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CCBMA Clinical Exam: Practice Questions

Number of questions: 300

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About the CCBMA Clinical Exam

The California Certified Medical Assistant (CCMA) exams are exams that test your knowledge of medical assisting. They are designed for entry-level medical assistants.

The exams are set by the California Certifying Board for Medical Assistants (CCBMA), a private non-profit corporation.

There are three CCMA exams: Basic, Administrative and Clinical. The Clinical exam tests your knowledge of clinical procedures such as administering injections, performing skin tests, and performing venipuncture.

To become certified by the CCMA, you must pass:

  1. the Basic examination and
  2. either the Administrative exam or Clinical exam.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CCBMA Clinical Exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the six sections of the exam: 1. Infection Control, 2. Patient Preparation, 3. Lab Procedures/Diagnostic Testing, 4. Patient History, 5. Administering Medications, and 6. Office Emergencies.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Infection Control
  2. Patient Preparation
  3. Lab Procedures/Diagnostic Testing
  4. Patient History
  5. Administering Medications
  6. Office Emergencies

Section 1: Infection Control

1.1) What should be your first action if a patient's body fluid splashes into your eyes?
  1. Call 911
  2. Determine whether the patient has an infectious disease
  3. Flush the eyes with water
  4. Make an entry in the accident log book
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) What is post-exposure prophylaxis?
  1. An auto-immune disease
  2. The inability to breathe after exposure to an allergen
  3. The protocol for cleaning a laboratory after the release of a dangerous pathogen
  4. Treatment after exposure to a pathogen to prevent infection from occurring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which mode of transmission involves the transfer of infectious agents from one person to another during physical contact with blood or other body fluids?
  1. Direct contact
  2. Droplets
  3. Indirect contact
  4. Vectors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) The six links in the chain of infection are infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and:
  1. behavior
  2. hospital-acquired infection
  3. reagent
  4. susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) In the chain of infection, which link comes after the portal of exit and before the portal of entry?
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Mode of transmission
  3. Reservoir
  4. Susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) The responsibility for identifying employees at risk of exposure to blood or OPIM lies with the:
  1. employer
  2. government
  3. patient
  4. union
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) A disinfectant may become ineffective if:
  1. it is kept in a dark place
  2. it is left at room temperature
  3. it is not diluted properly
  4. the container is kept tightly sealed during storage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) The destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, is called:
  1. disinfection
  2. eradication
  3. sanitation
  4. sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?
  1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
  2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  3. Antibacterial soap and water
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?
  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?
  1. 1% ethyl alcohol
  2. 10% ethyl alcohol
  3. 40% ethyl alcohol
  4. 70% ethyl alcohol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Which of these items is NOT found in biohazard spill kits?
  1. Autoclavable waste bags
  2. Disinfectant
  3. Petri dishes
  4. Safety goggles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Autoclave tape changes color when:
  1. organisms have been killed
  2. sterilization has taken place
  3. the autoclave is nearing the end of its warranty
  4. the autoclave reaches a specific temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) The inside of the autoclave should be washed every week with:
  1. a disinfectant
  2. a mild detergent
  3. an antiseptic
  4. saltwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Get a new wrapper
  2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
  3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
  4. Throw the instrument away
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) What type of water does an autoclave use?
  1. Distilled water
  2. Mineral water
  3. Saltwater
  4. Tap water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Why must all air be removed from an autoclave before switching it on?
  1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
  2. Air increases the risk of explosion
  3. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
  4. Steam can break the glassware
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Which item of lab equipment sterilizes using pressurized steam?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Dry heat sterilizer
  3. Fume hood
  4. Oven
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Which process kills all microorganisms, including spores?
  1. Cleaning
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sanitization
  4. Sterilization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. Sterilization may not be complete
  4. The oven may get damaged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) Which of these methods results in sterilization?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Chemical disinfectants
  3. Freezing
  4. Soap and water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) At what temperature do hot air ovens sterilize glassware in 60 minutes?
  1. 100°C
  2. 121°C
  3. 140°C
  4. 160°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), for how long are sterilized articles wrapped in double-thickness muslin considered sterile?
  1. 15 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 45 days
  4. 60 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Which type of asepsis is the absence of all microorganisms during an invasive procedure?
  1. Clean technique
  2. Medical asepsis
  3. Sterile technique
  4. Surgical asepsis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) What is the name for chemicals that kill microorganisms on the skin?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Antiseptics
  3. Biocides
  4. Disinfectants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) The ____________ wheel is a medical device used to test nerve reactions.
  1. Dietrich
  2. Hofman
  3. Wartenberg
  4. Zimmermann
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) What is a cannula?
  1. A device for delivering gas by mouth
  2. A specialised type of medical forceps
  3. A tool for looking inside the gastrointestinal tract
  4. A tube inserted into the body
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Patient Preparation

2.1) A patient who is 'febrile' has:
  1. a fever
  2. a weak heart rhythm
  3. low blood sugar
  4. muscle wasting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What is the first step when removing staples from patients?
  1. Close the handle
  2. Move the staple side to side to remove it
  3. Place the staple extractor under the staple
  4. Put on gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Arthroscopy is a proceduce for diagnosing and treating problems with:
  1. bones
  2. joints
  3. lymph nodes
  4. muscles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Otoscopes examine which part of the body?
