient and his wheelchair together weigh 100 kg. The wheelchair alone weighs 20 kg. How much does the patient weigh?
  1. 80 kg
  2. 100 kg
  3. 120 kg
  4. 130 kg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) Which artery in the wrist is used for measuring a person's pulse?
  1. Carotid
  2. Radial
  3. Temporal
  4. Ulnar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) What is the BMI overweight range?
  1. 16–18.49
  2. 18.5–24.9
  3. 25–29.99
  4. 30–34.99
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) Which of these temperatures is the highest?
  1. Axillary
  2. Oral
  3. Rectal
  4. Temporal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) What pulse is located in the middle of the groin?
  1. Carotid
  2. Dorsalis pedis
  3. Femoral
  4. Popliteal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) What is the abbreviation for the amount of oxygen in the blood as a percentage of the maximum the blood could carry?
  1. BO₂
  2. HgbO₂
  3. O₂%
  4. SpO₂
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Before measuring a patient's weight:
  1. ask the patient to put on their shoes
  2. calibrate the scale by standing on it
  3. empty any urinary catheter bags
  4. put on a gown and sterile gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) What type of thermometer can measure oral, axillary, and rectal temperatures?
  1. Digital
  2. Laboratory
  3. Temporal artery
  4. Tympanic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which position is used to measure a patient's vital signs?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone
  4. Sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Performing Point of Care Orders

5.1) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which vein is the median cubital in the image below?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To remove microorganisms
  4. To remove oil and sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Petechiae appear when a phlebotomist applies a tourniquet to a patient's arm. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Call a nurse
  2. Cancel the draw
  3. Continue with the draw
  4. Try the other arm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. The needle may enter above the vein
  3. The needle may go completely through the vein
  4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14-month-old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which of these actions should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw?
  1. Give the baby something sweet to eat
  2. Release the tourniquet
  3. Try a new tube
  4. Try to collect blood from the baby's heel instead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Repeated phlebotomy procedures in the same area can cause:
  1. petechiae
  2. scarring
  3. thrombosis
  4. varicose veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?
  1. 18-gauge
  2. 19-gauge
  3. 20-gauge
  4. 21-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.
  1. Milliner's
  2. butterfly
  3. straight
  4. universal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) Which of these analytes is photosensitive?
  1. Albumin
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Iron
  4. Phosphate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) Which of these conditions can pulse oximetry monitor?
  1. COPD
  2. Diabetes
  3. Hypertension
  4. Hypothyroidism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) What is otitis?
  1. An abnormal discharge from the nose
  2. An eye infection
  3. Ear inflammation
  4. Inflammation of the sinuses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) What is tinnitus?
  1. A false sense of motion or spinning
  2. A ringing sound in the ears
  3. A voice disorder
  4. Hearing loss occurring with old age
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) What is another word for myopia?
  1. Astigmatism
  2. Farsightedness
  3. Nearsightedness
  4. Strabismus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) What time of day does urine contain the highest concentration of human chorionic gonadotropin?
  1. Morning
  2. Afternoon
  3. Evening
  4. Night
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) Where is the preferred injection site for the PPD test?
  1. Arm
  2. Hand
  3. Leg
  4. Shoulder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Tubersol and Aplisol are antigens used for which test?
  1. Flu test
  2. Hemoglobin test
  3. PPD test
  4. Strep test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) A positive PPD test is shown by:
  1. edema
  2. erythema
  3. fever
  4. induration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) The PPD test detects which disease?
  1. Bronchitis
  2. Influenza
  3. Pneumonia
  4. Tuberculosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) Which area is swabbed to obtain a throat culture?
  1. Larynx
  2. Oral mucosa
  3. Pharynx
  4. Trachea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) Where is a specimen for a rapid strep test obtained?
  1. Ear canal
  2. Nasopharynx
  3. Nose
  4. Throat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) Urine is applied to a pregnancy strip. After several minutes, the strip shows no lines. This means the result is:
  1. inconclusive
  2. invalid
  3. negative
  4. positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) How far into the nasal cavity must a swab be inserted to reach the nasopharynx?
