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1) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.

1. Milliner's
2. butterfly
3. straight
4. universal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?

1. Hyperalbuminemia
2. Hyperglycemia
3. Hyperplasia
4. Hypertension

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?

1. Diastole
2. Septum
3. Systole
4. Tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4) Which of the following would most likely cause a low heart rate?

1. Exercise
2. Fever
3. High concentration of potassium in the blood
4. Increased blood pressure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5) Which sinus rhythm has a rate that is consistently less than 60 beats per minute?

1. Sinus arrest
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sinus dysrhythmia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6) Which rhythm shows an irregularity during inspiration and expiration?

1. Sinus arrest
2. Sinus bradycardia
3. Sinus dysrhythmia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7) Which of these is a common sign of low cardiac output?

1. High blood pressure
2. Increased perfusion of vital organs
3. Low blood pressure
4. The patient is alert and oriented

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8) Which dysrhythmia is similar to wandering atrial pacemaker, except that the rate exceeds 100 beats per minute?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multfocal atrial tachycardia
4. Sinus tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9) What is the major health risk for patients who have atrial fibrillation?

1. Bleeding problems
2. Bundle branch block
3. Hypertension
4. Thrombus formation and embolization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 10) Ischemic heart disease involves:

1. atrophied muscle
2. low blood pressure
3. narrowed heart arteries
4. ruptured blood vessels

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 11) Which of these dysrhythmias is NOT considered part of the supraventricular tachycardia classification?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Junctional tachycardia
3. Sinus tachycardia
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 12) Which of these is a sign of supraventricular tachycardia?

1. A clear, easily identifiable P wave
2. A heart rate of over 150 beats per minute
3. A wide QRS complex
4. Different atrial and ventricular rates

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 13) An arrhythmia is a heart rhythm that is:

1. abnormal
2. normal
3. too fast
4. too slow

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 14) What is the heart rate range for junctional escape rhythm?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-100 beats per minute
4. 100-150 beats per minute

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 15) What is the heart rate range for accelerated junctional rhythm?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-100 beats per minute
4. 100-150 beats per minute

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 16) What is the heart rate range for junctional tachycardia?

1. 100-150 beats per minute
2. 20-40 beats per minute
3. 40-60 beats per minute
4. 60-100 beats per minute

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 17) Which is the most serious kind of heart block?

1. First-degree heart block
2. Second-degree type I heart block
3. Second-degree type II heart block
4. Third-degree heart block

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 18) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate of fewer than 20 beats per minute?

1. Accelerated idioventricular
2. Agonal
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 19) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 20 and 50 beats per minute?

1. Asystole
2. Idioventricular
3. Ventricular fibrillation
4. Ventricular tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 20) In which type of arrhythmia do the heart ventricles quiver instead of pumping normally?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Bradycardia
3. Supraventricular tachycardia
4. Ventricular fibrillation

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 21) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?

1. Bradycardia
2. Epicardia
3. Myocardia
4. Tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 22) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:

1. 40–60 bpm
2. 60–80 bpm
3. 80–100 bpm
4. >100 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 23) The sympathetic nervous system:

1. constricts the pupils
2. increases the heart rate
3. promotes digestion
4. reduces blood pressure

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 24) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?

1. AV node
2. Left atrium
3. Sinoatrial node
4. VA node

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 25) Systolic blood pressure is the blood pressure when which part of the heart contracts?

1. Arteries
2. Atria
3. Valves
4. Ventricles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 26) The heart's ability to create its own electrical impulse is called:

1. automaticity
2. conductivity
3. contractility
4. excitability

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 27) The heart is contained inside a sac called the:

1. endocardium
2. fluid sac
3. myocardium
4. pericardium

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 28) What is the normal, inherent rate for the AV junction?

1. 20-40 beats per minute
2. 40-60 beats per minute
3. 60-80 beats per minute
4. 80-100 beats per minute

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 29) What is diastole?

1. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
2. An irregular heart rate
3. When the heart muscle contracts
4. When the heart muscle relaxes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 30) Mixing bleach with acid produces water, salt and:

1. arsenic trioxide
2. chlorine gas
3. phosgene
4. sodium cyanide

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 31) A defibrillator can be used:

1. to produce an electrical rhythm
2. to record the patient's breathing pattern
3. to treat an abnormal heart rhythm
4. without training

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 32) Which of the following is NOT a reason for performing an ECG?

1. To check for problems with the flow of electricity through the heart
2. To evaluate heart conditions
3. To evaluate the rate and rhythm of breathing
4. To see how well the heart is contracting and pumping

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 33) A continuous ECG monitor is used most commonly in a:

1. assisted-living center
2. clinic
3. hospital
4. physician's office

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 34) If your most important duties include watching an ECG tracing and notifying the physician of abnormalities, then you are most likely a:

1. cardiovascular technologist
2. electrocardiogram monitoring technician
3. electrocardiogram technician
4. physician assistant

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 35) What does the pulse measure?