  1. Ears
  2. Eyes
  3. Mouth
  4. Nose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which medical instrument retracts the vaginal walls for diagnostic procedures?
  1. Cannula
  2. Protoscope
  3. Speculum
  4. Ventilator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Hemostats are used to:
  1. control bleeding
  2. deliver medications intravenously
  3. measure blood pressure
  4. remove toxic materials from the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) What purpose does a gait belt serve?
  1. To a place to rest a patient’s feet during an examination
  2. To help transfer a patient from a wheelchair to the examination table
  3. To restrain a patient’s arms during an examination
  4. To secure a patient to the examination table
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Which test detects cancer by collecting cells from the cervix?
  1. Pap smear
  2. Pelvic exam
  3. Pregnancy test
  4. Ultrasound
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which patient examination technique involves tapping parts of the body and using the sound produced to gauge the density of structures?
  1. Auscultation
  2. Observation
  3. Palpation
  4. Percussion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) Tonometry checks the:
  1. brain
  2. ears
  3. eyes
  4. heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What is the name of this chart?
  1. Bakker chart
  2. De Vries chart
  3. Jansen chart
  4. Snellen chart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) What tool is used to test deep tendon reflexes?
  1. Otoscope
  2. Percussion hammer
  3. Tape measure
  4. Tuning forks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) When recording eye exam results, the patient's right eye is recorded as:
  1. OD
  2. OR
  3. OS
  4. OU
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which procedure examines the female reproductive organs?
  1. Digital rectal examination
  2. Pelvic exam
  3. Pregnancy test
  4. Prostate exam
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What does a pulse oximeter measure?
  1. Heart rate
  2. Oxygen saturation
  3. Pulse Volume
  4. Respiratory rate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) What is the normal body mass index range?
  1. 16.5–23.9
  2. 17.5–24.9
  3. 18.5–24.9
  4. 19.5–25.9
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) During a pediatric exam, the child’s height, weight and head circumference are plotted onto which chart to gauge whether the child is growing appropriately?
  1. Apgar
  2. Growth
  3. Medical
  4. Pediatric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) In which patient examination technique do doctors use their hands and fingertips to feel for positions and sizes of organs?
  1. Manipulation
  2. Observation
  3. Palpation
  4. Percussion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Which medical procedure uses a speculum, spatula, and cytobrush?
  1. Ear irrigation
  2. Pap smear
  3. Phlebotomy
  4. Wound dressing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) You have been asked to perform a physical examination on a patient. After greeting the patient and escorting them to the examination room, what should be your next step?
  1. Check the patient's vital signs
  2. Confirm the patient's identity
  3. Measure the patient's height
  4. Measure the patient's weight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Otoscopes examine which area of the body?
  1. Ear canal
  2. Pupil
  3. Reflexes
  4. Throat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which patient examination technique involves using a stethoscope to listen for abnormalities in different body parts?
  1. Auscultation
  2. Manipulation
  3. Mensuration
  4. Observation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What tool is used to evaluate the symptoms of retinal detachment?
  1. Ophthalmoscope
  2. Otoscope
  3. Percussion hammer
  4. Tuning forks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Which of these tools is used to assess hearing?
  1. Anoscope
  2. Percussion hammer
  3. Specimen collection system
  4. Tuning forks
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.
  1. 40 to 80
  2. 60 to 100
  3. 80 to 120
  4. 100 to 140
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) The medical assistant places a thermometer along the patient's frenulum linguae. Which temperature is being taken?
  1. Aural
  2. Axillary
  3. Oral
  4. Rectal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is normal body temperature?
  1. 21°C
  2. 32°C
  3. 37°C
  4. 100°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) The normal respiratory rate for adults is ________ breaths per minute.
  1. 4–12
  2. 12–20
  3. 20–28
  4. 28–36
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which pulse is used to measure blood pressure when the brachial pulse is inaccessible?
  1. Dorsalis pedis
  2. Femoral
  3. Popliteal pulse
  4. Posterior tibial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mm Hg
  2. 60–79 mm Hg
  3. 90–119 mm Hg
  4. 120–139 mm Hg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What is the normal range for diastolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mmHg
  2. 60–79 mmHg
  3. 90–119 mmHg
  4. 120–139 mmHg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) What is the name of the sounds heard with a stethoscope as a blood pressure cuff is slowly deflated?
  1. Belsky
  2. Korotkoff
  3. Morozov
  4. Turgenev
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Where is the temporal pulse point located?
  1. Armpit
  2. Forehead
  3. Mouth
  4. Rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Which vital sign tells you if the patient has a fever?
  1. BP
  2. BT
  3. HR
  4. RR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Which artery in the wrist is used for measuring a person's pulse?
  1. Carotid
  2. Radial
  3. Temporal
  4. Ulnar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) What type of thermometer can measure oral, axillary, and rectal temperatures?
  1. Digital
  2. Laboratory
  3. Temporal artery
  4. Tympanic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) What is the most accurate place to measure a person's body temperature?
  1. Anus
  2. Armpit
  3. Ears
  4. Mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) What is the BMI overweight range?
  1. 16–18.49
  2. 18.5–24.9
  3. 25–29.99
  4. 30–34.99
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) What pulse is located on the top of the foot?