  1. 3–4 cm
  2. 5–6 cm
  3. 7–8 cm
  4. 9–10 cm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) Which urine collection technique collects urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) What is the initial screening test for Cushing syndrome?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Comprehensive metabolic panel
  3. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  4. Urinary free cortisol test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:
  1. culture and susceptibility
  2. mononucleosis testing
  3. pregnancy testing
  4. routine urinalysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) Which test measures a patient's average blood glucose level over the last two to three months?
  1. Blood insulin
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. HbA1c
  4. Random blood glucose test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) How many acceptable attempts must be obtained when measuring a patient's peak flow rate?
  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) What unit is the peak flow rate measured in?
  1. L/min
  2. liters
  3. mm
  4. seconds
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) How should a patient breathe into a peak flow meter?
  1. As fast and hard as possible
  2. Normally
  3. Slowly and gently
  4. With short, shallow breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) In the peak flow zone system, which zone is a score of 50–80% of the patient's normal peak flow?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) The peak flow test is used to diagnose and monitor:
  1. angina
  2. asthma
  3. cystitis
  4. hypertension
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To facilitate blood sample collection
  2. To prevent excessive bleeding
  3. To prevent scar formation
  4. To reduce pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) Glucose point-of-care testing screens for:
  1. glycemia
  2. glycogenolysis
  3. glycolysis
  4. glycosuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) Which fingers are used for finger puncture?
  1. Little finger and ring finger
  2. Little finger and thumb
  3. Middle finger and ring finger
  4. Ring finger and thumb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) What do C and T mean on a pregnancy test?
  1. Clarity and time
  2. Color and temperature
  3. Consistency and translucency
  4. Control and test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) What is the SI unit for reporting the result of urine glucose tests?
  1. mg/L
  2. mg/dL
  3. mmol/L
  4. mmol/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) What color is the urine of patients with jaundice?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Milky
  3. Red
  4. Straw-colored
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.40) What is the normal adult range for peak flow?
  1. 20−40 liters per minute
  2. 50−80 liters per minute
  3. 150−250 liters per minute
  4. 400−700 liters per minute
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.41) When performing ear irrigation, what temperature is recommended for the irrigating solution?
  1. Ice cold
  2. Room temperature
  3. Body temperature
  4. 50–52°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.42) How should a patient be positioned for ear irrigation?
  1. Lying down with the affected ear facing up
  2. Lying on the stomach with the head turned
  3. Sitting up with the head tilted slightly to the side
  4. Standing with the head tilted forward
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.43) What is a Noots tank?
  1. A cup to collect earwax during ear irrigation
  2. A device a person blows into for the peak flow test
  3. A portable oxygen tank for people with lung conditions
  4. A specialized container for hazardous waste disposal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.44) What is a common side effect of ear irrigation?
  1. Blurred vision
  2. Dizziness
  3. Headache
  4. Rash
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.45) Which of these results should be reported to the doctor immediately?
  1. Blood glucose of 400 mg/dL
  2. Hemoglobin of 20 g/dL
  3. Peak flow score of 500 L/min
  4. Positive strep test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.46) Otoscopes examine which part of the body?
  1. Ears
  2. Eyes
  3. Mouth
  4. Nose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.47) Which of the following information should be included in an ECG report?
  1. The patient's insurance details
  2. The patient's weight
  3. The time of the recording
  4. Whether the patient was fasting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.48) Sound frequency is measured in:
  1. amplitude
  2. decibels
  3. hertz
  4. pascals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.49) What variable is on the X-axis of audiograms?
  1. Frequency
  2. Hearing level
  3. Loudness
  4. Time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.50) In the Ishiwara test, how far should the plates be held away from the patient?
  1. 50 cm
  2. 75 cm
  3. 125 cm
  4. 150 cm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.51) The loudness of sound is measured in:
  1. Joules
  2. Pascals
  3. decibels
  4. hertz
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.52) A patient has 20/30 vision. What does this mean?