1. Blood pressure
2. Blood volume
3. Circulation
4. Heart rate

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 36) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.

1. 40 to 80
2. 60 to 100
3. 80 to 120
4. 100 to 140

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 37) What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 38) What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 39) What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 40) What view of the heart do leads II, III, and aVF of an electrocardiogram represent?

1. Anterior
2. Inferior
3. Lateral
4. Septal

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 41) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?

1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 42) When preparing a patient for an ECG, where should you place the V1 electrode?

1. Arm
2. Chest
3. Foot
4. Leg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 43) How many leads are in a standard ECG?

1. 10
2. 12
3. 14
4. 16

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 44) Leads II, III, and aVF of an ECG are called the __________ leads.

1. grounding
2. inferior
3. lateral
4. limb

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 45) In electrocardiography, what does the letter A in aVL stand for?

1. actual
2. alternating
3. amplitude
4. augmented

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 46) The right leg (RL) electrode of the electrocardiogram is also known as:

1. F
2. N
3. T
4. V1

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 47) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:

1. AVF
2. AVL
3. AVM
4. AVR

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 48) The most commonly used ECG electrodes are _______ and are used _______.

1. disposable, more than once
2. disposable, once
3. reusable, more than once
4. reusable, once

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 49) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?

1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
2. Bradycardia
3. Bundle branch block
4. Tachycardia

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 50) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?

1. RA, LA and LL
2. RA, LA and RL
3. RA, LL and RL
4. V1, V2 and V3

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 51) In electrocardiography, what is the angle of Louis also known as?

1. Anterior-posterior angle
2. Einthoven's triangle
3. Lead I
4. Sternal angle

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 52) What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG?

1. "Don't worry; it takes only a few seconds."
2. "I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor."
3. "Will you tell me why you don't want to have an ECG?"
4. "Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done."

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 53) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V4 placed?

1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
2. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
3. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
4. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 54) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V2 placed?

1. At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
2. At the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
3. At the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
4. Midway between V3 and V5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 55) To prevent disease transmission during an ECG, you should:

1. check the ground prong
2. lower the bed
3. raise the side rail
4. wash your hands

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 56) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V1 placed?

1. At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
2. At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
3. At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
4. Midway between V3 and V5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 57) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?

1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
2. The fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
3. The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
4. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 58) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?

1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 59) Lead III of an ECG records differences between the:

1. left leg and left arm electrodes
2. left leg and right arm electrodes
3. right leg and left arm electrodes
4. right leg and right arm electrodes

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 60) Einthoven's law states:

1. Lead I + Lead II = Lead III
2. Lead I + Lead III = Lead II
3. Lead I - Lead II = Lead III
4. Lead I - Lead III = Lead II

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 61) Which electrodes are used for lead III in electrocardiography?

1. LA and LL
2. LA and RL
3. RA and LL
4. RA and RL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 62) Lead I of an ECG records differences between which electrodes?

1. LA and RA
2. LA and RL
3. RA and LL
4. RA and RL

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 63) How many electrodes does the 12-lead ECG use?

1. 6
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 64) In electrocardiography, aVR, aVL, and aVF are called the:

1. alternating voltage leads
2. amplified voltage leads
3. augmented limb leads
4. depolarization-repolarization leads

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 65) ECG leads I, II, and III are called the _________ limb leads.

1. augmented
2. bipolar
3. positive
4. unipolar

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 66) What does ST elevation on an ECG suggest?

1. Bundle branch block
2. Heart murmur
3. Myocardial infarction
4. The leads are on the wrong way around

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 67) What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?

1. Atrial depolarization
2. Atrial repolarization
3. Ventricular depolarization
4. Ventricular repolarization

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 68) Which of these may cause a shortened PR interval on an ECG?

1. Brugada syndrome
2. Diabetes
3. First-degree heart block
4. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 69) Which is of these NOT one of the three main components of an ECG?

1. P wave
2. QRS complex
3. T wave
4. Z wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 70) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?

1. The P wave
2. The Q wave
3. The R wave
4. The S wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 71) What does the T wave on an ECG represent?

1. Depolarization of the atria
2. Depolarization of the ventricles
3. Repolarization of the atria
4. Repolarization of the ventricles

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 72) What does the horizontal axis on an ECG represent?

1. Blood pressure
2. Resistance
3. Time
4. Voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 73) How long is a normal PR interval on an ECG trace?

1. 0.02 to 0.06 seconds
2. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
3. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
4. 0.20 to 0.28 seconds

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 74) What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?

1. J point
2. PR interval
3. QRS complex
4. QT interval

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 75) What part of the ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave?

1. QRS complex
2. QT segment
3. ST segment
4. U wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 76) What causes somatic tremors on an ECG?