  1. Carotid
  2. Dorsalis pedis
  3. Femoral
  4. Popliteal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Where is the apical pulse found?
  1. Behind the knee
  2. On the throat
  3. On the wrist
  4. Over the heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) What pulse is located in the middle of the groin?
  1. Carotid
  2. Dorsalis pedis
  3. Femoral
  4. Popliteal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) The four main vital signs are temperature, pulse, respiratory rate, and:
  1. blood glucose
  2. blood pressure
  3. oxygen saturation
  4. urine output
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Which age group usually has the highest body temperature?
  1. Children
  2. Teenagers
  3. Adults in their 20s and 30s
  4. Middle-age adults
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) Which patient position is used for the insertion of a vaginal speculum?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone position
  4. Supine position
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) In which position does the patient lie face-down?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Sims’
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Which patient position is used to administer enemas?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Sims'
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Which patient position is also known as the left lateral position?
  1. Prone
  2. Sims'
  3. Sitting
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Which patient position is used to examine the abdomen?
  1. Prone
  2. Sims
  3. Sitting
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which position is also known as the sitting position?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which patient position is used to insert urinary catheters?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Prone
  3. Sims'
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) Which patient position requires the patient to put their feet into stirrups?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Which patient position is used for barium swallow procedures, nasopharyngeal feedings and respiratory distress, and requires the patient to lie face up, with their upper body elevated at 45-60 degrees?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Fowler’s
  3. Lithotomy
  4. Semi-Fowler’s
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) What is the supine position?
  1. Lying on the back
  2. Lying on the front
  3. Lying on the side
  4. Sitting upright
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) You need to measure a patient's rectal temperature. What position should you place the patient in?
  1. Fowler's
  2. Prone
  3. Sims'
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which position requires placing the patient’s left arm behind the body?
  1. Prone
  2. Sims'
  3. Sitting
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which position is used to measure a patient's vital signs?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone
  4. Sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) What patient position is used for flexible sigmoidoscopies?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Fowler’s
  3. Prone
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which patient position is commonly used for ECGs?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Which patient position is used for gynecology examinations?
  1. Lateral
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Sim's position
  4. Trendelenburg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) Which patient position is used to assess the extension of the hip joint?
  1. Lithotomy
  2. Prone
  3. Sims
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) In which position does the patient lie on their left side with their left leg slightly bent and their right leg sharply bent?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Sims’
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Lab Procedures/Diagnostic Testing

3.1) Which specimen request has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient. However, the inpatient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them, "What is your name?"
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) When drawing blood from an obese patient, which location should be the first place you look for a vein?
  1. The antecubital fossa
  2. The back of the knee
  3. The feet
  4. The neck
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is too tight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) For venipuncture, tourniquets should be:
  1. applied very tightly to the arm
  2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
  3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
  4. tight enough to slow venous flow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What is the most common antiseptic used to disinfect the site before venipuncture?
  1. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  2. Betadine
  3. EMLA
  4. Iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To remove microorganisms
  4. To remove oil and sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release their fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) What are lavender top tubes used for?
  1. Blood cultures
  2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rates
  3. Glucose determinations
  4. Hematology tests
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Which anticoagulant is used to collect arterial blood gas specimens?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Trisodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Dark green
  2. Gold
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which vacutainer tube contains no additives?
  1. Pink
  2. Red (glass)
  3. Red (plastic)
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which color vacutainer tube is known as the "SPS tube"?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Pink
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?
  1. Light blue
  2. Orange
  3. Red
  4. Royal blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?
  1. Differential
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Platelet count
  4. Prothrombin time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Light blue top vacutainer tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:
  1. 1:3
  2. 1:6
  3. 1:9
  4. 1:12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Green top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Citrate
  2. EDTA
  3. Fluoride
  4. Heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Yellow top vacutainer tubes contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Acid citrate dextrose
  2. Sodium benzoate
  3. Sodium nitrite
  4. Sulfur dioxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Which anticoagulant is in gray top vacutainers?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Blood for a white blood cell count is generally collected in which color vacutainer?
  1. Black
  2. Blue
  3. Gray
  4. Lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-colored tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. obese patients
  4. patients with AIDS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.
  1. Milliner's
  2. butterfly
  3. straight
  4. universal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) If a patient is having blood drawn for a prothrombin time test, you might expect:
  1. the patient to be fasting
  2. the patient to bleed for a long time
  3. to have difficulty filling the tube
  4. to have to mix the tube more
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which dysrhythmia is similar to wandering atrial pacemaker, except that the rate exceeds 100 beats per minute?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Multfocal atrial tachycardia
  4. Sinus tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:
  1. 40–60 bpm
  2. 60–80 bpm
  3. 80–100 bpm
  4. >100 bpm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) The sympathetic nervous system:
  1. constricts the pupils
  2. increases the heart rate
  3. promotes digestion
  4. reduces blood pressure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure when which part of the heart contracts?
  1. Arteries
  2. Atria
  3. Valves
  4. Ventricles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?
  1. AV node
  2. Left atrium
  3. Sinoatrial node
  4. VA node
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) What is the normal, inherent rate for the AV junction?
  1. 20-40 beats per minute
  2. 40-60 beats per minute
  3. 60-80 beats per minute
  4. 80-100 beats per minute
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Superheating steam in an autoclave:
  1. diminishes its sterilizing capacity
  2. helps to dry out the equipment
  3. increases its sterilizing power
  4. will make the centrifuge spin faster
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which of these is a sign of a poorly prepared blood smear?