  1. The patient can read letters from 20 feet away that most people can read from 30 feet away
  2. The patient can see at 30 feet what the average person could only see from 20 feet
  3. The patient correctly identified 20 out of 30 letters on a visual acuity test
  4. The patient has perfect vision in his left eye (20) and slightly worse vision in his right eye (30)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.53) What is the term for hearing loss in only one ear?
  1. Directional
  2. Monaural
  3. Monophonic
  4. Unilateral
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.54) What is the normal range for hearing?
  1. 20–20,000 Hz
  2. 40–40,000 Hz
  3. 60–60,000 Hz
  4. 80–80,000 Hz
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.55) What does the Ishihara test detect?
  1. Color blindness
  2. Hearing loss
  3. Tuberculosis infection
  4. Visual acuity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.56) What is the medical term for nearsightedness?
  1. Astigmatism
  2. Hyperopia
  3. Myopia
  4. Presbyopia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.57) How far should a patient stand from a Snellen eye chart?
  1. 5 feet
  2. 10 feet
  3. 15 feet
  4. 20 feet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.58) Which of these tools is used to assess hearing?
  1. Anoscope
  2. Percussion hammer
  3. Specimen collection system
  4. Tuning forks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.59) Which part of a syringe has volume markings?
  1. Barrel
  2. Flange
  3. Needle
  4. Plunger
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.60) What view of the heart do leads II, III, and aVF of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.61) In electrocardiography, aVR, aVL, and aVF are called the:
  1. alternating voltage leads
  2. amplified voltage leads
  3. augmented limb leads
  4. depolarization-repolarization leads
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.62) Einthoven's law states:
  1. Lead I + Lead II = Lead III
  2. Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
  3. Lead I - Lead II = Lead III
  4. Lead I - Lead III = Lead II
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.63) Leads II, III, and aVF of an ECG are called the __________ leads.
  1. grounding
  2. inferior
  3. lateral
  4. limb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.64) When preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram, where is the V3 electrode placed?
  1. Between the right shoulder and right wrist
  2. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  3. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  4. Midway between V2 and V4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.65) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?
  1. RA, LA and LL
  2. RA, LA and RL
  3. RA, LL and RL
  4. V1, V2 and V3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.66) The Bazett formula corrects which interval?
  1. PR
  2. QT
  3. ST
  4. TP
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.67) When preparing a patient for an ECG, where should you place the V1 electrode?
  1. Arm
  2. Chest
  3. Foot
  4. Leg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.68) Which electrodes are used for lead III in electrocardiography?
  1. LA and LL
  2. LA and RL
  3. RA and LL
  4. RA and RL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.69) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?
  1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
  2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
  3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
  4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.70) The special lead positions below help to diagnose which arrhythmia?
  1. Atrial flutter
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Ventricular fibrillation
  4. Ventricular tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.71) Lead I of an ECG records differences between which electrodes?
  1. LA and RA
  2. LA and RL
  3. RA and LL
  4. RA and RL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.72) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?
  1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Bundle branch block
  4. Tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.73) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
  2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
  3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
  4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.74) When setting up an ECG, where is the LA electrode placed?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. o
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.75) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V1 placed?
  1. At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
  2. At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
  3. At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
  4. Midway between V3 and V5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.76) Why do ECG electrodes have tabs?
  1. So the nurse can write notes on them
  2. To attach alligator clips
  3. To attach the electrode to the patient's skin
  4. To prevent patient shocks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.77) In electrocardiography, what does the letter A in aVL stand for?
  1. actual
  2. alternating
  3. amplitude
  4. augmented
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.78) A patient is undergoing a cardiac treadmill stress test when he starts showing signs of cardiac ischemia. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient if he can keep going
  2. Slow down the treadmill to a more comfortable speed
  3. Speed up the treadmill
  4. Stop the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.79) Which of these statements about preparing a patient for an ECG is true?
  1. Alcohol wipes are used to clean the skin
  2. It is good practice to shave the patient’s entire chest
  3. The patient must be fasting
  4. The patient should be sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.80) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V2 placed?