1. Incorrect placement of leads
2. Interference from another electrical device
3. Leakage of electrical current
4. Patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 77) You observe somatic tremor artifacts on the ECG. What can you do to reduce these artifacts?

1. Check for sources of electrical interference
2. Make sure the electrodes are secure
3. Move the bed away from the wall
4. Remind the patient to keep still

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 78) How many milliseconds long is a normal QRS complex on an ECG trace?

1. 80–100
2. 100–120
3. 120–140
4. 140–160

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 79) Which question does NOT need to be answered when determining the QRS measurement for an ECG?

1. Are all the QRS complexes of equal length?
2. Do all QRS complexes look alike?
3. Is the R-R pattern regular?
4. What is the actual QRS measurement and is it within normal limits?

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 80) You are interpreting an ECG tracing. You notice that the QRS complexes measure 0.16 seconds. This most likely indicates:

1. delayed ventricular conduction
2. increased delay at the AV node
3. myocardial infarction
4. normal ventricular conduction

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 81) Which atrial dysrhythmia has capital "F" waves and a classic sawtooth or picket fence appearance on an ECG tracing?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
4. PACs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 82) Which atrial dysrhythmia has lowercase "f" waves, chaotic atrial electrical activity, and irregular R-R intervals on an ECG tracing?

1. Atrial fibrillation
2. Atrial flutter
3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
4. PACs

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 83) At least ___ differently shaped P waves should be identified on the ECG tracing before making a diagnosis of wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm.

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 84) U waves on ECG tracing:

1. are best seen in leads V2 and V3
2. are larger than T waves
3. get smaller as the heart rate slows down
4. normally go in the opposite direction to the T wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 85) What is the main difficulty in determining a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?

1. Determining the origin of the tachycardia
2. Determining the regularity
3. Determining the ventricular rate
4. Measuring the QRS interval

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 86) If there are 9 QRS complexes on a six-second ECG strip, then what is the patient's estimated heart rate in beats per minute?

1. 15 bpm
2. 54 bpm
3. 90 bpm
4. 154 bpm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 87) Which type of heart block has missing QRS complexes and a consistent PR interval measurement on ECG tracing?

1. First degree heart block
2. Second degree type I
3. Second degree type II
4. Third degree heart block

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 88) Which type of heart block has regular P-P and R-R intervals that fire at two distinctly different rates on ECG tracing?

1. First degree heart block
2. Second degree type I
3. Second degree type II
4. Third degree heart block

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 89) Frequent non-conducted QRS complexes on ECG tracing are likely signs of:

1. congestive heart failure
2. high cardiac output
3. kidney failure
4. low cardiac output

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 90) What is unique about the P-P intervals of ventricular dysrhythmias?

1. They are biphasic
2. They are irregular
3. They are non-existent
4. They are regular

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 91) QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds or greater with a rate between 20 and 40 beats per minute indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the:

1. AV node
2. Purkinje fibers (ventricles)
3. SA node
4. interatrial pathways

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 92) Which pacemaker rhythms have a pacing spike before P waves on ECG tracing?

1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
2. Atrioventricular pacemaker
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Ventricular pacemaker

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 93) Which pacemaker rhythm has a pacing spike before QRS complexes on ECG tracing?

1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
2. Atrioventricular pacemaker rhythm
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Ventricular pacemaker rhythm

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 94) Which pacemaker complication shows a pacing spike on ECG tracing, but no waveform immediately following it?

1. Failure to capture
2. Failure to sense
3. Normal sinus rhythm
4. Oversensing

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 95) You are performing an ECG on a patient. You observe a wide QRS complex while continuously monitoring the patient in lead II. Which lead placement is necessary to evaluate the location of a blockage in the bundle branch system?

1. Lead I
2. Lead III
3. Lead V1
4. Lead V4

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 96) When QRS duration is _________ seconds, bundle branch block must be considered.

1. less than 0.06
2. 0.06 to 0.09
3. 0.09 to 0.12
4. more than 0.12

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 97) What does the vertical axis on electrocardiogram paper represent?

1. Acceleration
2. Speed
3. Time
4. Voltage

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 98) On a normal ECG, which wave is the first wave to show downward deflection?

1. P wave
2. Q wave
3. R wave
4. S wave

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 99) Which of these is a common cause of right axis deviation on an ECG?

1. Atrial septal defect
2. Heart attack
3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
4. Ventricular septal defect

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 100) Which of these would NOT cause artifacts on an ECG?

1. Coins in the cardiologist's pocket
2. Electrical interference
3. Loose wires
4. Patient movement

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 101) While recording a 12-lead ECG, you notice leads I and II have a lot of artifacts. Which electrode is probably not placed appropriately?

1. Left arm
2. Left leg
3. Right arm
4. Right leg

Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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