  1. Covers the majority of the slide
  2. Fills half to three-quarters the length of the slide
  3. Has a consistent thickness throughout
  4. Has feathered edges
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) A doctor orders a blood smear for malaria. After collecting an EDTA blood specimen from the patient, the lab technician should prepare the blood smear within:
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
  2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
  3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
  4. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which specimen is needed for the glycosylated hemoglobin test?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) What is "the order of draw"?
  1. An order given by a superior to draw blood from a patient
  2. The order blood tubes are filled
  3. The order blood vials are stored
  4. The order you select patients to draw blood from
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) The creatinine clearance test:
  1. is a liver function test
  2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
  3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
  4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) Which sample does a 17-hydroxycorticosteroids test require?
  1. 24-hour urine
  2. 72-hour stool
  3. Heparinized plasma
  4. Serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) Which test requires the patient to avoid foods high in serotonin such as avocados, bananas, and pineapple?
  1. 5-H1AA urine test
  2. 72- hour fecal fat test
  3. Lipid profile
  4. Stool culture and sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) An ABG test measures the amount of:
  1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
  2. occult blood in a stool sample
  3. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
  4. red and white blood cells in venous blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cross-match
  3. Drug screen
  4. TDM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.47) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
  2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
  3. Continue regardless
  4. Retake both specimens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.48) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Glucose tolerance
  3. HCG detection
  4. Urine cytology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.49) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:
  1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
  2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
  3. phosphates and bilirubin
  4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.50) What does sulfosalicylic acid detect in urine?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Glucose
  3. Protein
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.51) Which type of urine specimen is taken after eating?
  1. Clean catch midstream
  2. Pediatric
  3. Postprandial
  4. Random
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.52) Which chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?
  1. Glucose oxidase
  2. Glucose oxide
  3. Glucose reductase
  4. Hexichloridine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.53) Which additive is preferred for collecting blood culture specimens?
  1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium heparin
  4. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.54) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  3. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  4. "What is your name?"
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.55) What is the minimum number of blood samples for the one-step glucose tolerance test?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.56) You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 8:10 am. You give the patient the glucose drink at 8:13 am. He finishes the drink at 8:18 am. When should you collect the 1 hour specimen?
  1. 9:10 am
  2. 9:13 am
  3. 9:15 am
  4. 9:18 am
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.57) Lactose tolerance testing:
  1. can diagnose a patient’s inability to digest milk sugar
  2. requires a urine sample
  3. requires blood samples to be taken over 24 hours
  4. requires the patient to drink a liquid containing glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.58) A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do?
  1. Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day
  2. Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits
  3. Start the test as the biscuits will not matter
  4. Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.59) A 2-hour postprandial glucose test:
  1. is collected 2 hours after a meal
  2. is collected 2 hours after fasting
  3. is used to diagnose diabetes during pregnancy
  4. requires a urine sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.60) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. The infant may move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.61) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.62) A fasting patient has cloudy white serum. What condition does the patient have?
  1. Hemolysis
  2. Hyperbilirubinemia
  3. Hyperthyroidism
  4. Hypertriglyceridemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.63) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. discarded
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.64) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.65) Where is blood generally stored?
  1. In a dark cupboard at room temperature
  2. In a water bath
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the refrigerator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.66) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
  2. Centrifuge the urine sample
  3. Place a coverslip over the sample
  4. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.67) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Immunoassay
  3. Peripheral smear
  4. Urine hCG test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.68) CLIA refers to moderate and high complexity tests collectively as _____________ tests.
  1. cleared
  2. licensed
  3. nonwaived
  4. point-of-care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.69) CLIA considers which of these a high-complexity test?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolyte profile
  3. Microscopic analysis of urine
  4. Peripheral smear
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.70) A continuous ECG monitor is used most commonly in a:
  1. assisted-living center
  2. clinic
  3. hospital
  4. physician's office
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.71) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?
  1. RA, LA and LL
  2. RA, LA and RL
  3. RA, LL and RL
  4. V1, V2 and V3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.72) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:
  1. AVF
  2. AVL
  3. AVM
  4. AVR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.73) What view of the heart do leads II, III, and aVF of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.74) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
  2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
  3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
  4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.75) In electrocardiography, what does the letter A in aVL stand for?
  1. actual
  2. alternating
  3. amplitude
  4. augmented
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.76) The right leg (RL) electrode of the electrocardiogram is also known as:
  1. F
  2. N
  3. T
  4. V1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.77) What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.78) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?
  1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Bundle branch block
  4. Tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.79) How many electrodes does the 12-lead ECG use?
  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
  4. 12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.80) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?
  1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
  2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
  3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
  4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.81) Why is paste or jelly applied to a patient before an ECG?
  1. To facilitate conductivity between the skin and the electrode
  2. To prevent the electrodes from overheating
  3. To reduce the risk of shocking the patient
  4. To reduce the risk of shocking the technician
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.82) What is the main difficulty in determining a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
  1. Determining the origin of the tachycardia
  2. Determining the regularity
  3. Determining the ventricular rate
  4. Measuring the QRS interval
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.83) On a normal ECG, which wave is the first wave to show downward deflection?
  1. P wave
  2. Q wave
  3. R wave
  4. S wave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.84) How many milliseconds long is a normal QRS complex on an ECG trace?
  1. 80–100
  2. 100–120
  3. 120–140
  4. 140–160
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.85) Which pacemaker complication shows a pacing spike on ECG tracing, but no waveform immediately following it?