  1. At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
  2. At the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  3. At the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  4. Midway between V3 and V5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.81) What is the normal paper speed for an ECG?
  1. 25 mm/second
  2. 50 mm/second
  3. 75 mm/second
  4. 100 mm/second
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.82) When performing an ECG, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Apply the limb electrodes
  2. Ask the patient to remove their clothing from the waist up
  3. Obtain the patient's consent
  4. Prepare the patient's skin for the application of the electrodes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.83) Which ECG electrode is placed near the patient's right ankle?
  1. LA
  2. LL
  3. RA
  4. RL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.84) The right leg (RL) electrode of the electrocardiogram is also known as:
  1. F
  2. N
  3. T
  4. V1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.85) In the American Heart Association system of ECG lead color coding, what color is the neutral electrode?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.86) Why is paste or jelly applied to a patient before an ECG?
  1. To facilitate conductivity between the skin and the electrode
  2. To prevent the electrodes from overheating
  3. To reduce the risk of shocking the patient
  4. To reduce the risk of shocking the technician
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.87) What color is the RA electrode in the American Heart Association ECG lead color coding system?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.88) What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.89) In what lead is the QT interval best measured?
  1. Lead I
  2. Lead II
  3. Lead III
  4. aVR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.90) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:
  1. AVF
  2. AVL
  3. AVM
  4. AVR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.91) ECG leads I, II, and III are called the _________ limb leads.
  1. augmented
  2. bipolar
  3. positive
  4. unipolar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.92) Which lead of an electrocardiogram is needed for a rhythm strip?
  1. I
  2. II
  3. III
  4. IV
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.93) Lead II of an ECG records differences between which electrodes?
  1. LA and LL
  2. LA and RA
  3. LA and RL
  4. RA and LL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.94) Leads V1 to V6 are called the _________ leads.
  1. augmented
  2. cardiac
  3. chest
  4. limb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.95) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?
  1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
  2. The fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  3. The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  4. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.96) How long is a normal standardization mark on an ECG tracing?
  1. 10 mm
  2. 15 mm
  3. 20 mm
  4. 25 mm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.97) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.98) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. CPR compression
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.99) What artifact is in this ECG tracing?
  1. AC interference
  2. Baseline wander
  3. Loose lead
  4. Muscle tremor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Administering Medications/Vaccines

6.1) Levothyroxine is the treatment for which disorder?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Hyperthyroidism
  3. Hypotension
  4. Hypothyroidism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Vaccination is what type of immunity?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) At what temperature are vaccines stored?
  1. –18°C and below
  2. 2–8°C
  3. Room temperature
  4. 36–37.5°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Which vaccine is recommended during pregnancy?
  1. HPV
  2. Tdap
  3. Typhoid fever
  4. Varicella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) The MMR vaccine protects against which three diseases?
  1. Malaria, measles, and roseola
  2. Malaria, meningitis, and rabies
  3. Mumps, measles, and rubella
  4. Mumps, meningitis, and rickets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Which needle gauge is used to administer intramuscular vaccines to children?
  1. 22–25
  2. 23–26
  3. 24–27
  4. 25–28
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Some vaccines come as "lyophilized" powders. What does lyophilized mean?
  1. Freeze-dried
  2. Irradiated with non-ionizing radiation
  3. Sprayed with preservatives
  4. Sterilized
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Which disease has a vaccine that can be administered by the intranasal route?
  1. COVID-19
  2. Influenza
  3. Rotavirus
  4. Tuberculosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) Immunocompromised patients can safely receive which of these vaccines?
  1. MMR
  2. Rotavirus
  3. Tdap
  4. Zostavax
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) At what age is the first dose of varicella vaccine given?
  1. 12–15 months
  2. 2–3 years
  3. 4–6 years
  4. 7–10 years
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Which of these vaccines requires reconstitution before administration?
  1. Hepatitis B
  2. Influenza
  3. Tetanus
  4. Varicella
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) Vaccines injected into the same limb must be spaced at least _________ apart.