  1. Failure to capture
  2. Failure to sense
  3. Normal sinus rhythm
  4. Oversensing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.86) Which type of heart block has regular P-P and R-R intervals that fire at two distinctly different rates on ECG tracing?
  1. First degree heart block
  2. Second degree type I
  3. Second degree type II
  4. Third degree heart block
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.87) What do the P waves represent on an ECG?
  1. Atrial depolarization
  2. Atrial repolarization
  3. Ventricular depolarization
  4. Ventricular repolarization
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.88) When QRS duration is _________ seconds, bundle branch block must be considered.
  1. less than 0.06
  2. 0.06 to 0.09
  3. 0.09 to 0.12
  4. more than 0.12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.89) QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds or greater with a rate between 20 and 40 beats per minute indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the:
  1. AV node
  2. Purkinje fibers (ventricles)
  3. SA node
  4. interatrial pathways
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.90) At least ___ differently shaped P waves should be identified on the ECG tracing before making a diagnosis of wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.91) Which type of heart block has missing QRS complexes and a consistent PR interval measurement on ECG tracing?
  1. First degree heart block
  2. Second degree type I
  3. Second degree type II
  4. Third degree heart block
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.92) What does ST elevation on an ECG suggest?
  1. Bundle branch block
  2. Heart murmur
  3. Myocardial infarction
  4. The leads are on the wrong way around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.93) Which atrial dysrhythmia has lowercase "f" waves, chaotic atrial electrical activity, and irregular R-R intervals on an ECG tracing?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
  4. PACs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.94) What does the vertical axis on electrocardiogram paper represent?
  1. Acceleration
  2. Speed
  3. Time
  4. Voltage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.95) How long is a normal PR interval on an ECG trace?
  1. 0.02 to 0.06 seconds
  2. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
  3. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
  4. 0.20 to 0.28 seconds
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.96) What causes somatic tremors on an ECG?
  1. Incorrect placement of leads
  2. Interference from another electrical device
  3. Leakage of electrical current
  4. Patient movement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.97) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?
  1. The P wave
  2. The Q wave
  3. The R wave
  4. The S wave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.98) Which of these would NOT cause artifacts on an ECG?
  1. Coins in the cardiologist's pocket
  2. Electrical interference
  3. Loose wires
  4. Patient movement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.99) The glycosylated hemoglobin test is used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hemoglobin C disease
  3. Inflammation
  4. Renal disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Patient History

4.1) The patient history should begin with:
  1. an open-ended question about the patient's chief complaint
  2. closed-questions about the patient's primary problem
  3. confirmation of the time, date, and location
  4. questions about the patient's lifestyle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) What does the letter Q represent in the mnemonic OPQRST?
  1. Qualification
  2. Quality
  3. Quantity
  4. Question
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Asking the patient about their activities when their symptoms first started occurs in which stage of OPQRST-ASPN?
  1. Onset
  2. Provocation/Palliation
  3. Quality
  4. Time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) In which part of the medical record would you find the patient's marital status?
  1. Chief complaint
  2. Family history
  3. History of present illness
  4. Patient demographics
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) GPAL is used to document a patient's:
  1. current medication
  2. drug use
  3. history of pregnancy
  4. lifestyle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) Which of the following is NOT part of a complete medical history?
  1. Ability to pay for prehospital medical care
  2. Conditions currently being managed by a physician
  3. Prior hospital admissions
  4. Prior surgeries
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) The CAGE questionnaire is used to help diagnose which health problem?
  1. Alcoholism
  2. Post-natal depression
  3. Schizophrenia
  4. Sleeping disorders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) In the mnemonic SAMPLE, what does the M stand for?
  1. Manifestations
  2. Medical history
  3. Medications
  4. Multiple symptoms
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) The list of possible causes of a patient's symptoms is called the:
  1. chief complaint
  2. differential diagnosis
  3. presenting problem
  4. summary diagnosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) The main part of the patient history is the:
  1. chief complaint
  2. identifying data
  3. past medical history
  4. source of the history
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Administering Medications

5.1) The ___________________ is the federal drug policy by the Drug Enforcement Agency that regulates certain stimulants, anabolic steroids, narcotics, depressants, hallucinogens and other chemicals.
  1. Controlled Substances Act
  2. Dangerous Drugs Act
  3. Drug Trafficking Act
  4. Substance Abuse Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which route of drug administration involves placing a gel or tablet between the cheek and the gum?
  1. Buccal
  2. Intramuscular
  3. Intravenous
  4. Z-track
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) The science of drugs and their effects on the body is known as:
  1. anatomy
  2. pathology
  3. pharmacology
  4. physiology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Prozac, Zoloft, Paxil, Lexapro, and Celexa are all medications that treat depression by inhibiting the reuptake of which neurotransmitter in the brain?
  1. Acetylcholine
  2. Dopamine
  3. Histamine
  4. Serotonin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Clark's rule is used to calculate medication doses for:
  1. children
  2. end-of-life patients
  3. geriatric patients
  4. obese patients
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) A physician prescribes warfarin 5 mg for a patient but the nurse accidentally gives the patient 10 mg of warfarin instead. Which of the five rights of medication administration has the nurse failed to ensure?
  1. Right client
  2. Right dose
  3. Right drug
  4. Right time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) How should patients take oral capsules?
  1. Chew the capsule completely and then swallow it
  2. Dissolve the capsule in water and drink it
  3. Open the capsule and tip the contents into the mouth
  4. Swallow the capsule whole with water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) How is NPH insulin administered?
  1. Intramuscularly
  2. Intravenously
  3. Orally
  4. Subcutaneously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) You need to administer a Mantoux skin test with a 27-gauge needle. At which angle should you insert the needle?
  1. 5–15 degrees
  2. 20–30 degrees
  3. 35–45 degrees
  4. 80–90 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.10) A patient inserts a vaginal suppository. What should the patient do next?
  1. Lie down
  2. Sit on the toilet
  3. Urinate
  4. Walk around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.11) A patient requires 12.5 mg of hydrochlorothiazide. Only 25 mg tablets are available. How many tablets should the patient take?
  1. 1/2
  2. 1
  3. 1 1/2
  4. 2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.12) When administering eardrops to a two-year-old, in which direction should you pull the pinna?
  1. Downward
  2. Left
  3. Right
  4. Upward
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.13) A patient requires a dose of 12.5 mg but the medication is only available in 100 mg/2 mL ampules. How many mL should the patient take?
  1. 0.125
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.5
  4. 1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.14) How should you dispose of a needle after administering an injection?
  1. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a biohazard bag
  2. Leave the needle uncapped and place it in a sharps disposal container
  3. Recap the needle and place it in a biohazard bag
  4. Recap the needle and place it in a sharps disposal container
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.15) Which patient population should avoid teratogenic drugs?
  1. End-of-life
  2. Geriatric
  3. Pediatric
  4. Pregnant women
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.16) If a drug is administered transdermally, how does it enter the body?
  1. Absorbed through the skin
  2. Dissolved inside the cheek
  3. Inhaled into the lungs
  4. Inserted into the vaginal cavity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.17) Where is the quadriceps muscle?
  1. Buttocks
  2. Calf
  3. Shoulder
  4. Thigh
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.18) The Z-track method is used for which type of injection?
  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intrathecal
  3. Intravenous
  4. Subcutaneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.19) The five rights of medication administration are right person, right medicine, right route, right dose, and:
  1. right physician
  2. right result
  3. right time
  4. right to refuse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.20) The time it takes for drug concentration to reach a therapeutic level in the blood is known as:
  1. duration of action
  2. half-life
  3. onset of action
  4. peak action
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.21) An interaction between two or more drugs that have opposite effects on the body is called:
  1. a duplication reaction
  2. an idiosyncratic reaction
  3. drug antagonism
  4. drug synergism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.22) Which of these needles is appropriate for an intramuscular injection?
  1. 16 G, 2.5 inch
  2. 20 G, 2 inch
  3. 24 G, 1.5 inch
  4. 28 G, 1 inch
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.23) What is the preferred site for intramuscular injection in infants under 12 months of age?
  1. Abdomen
  2. Anterolateral thigh
  3. Deltoid muscle
  4. Upper outer triceps
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.24) What is the best way to verify the identity of a confused patient?
  1. Ask the patient to confirm their name
  2. Ask the patient to state their name and birth date
  3. Check the name on the patient's wristband
  4. Check the room and bed number that the patient is in
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.25) What is the term for the reduction in the effectiveness of a drug due to metabolism by the liver?
  1. Absorption
  2. Bioavailability
  3. Extraction
  4. First-pass effect
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.26) Drugs that are inactive until the body metabolizes them into an active form are called:
  1. barbiturates
  2. polypills
  3. premedication
  4. prodrugs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.27) A patient must take an extended-release medication but has difficulty swallowing the tablet because of its size. What should you do?
  1. Contact the provider to discuss an alternate form of the medication
  2. Crush the tablet
  3. Cut the tablet in half
  4. Dissolve the tablet in water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.28) Which factor in a patient's medical history is most likely to prolong the half-life of certain drugs?
  1. Heart disease
  2. Liver disease
  3. Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. Tobacco use
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.29) A patient with end-stage cancer is prescribed morphine sulfate to reduce pain. For which effect is this medication prescribed?
  1. Palliative
  2. Restorative
  3. Substitutive
  4. Supportive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.30) A patient with terminal cancer requires increasing doses of an opioid pain medication to obtain relief from pain. This patient is exhibiting signs of drug:
  1. abuse
  2. dependence
  3. misuse
  4. tolerance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.31) Which route of medication administration has the fastest onset of action?
  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intravenous
  3. Oral
  4. Subcutaneous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.32) You need to give 10 μg of vitamin D to a patient. What does the abbreviation μg mean?
  1. Micrograms
  2. Milligrams
  3. Nanograms
  4. Nanoliters
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.33) A patient requires the following four medications. Which drug should you administer first?
  1. Alphamine 100 mcg intramuscularly once
  2. Benadryl 25 mg orally every 8 hrs
  3. Compazine10 mg orally STAT
  4. Dalmane 30mg orally at night PRN
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.34) The doctor prescribes nitroglycerin 1/150 g SL for a patient. How should you administer the drug?
  1. Dissolve the medication in water and have the patient drink it
  2. Inject the drug intramuscularly
  3. Inject the drug subcutaneously
  4. Place the drug under the tongue and let it dissolve
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.35) One hour after receiving a dose of insulin, the patient begins sweating and develops tremors and dizziness. His blood glucose level indicates hypoglycemia. Which adverse reaction is this patient experiencing?