  1. 0.5 inches
  2. 1 inch
  3. 1.5 inches
  4. 2 inches
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) What needle size is used to administer intramuscular vaccines to adults?
  1. 22–25 gauge, 1–1.5 inches
  2. 16–18 gauge, 1/2 inch
  3. 25–27 gauge, 3/8 inch
  4. 30–32 gauge, 1 inch
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which of these vaccines is administered orally?
  1. Hepatitis B
  2. Rotavirus
  3. Rubella
  4. Tetanus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) Which type of vaccine uses killed bacteria?
  1. Inactivated
  2. Live-attenuated
  3. Toxoid
  4. Viral-vector
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) What do Vaccine Information Statements explain?
  1. How to self-administer vaccines at home
  2. Insurance coverage details for vaccines
  3. The benefits and risks of a vaccine
  4. The requirements for handling and storing a vaccine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Which of these is a contraindication for the MMR vaccination?
  1. Current use of antibiotics
  2. Hayfever
  3. Low-grade fever
  4. Pregnancy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Which of these is a common side effect after receiving a vaccine?
  1. Fever
  2. Hunger
  3. Thirst
  4. Wheezing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) By what route are suppositories administered?
  1. Inhalation
  2. Parenteral
  3. Rectal
  4. Topical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) Antiemetic medications help to treat which health problem?
  1. Cancer
  2. Constipation
  3. Migraine
  4. Nausea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) What do vasodilators do?
  1. Decrease glucose levels
  2. Increase the activity of neurotransmitters in the brain
  3. Inhibit the metabolism of glucose
  4. Widen blood vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) What is the term for a drug that contains the same chemical substance as a brand-name drug?
  1. Controlled
  2. Generic
  3. Over-the-counter
  4. Prescription
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) Haloperidol is a medication used to treat which health problem?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Insomnia
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. Schizophrenia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) Which of these medications is a mood stabilizer for treating bipolar disorder?
  1. Dihydrocodeine
  2. Doxazosin
  3. Epinephrine
  4. Lithium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) Which of these medications is an anabolic steroid?
  1. Albuterol
  2. Anadrol
  3. Librium
  4. Vicodin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) Nitroglycerin is a:
  1. anti-hypertensive
  2. cardiotonic
  3. diuretic
  4. vasodilator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) Which of these medications lowers the level of LDL cholesterol in the blood?
  1. Beta-blockers
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Diuretics
  4. Statins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Which cardiac glycoside is used to treat congenital heart failure and arrhythmias by increasing cardiac output?
  1. Digoxin
  2. Furosemide
  3. Minoxidil
  4. Spironolactone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) How are aerosols administered?
  1. As a topical gel
  2. By inhalation
  3. By rectal administration
  4. Parenterally
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) Drugs that block release of a substance that causes allergic reactions are called:
  1. anticoagulants
  2. anticonvulsants
  3. antidiabetics
  4. antihistamines
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) Which type of drug increases urine output?
  1. Barbiturate
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Diuretic
  4. Immunosuppressant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) Which drugs relieve allergy symptoms?
  1. Anticoagulants
  2. Anticonvulsants
  3. Antidiabetics
  4. Antihistamines
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) Drugs that produce loss of sensation are called:
  1. analgesics
  2. anesthetics
  3. anticonvulsants
  4. tranquilizers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) Which of these medication combinations could cause hyperkalemia (high blood potassium)?
  1. Diazepam and oxycodone
  2. Digoxin and verapamil
  3. Fluoxetine and phenelzine
  4. Lisinopril and spironolactone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) Penicillin, amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin are examples of which type of drug?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Anticoagulants
  3. Antihistamines
  4. Antivirals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Acetaminophen is used to treat:
  1. allergies and itching
  2. fever and pain
  3. heartburn and acid reflux
  4. infection and inflammation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) What does the pharmaceutical abbreviation QDS mean?
  1. Every day
  2. Every four hours
  3. Every hour
  4. Four times a day
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for the right ear?
  1. AD
  2. AS
  3. ASA
  4. AU
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) What does the pharmaceutical abbreviation "pc" mean?