  1. Allergic
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Dose-related
  4. Patient sensitivity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.36) During an intravenous dose of an antibiotic, a patient starts having trouble breathing. Which action should you take first?
  1. Administer epinephrine
  2. Give bolus dose of intravenous fluids
  3. Prepare for endotracheal intubation
  4. Stop the infusion of medication
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.37) A patient needs to take 0.25 mg of Lanoxin but the medication is only available in 0.125 mg tablets. How many tablets should the patient take?
  1. 1/2 a tablet
  2. 1 tablet
  3. 1 1/2 tablets
  4. 2 tablets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.38) Which of these is a contraindication for administering medications orally?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Fractured leg
  3. Penicillin allergy
  4. Vomiting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.39) Digoxin is a medication used to treat problems in which part of the body?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Office Emergencies

6.1) Open fractures are also called:
  1. comminuted fractures
  2. compound fractures
  3. oblique fractures
  4. transverse fractures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Second-degree burns are also known as:
  1. char burns
  2. full thickness burns
  3. partial thickness burns
  4. superficial burns
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?
  1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
  2. Pull the pin
  3. Squeeze the handle
  4. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) PASS in a mnemonic for remembering the:
  1. key safety principles of working in a laboratory
  2. steps for first aid
  3. steps to operate a fire extinguisher
  4. warning signs of a stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) High fevers in infants and young children can lead to:
  1. cardiac arrest
  2. neurogenic shock
  3. seizures
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Diabetic ketoacidosis occurs when:
  1. there is too much glucose in the body
  2. there is too much insulin in the body
  3. when the patient has hypothermia
  4. when the patient's blood pressure becomes too high
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which of these is a symptom of hypoglycemia in a diabetic?
  1. Confusion
  2. Deep, rapid breaths
  3. Frequent urination
  4. Thirst
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) What is the first action to take if someone goes into cardiac arrest?
  1. Assess the airway
  2. Call 911
  3. Check the pulse
  4. Perform chest compressions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) The rule of nines indicates the:
  1. amount of IV fluid necessary
  2. amount of infection present
  3. depth of a burn
  4. percentage of body area affected by a burn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) A __________ is when a bone slips out of a joint.
  1. dislocation
  2. fracture
  3. sprain
  4. strain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) The Heimlich maneuver is used for:
  1. choking
  2. heart attack
  3. poisoning
  4. syncope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) What is the most common type of external bleeding?
  1. Arterial bleeding
  2. Capillary bleeding
  3. Intracranial bleeding
  4. Venous bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) What is the first step in treating an insect sting?
  1. Apply a cold pack
  2. Remove the stinger
  3. Scratch the area
  4. Wash with soapy water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Which four medications are stored on crash carts for breathing emergencies?
  1. Alprazolam, carisoprodol, clonazepam, and clorazepate
  2. Amphetamine, methamphetamine, methylphenidate, and amobarbital
  3. Hydromorphone, methadone, meperidine, and oxycodone
  4. Terbutaline, epinephrine, aminophylline, and albuterol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A patient is experiencing hives, difficulty breathing, and sneezing. The patient is most likely:
  1. experiencing insulin overdose
  2. going into anaphylactic shock
  3. having a heart attack
  4. having a stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) Severe blood loss causes which emergency medical condition?
  1. Anaphylaxis
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hyperthermia
  4. Hypovolemic shock
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) Which type of burn only affects the epidermis, is red, dry, and painful, and does not cause blisters?
  1. First-degree
  2. Second-degree
  3. Third-degree
  4. Fourth-degree
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Most sunburns are what severity of burn?
  1. First-degree
  2. Second-degree
  3. Third-degree
  4. Fourth-degree
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) When should you NEVER administer care to a casualty?
  1. When the person has stopped breathing
  2. When the person is having a seizure
  3. When the person is unconscious
  4. When the person refuses care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) How many inches deep are chest compressions for CPR?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.21) A colleague has cut his lower arm and is bleeding. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate response?
  1. Apply firm pressure to the wound using sterile gauze
  2. Clean and dress the wound once the bleeding has stopped
  3. Place a tourniquet over the elbow joint
  4. Wear gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.22) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the chain of survival?
  1. Call 911, defibrillation, start CPR
  2. Call 911, start CPR, defibrillation
  3. Defibrillation, call 911, start CPR
  4. Start CPR, call 911, defibrillation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.23) Which of these is most likely to occur when lifting a heavy object or overworking a muscle?
  1. Fracture
  2. Laceration
  3. Sprain
  4. Strain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.24) Which type of burn fully destroys the epidermis and dermis and extends into the underlying tissue?
  1. Chemical burn
  2. Full-thickness burn
  3. Partial-thickness burn
  4. Superficial burn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.25) In CPR, how many chest compressions should be given per second?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.26) An injury caused by exposure to thermal, chemical, electrical, or radioactive agents is called a:
  1. abrasion
  2. bleed
  3. burn
  4. laceration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.27) Which of these burns is the most life-threatening?
  1. First-degree
  2. Second-degree
  3. Third-degree
  4. Combination
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.28) Angina is caused by reduced blood flow to the muscles of which part of the body?
  1. Heart
  2. Legs
  3. Lungs
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.29) Which type of bleeding is characterized by a slow and steady flow of dark red blood?