  1. After meals
  2. At bedtime
  3. Before meals
  4. In the morning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) What angle is used for a subcutaneous injection on thin patients?
  1. 15°
  2. 30°
  3. 45°
  4. 90°
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) The five rights of medication administration are right person, right medicine, right route, right dose, and:
  1. right physician
  2. right result
  3. right time
  4. right to refuse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) The Z-track method is used for which type of injection?
  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intrathecal
  3. Intravenous
  4. Subcutaneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) What is the most common site for intramuscular injection in adults?
  1. Abdomen
  2. Anterolateral thigh
  3. Deltoid
  4. Triceps
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) How should you dispose of a needle after administering an injection?
  1. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a biohazard bag
  2. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a sharps disposal container
  3. Recap the needle and place it in a biohazard bag
  4. Recap the needle and place it in a sharps disposal container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) If a patient needs to take 20 mg of a medication per day for 1 week, and the medication comes in 10 mg tablets, how many tablets should the patient take per day?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) A patient must take an extended-release medication but has difficulty swallowing the tablet because of its size. What should you do?
  1. Contact the provider to discuss an alternate form of the medication
  2. Crush the tablet
  3. Cut the tablet in half
  4. Dissolve the tablet in water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) A doctor orders a medication of 1 g/kg of body weight. If the patient weighs 181 lb, how many grams of the medication should be given?
  1. 81 g
  2. 91g
  3. 108 g
  4. 181 g
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) What angle is used for subcutaneous injections on obese patients?
  1. 15°
  2. 30°
  3. 45°
  4. 90°
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) How is NPH insulin administered?
  1. Intramuscularly
  2. Intravenously
  3. Orally
  4. Subcutaneously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) In California, which of these can a medical assistant legally inject into a patient?
  1. Anesthetics
  2. Chemotherapy medication
  3. Collagen
  4. Narcotics
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) Which of these needles is appropriate for an intramuscular injection?
  1. 16 G, 2.5 inch
  2. 20 G, 2 inch
  3. 24 G, 1.5 inch
  4. 28 G, 1 inch
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) A patient requires a dose of 12.5 mg but the medication is only available in 100 mg/2 mL ampules. How many mL should the patient take?
  1. 0.125
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.5
  4. 1
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Section 7: Discharging Patients

7.1) After a blood draw, patients should avoid:
  1. driving
  2. eating a large meal
  3. heavy lifting
  4. lying down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) Sutures and staples should be removed within:
  1. 1–2 hours
  2. 7–10 hours
  3. 1–2 days
  4. 7–10 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Which of these terms would patients most easily understand?
  1. Dilation
  2. Erythema
  3. Purpura
  4. Redness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Patients with heart disease should lower their intake of:
  1. fish
  2. fruit
  3. potassium
  4. salt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Which of these is a care instruction for a mother of a baby with mild jaundice?
  1. Administer oral vitamin K drops 3 times per day
  2. Breastfeed your baby often
  3. Do not let your baby sleep for more than 2 hours at a time
  4. Keep your baby in a dimly lit area
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) A patient receives general anesthetic for an operation. After the operation, a medical assistant needs to discharge the patient home. What instruction should the medical assistant give to the patient?
  1. Do not drive for 24 hours
  2. Drink 2 liters of sugary drinks over the next 12 hours to replenish electrolytes
  3. Take a hot bath
  4. Take a laxative every other day to avoid constipation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) A patient has had cryosurgery to remove a skin lesion. Which of these is the correct aftercare instruction?
  1. Apply glycolic acid cream every 6–8 hours
  2. Open the blister should one appear
  3. Scrub the site softly with a brush once a day
  4. Use a cool compress to relieve discomfort
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which of the following is a correct aftercare instruction for a urinary tract infection?
  1. Drink plenty of caffeine
  2. Take antibiotics as directed
  3. Urinate as little as possible
  4. Wipe from back to front after using the toilet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Which of these would be found in an after visit summary?
  1. Billing information
  2. Family history
  3. Follow-up care instructions
  4. Insurance details
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) When should patients receive an after visit summary?