  1. Arterial bleeding
  2. Capillary bleeding
  3. Hematuria
  4. Venous bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.30) What causes myocardial infarction?
  1. A build-up of mucus in the respiratory bronchioles
  2. A build-up of mucus in the terminal bronchioles
  3. The obstruction of the coronary arteries
  4. The obstruction or rupture of an artery to the brain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.31) You find a colleague unconscious and not breathing. There is no one around to help. What is the first thing you should do?
  1. Call 911
  2. Give chest compressions
  3. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  4. Move your colleague into the recovery position
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.32) What is an open fracture?
  1. A fracture that punctures a lung
  2. A fracture where the bone has split into two or more pieces
  3. A fracture where the bone is visible through the skin
  4. A fracture where the broken ends of the bone line up and are barely out of place
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.33) The recovery position is used for patients who are:
  1. breathing abnormally
  2. unconscious and not breathing
  3. unconscious but breathing normally
  4. undergoing cardiac arrest
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.34) What is the condition where a person's body temperature is dangerously high?
  1. Hyperglycemia
  2. Hyperthermia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Hypothermia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.35) When administering CPR, give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.36) Where on the patient should you place your hands for CPR?
  1. The center of the chest
  2. The diaphragm
  3. The pelvis
  4. The stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.37) How do you care for someone with a possible neck injury?
  1. Ask the person to try to move their head
  2. Keep the person's head still and do not try to move it
  3. Move the person into a comfortable position
  4. Move the person's head so that it rests above their heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.38) Low carbon dioxide levels could be an indication of:
  1. asthma
  2. hyperglycemia
  3. hyperventilation
  4. low blood pressure
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.39) The chain of survival is a four-step process that can help save the lives of victims of:
  1. cardiac arrest
  2. diabetic coma
  3. massive blood loss
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.40) In stroke recognition, what does the acronym FAST stand for?
  1. Face, arm, speech and time
  2. Fever, anxiety, stress, and taste
  3. First airway, second temperature
  4. Flexibility, asthma, and sudden tightness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.41) What does ABC stand for in first aid?
  1. Active body control
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Always be careful
  4. Attention, beware, check
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.42) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?
  1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  2. Flush the burn with water
  3. Go to the emergency department
  4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.43) Which type of fracture occurs much more often in children than in adults?
  1. Comminuted fracture
  2. Greenstick fracture
  3. Impacted fracture
  4. Oblique fracture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.44) Emphysema causes:
  1. a decreased heart rate
  2. an increased heart rate
  3. hyperventilation
  4. shortness of breath
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.45) If a patient is feeling faint, by how many inches should you raise their legs?
  1. 12
  2. 18
  3. 24
  4. 30
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.46) Which type of shock is due to infections?
  1. Anaphylactic
  2. Cardiogenic
  3. Hypovolemic
  4. Septic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.47) Cold exposure can cause which condition?
  1. Hyperpyrexia
  2. Hyperthermia
  3. Hypothermia
  4. Hypoxia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.48) A break in a straight line across the bone is called a _________ fracture.
  1. comminuted
  2. oblique
  3. open
  4. transverse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.49) What is the least serious type of shock?
  1. Cardiogenic
  2. Hypovolemic
  3. Neurogenic
  4. Psychogenic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.50) Which type of burn is the most common?
  1. Full-thickness
  2. Partial-thickness
  3. Superficial
  4. Thermal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.51) Strokes are caused by a blood clot in which area of the body?
  1. Brain
  2. Heart
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.52) Which type of seizure involves the rhythmic twitching or jerking of one or several muscles?
  1. Atonic
  2. Clonic
  3. Myoclonic
  4. Tonic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.53) A colleague accidentally spills liquid nitrogen on their hands, resulting in minor frostbite to the fingers. What action should you take?
  1. Immerse his hands in very hot water
  2. Rub his hands vigorously using your own hands
  3. Spray his hands with tepid water
  4. Tell him to shake his hands vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.54) You find a person lying on the floor. You suspect they have received an electric shock. What is the first thing you must do before treating them?
  1. Check if the person is breathing
  2. Check if the person is still in contact with the electrical current
  3. Check the person's pulse
  4. Make a note in the incident logbook
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.55) In second-degree burns:
  1. the damage extends to the dermis and blisters may be apparent
  2. the damage extends to the subcutaneous layer and there is significant fluid loss
  3. the damage is only superficial and can be treated with moisturizer
  4. the risk of death is high and immediate medical help is needed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.56) If you suspect someone has suffered a stroke, what is the first thing you should do?
  1. Apply pressure to the affected area
  2. Ask the person to lie down
  3. Contact emergency services
  4. Perform CPR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.57) What should you do if someone is having a seizure?
  1. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  2. Hold them down
  3. Put something soft under their head
  4. Put something wooden in their mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.58) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, the next thing he should do is:
  1. apply a burn ointment to his skin
  2. pour baking soda onto his skin
  3. seek emergency medical assistance
  4. use the emergency safety shower
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.59) What is the first step in caring for a wound with heavy bleeding?
  1. Add bulky dressings to reinforce blood-soaked bandages
  2. Apply direct pressure with a sterile dressing
  3. Apply pressure at a pressure point
  4. Ask the casualty to recite the alphabet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.60) Allergic reactions cause which type of shock?
  1. Anaphylactic
  2. Cardiogenic
  3. Hypovolemic
  4. Septic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.61) People at risk of a severe allergic reaction often carry devices that inject which medication?
  1. Acetaminophen
  2. Adrenaline
  3. Insulin
  4. Morphine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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