  1. After every visit
  2. Every 3 months
  3. Every 6 months
  4. Every 12 months
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) A medical assistant is giving discharge instructions to a patient hospitalized with pneumonia. Which of these replies indicates the patient has misunderstood the instructions?
  1. "I can start eating a normal diet right away"
  2. "I can stop taking antibiotics once my symptoms have gone"
  3. "I should go home and get rest"
  4. "I should keep using the incentive spirometer to keep my airways open"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) What is the purpose of an after visit summary?
  1. To notify the patient's family about the visit
  2. To remind the patient what they discussed with their doctor
  3. To schedule future appointments
  4. To update the patient's insurance information
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) Which medication would an immunocompromised patient receive after wound debridement?
  1. Antibiotic
  2. Bronchodilator
  3. Corticosteroid
  4. Sedative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) What is the main purpose of a discharge summary report?
  1. To communicate a patient's care plan to the post-hospital care team
  2. To document legal issues that arose during the hospitalization
  3. To justify the hospitalisation costs to the insurance company
  4. To summarize the costs incurred during the patient's hospitalization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) Which of these is included in a discharge summary report?
  1. Detailed daily progress notes
  2. Diagnostic images
  3. Patient's insurance details
  4. Reason for admission
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Section 8: Responding to Codes/Emergencies

8.1) What is the medical term for a heart attack?
  1. Angina
  2. Angina pectoris
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Myocardial infarction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Insulin overdose causes which of these diabetic emergencies?
  1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
  2. Diabetic neuropathy
  3. Diabetic retinopathy
  4. Diabetic shock
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) What is the first step in caring for a wound with heavy bleeding?
  1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
  2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing
  3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
  4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) A patient appears to be intoxicated. Her speech is incoherent. Her breathing is rapid. Her pulse is 120. Around her wrist is a diabetic medical bracelet. Which of these actions would be the most appropriate?
  1. Give the patient a glass of water
  2. Give the patient a sugary drink
  3. Give the patient time to recover on her own
  4. Inject the patient with insulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) The recovery position is used for patients who are:
  1. breathing abnormally
  2. unconscious and not breathing
  3. unconscious but breathing normally
  4. undergoing cardiac arrest
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) Activated charcoal is used to treat:
  1. asthma
  2. convulsions
  3. hypotension
  4. poisoning
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?
  1. Face, arm, speech and time
  2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
  3. First airway, second temperature
  4. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) In CPR, how many chest compressions should be given per second?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) The rule of nines indicates the:
  1. amount of IV fluid necessary
  2. amount of infection present
  3. depth of a burn
  4. percentage of body area affected by a burn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) What should you do if someone is having a seizure?
  1. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  2. Hold them down
  3. Put something soft under their head
  4. Put something wooden in their mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) First aid for a snake bite to the arm includes:
  1. Applying a tourniquet
  2. Applying ice to the injury
  3. Immobilizing the arm
  4. Sucking the venom out of the wound
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) When should you NEVER administer care to a casualty?
  1. When the person has stopped breathing
  2. When the person is having a seizure
  3. When the person is unconscious
  4. When the person refuses care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) A patient is experiencing hives, difficulty breathing, and sneezing. The patient is most likely:
  1. experiencing insulin overdose
  2. going into anaphylactic shock
  3. having a heart attack
  4. having a stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) How many inches deep are chest compressions for CPR?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the chain of survival?
  1. Call 911, defibrillation, start CPR
  2. Call 911, start CPR, defibrillation
  3. Defibrillation, call 911, start CPR
  4. Start CPR, call 911, defibrillation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) Where on the patient should you place your hands for CPR?
  1. The center of the chest
  2. The diaphragm
  3. The pelvis
  4. The stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) What does ABC stand for in first aid?
  1. Active body control
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Always be careful
  4. Attention, beware, check
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) A patient has frostbite in his fingers. What measure can you take before transporting the patient to emergency care?
  1. Apply a heating pad
  2. Immerse his hands in hot water
  3. Loosely wrap his fingers in bandages
  4. Rub his hands vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) How do you care for someone with a possible neck injury?
  1. Ask the person to try to move their head
  2. Keep the person's head still and do not try to move it
  3. Move the person into a comfortable position
  4. Move the person's head so that it rests above their heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) The chain of survival is a four-step process that can help save the lives of victims of:
  1. cardiac arrest
  2. diabetic coma
  3. massive blood loss
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) When administering CPR, give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.22) A colleague has cut his lower arm and is bleeding. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response?
  1. Apply firm pressure to the wound using sterile gauze
  2. Clean and dress the wound once the bleeding has stopped
  3. Place a tourniquet over the elbow joint
  4. Wear gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.23) The Heimlich maneuver is used for:
  1. choking
  2. heart attack
  3. poisoning
  4. syncope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.24) Which four medications are stored on crash carts for breathing emergencies?
  1. Alprazolam, carisoprodol, clonazepam, and clorazepate
  2. Amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylphenidate, and amobarbital
  3. Hydromorphone, methadone, meperidine, and oxycodone
  4. Terbutaline, epinephrine, aminophylline, and albuterol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.25) Which of these patients should be attended to first?
  1. A boy with a minor bite from a dog that was vaccinated against rabies
  2. A man who had knee replacement surgery three days ago and now has swelling and pain in his leg
  3. A woman complaining of nausea twelve hours after a hysterectomy
  4. A woman with a temperature of 99.9°F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.26) Which medication is used in an emergency to stop convulsions and seizures?
  1. Diazepam
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Nitroprusside
  4. Terbutaline
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.27) Which hospital emergency code is used for adults going into cardiac arrest?
  1. Blue
  2. Gray
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
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Section 9: Managing Communication

9.1) When talking to children, use:
  1. abbreviations
  2. jargon
  3. simple words
  4. technical language
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) When interacting with blind patients, you should:
  1. narrate your actions
  2. provide written materials
  3. use an interpreter
  4. use simple language
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) When communicating with someone from a different culture, it is important to:
  1. make assumptions about their beliefs and values
  2. speak louder and slower to ensure understanding
  3. be respectful of their cultural differences
  4. avoid using humor, as it may be misinterpreted
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) For which type of patient would an interpreter be useful?
  1. Blind
  2. Intellectually disabled
  3. Non-English speaking
  4. Pediatric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) Which mail type ensures a letter will arrive the next day?
  1. Express
  2. Ground
  3. Priority
  4. Transit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) What is the standard font size for business letters?
  1. 10 pt
  2. 12 pt
  3. 14 pt
  4. 16 pt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) Which of these is a correct dateline for a business letter?
  1. 8/20/2024
  2. Aug. 20 2024
  3. Aug. 20, 2024
  4. August 20, 2024
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) Which format is this letter in?
  1. Full block
  2. Modified block
  3. Semi block
  4. Simplified
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) Mail marked _____________ should be left unopened and given to the physician.
  1. important
  2. open immediately
  3. personal
  4. urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) When does Medicare allow stamped signatures?
  1. During major disasters or imminent emergencies
  2. For low-priority claims of small amounts
  3. For physicians unable to sign due to a disability
  4. For physicians with a high volume of patients
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.11) What is the size of legal paper?
  1. 8.3×11.3 inches
  2. 8.3×14.3 inches
  3. 8.5×11 inches
  4. 8.5×14 inches
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.12) When answering the phone, you should state your name and:
  1. "How are you today?"
  2. the name of your facility
  3. your facility's opening hours
  4. your phone number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.13) What term means sending medication orders and treatment instructions electronically instead of on paper charts?
  1. Computerized physician order entry
  2. Digital treatment instruction transfer
  3. Electronic medical record
  4. Electronic order scripting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.14) Which law requires safeguards when sending health information by email?
  1. CAN-SPAM Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Privacy Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.15) Medical assistants are allowed to:
  1. call in new prescriptions
  2. call in prescription refills
  3. change a patient's dosage
  4. prescribe medication
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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