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Electrocardiogram practice questions

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Electrocardiogram practice questions

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1) What is another name for winged infusion sets?
  1. Butterfly needles
    Winged needle sets are also known as butterfly needles. They are used to collect blood from small, fragile, and surface-level veins, such as veins on the back of the hand.
  2. Milliner's needles
  3. Straight needles
  4. Universal needles
2) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
  1. Hyperalbuminemia
    Hyperalbuminemia is an abnormally high level of albumin in the blood.
  2. Hyperglycemia
    Hyperglycemia is abnormally high blood sugar levels.
  3. Hyperplasia
    Hyperplasia is increased cell production in a tissue or organ.
  4. Hypertension
    Hypertension is the medical term for high blood pressure. The word is from hyper (meaning "high") and tension (meaning "pressure").
3) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?
  1. Diastole
  2. Septum
  3. Systole
    Systole is the heartbeat phase when the heart muscle contracts, pumping blood out of the heart.
  4. Tachycardia
4) Which of the following would most likely cause a low heart rate?
  1. Exercise
  2. Fever
  3. High concentration of potassium in the blood
  4. Increased blood pressure
5) Which sinus rhythm has a rate that is consistently less than 60 beats per minute?
  1. Sinus arrest
  2. Sinus bradycardia
  3. Sinus dysrhythmia
  4. Sinus tachycardia
6) Which rhythm shows an irregularity during inspiration and expiration?
  1. Sinus arrest
  2. Sinus bradycardia
  3. Sinus dysrhythmia
  4. Sinus tachycardia
7) Which of these is a common sign of low cardiac output?
  1. High blood pressure
  2. Increased perfusion of vital organs
  3. Low blood pressure
  4. The patient is alert and oriented
8) Which dysrhythmia is similar to wandering atrial pacemaker, except that the rate exceeds 100 beats per minute?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Multfocal atrial tachycardia
  4. Sinus tachycardia
9) What is the major health risk for patients who have atrial fibrillation?
  1. Bleeding problems
  2. Bundle branch block
  3. Hypertension
  4. Stroke
    Atrial fibrillation is where the upper chambers of the heart (the atria) beat irregularly, causing blood to pool and increasing the risk of clot formation. If a clot travels to the brain, it can cause a stroke. The risk of stroke is about five times higher in people with atrial fibrillation.
10) Ischemic heart disease involves:
  1. atrophied muscle
  2. low blood pressure
  3. narrowed heart arteries
  4. ruptured blood vessels
11) Which of these dysrhythmias is NOT considered part of the supraventricular tachycardia classification?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Junctional tachycardia
  3. Sinus tachycardia
  4. Ventricular tachycardia
12) Which of these is a sign of supraventricular tachycardia?
  1. A clear, easily identifiable P wave
  2. A heart rate of over 150 beats per minute
    Supraventricular tachycardia is a heart disorder that causes a fast heartbeat. The heart may beat more than 150 times a minute.
  3. A wide QRS complex
  4. Different atrial and ventricular rates
13) An arrhythmia is a heart rhythm that is:
  1. abnormal
    Arrhythmia (also called dysrhythmia) is any abnormality of the heart's rhythm, whether the heart is beating too slowly, too quickly, or irregularly.
  2. normal
  3. too fast
  4. too slow
14) What is the heart rate range for junctional escape rhythm?
  1. 20-40 beats per minute
  2. 40-60 beats per minute
  3. 60-100 beats per minute
  4. 100-150 beats per minute
15) What is the heart rate range for accelerated junctional rhythm?
  1. 20-40 beats per minute
  2. 40-60 beats per minute
  3. 60-100 beats per minute
  4. 100-150 beats per minute
16) What is the heart rate range for junctional tachycardia?
  1. 100-150 beats per minute
  2. 20-40 beats per minute
  3. 40-60 beats per minute
  4. 60-100 beats per minute
17) Which is the most serious kind of heart block?
  1. First-degree heart block
  2. Second-degree type I heart block
  3. Second-degree type II heart block
  4. Third-degree heart block
    First-degree heart block is the least severe and third-degree heart block is the most severe.
18) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate of fewer than 20 beats per minute?
  1. Accelerated idioventricular
  2. Agonal
    An agonal rhythm can be very slow; even less than 10 beats per minute.
  3. Ventricular fibrillation
  4. Ventricular tachycardia
19) Which ventricular dysrhythmia has a heart rate between 20 and 50 beats per minute?
  1. Asystole
  2. Idioventricular
    Idioventricular rhythm is a slow regular ventricular rhythm with a rate of less than 50 bpm, an absence of P waves, and a prolonged QRS interval.
  3. Ventricular fibrillation
  4. Ventricular tachycardia
20) In which type of arrhythmia do the heart ventricles quiver instead of pumping normally?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Supraventricular tachycardia
  4. Ventricular fibrillation
21) What is the term for a heartbeat of fewer than 60 beats per minute?
  1. Bradycardia
    Bradycardia means a slow heartbeat. The word bradycardia is from brady (meaning "slow") and cardia (meaning "heart").
  2. Epicardium
    Epicardium is the outer layer of the heart.
  3. Myocardium
    Myocardium is the heart's muscular tissue.
  4. Tachycardia
    Tachycardia is a fast heart rate, over 100 beats a minute.
22) Tachycardia is a heart rate of how many beats per minute?
  1. 40–60 bpm
  2. 60–80 bpm
  3. 80–100 bpm
  4. >100 bpm
    Tachycardia is a heart rate of over 100 beats a minute. Tachy- means "fast" and -cardia means "heart".
23) The sympathetic nervous system:
  1. constricts the pupils
  2. increases the heart rate
    The sympathetic nervous system activates when you're stressed, in danger, or physically active. It increases your heart rate, dilates your pupils, stimulates sweat production, and slows your digestion.
  3. promotes digestion
  4. reduces blood pressure
24) Which part of the heart sets the heart rate?
  1. AV node
  2. Bundle of His
  3. Left atrium
  4. Sinoatrial node
    The sinoatrial (SA) node regulates the heart rate and is known as the heart's pacemaker.
25) Which part of the heart contracts during systole?
  1. Arteries
  2. Atria
  3. Valves
  4. Ventricles
    Systole is the period of the cardiac cycle when the ventricles contract, ejecting blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
26) The heart's ability to create its own electrical impulse is called:
  1. automaticity
    Automaticity is the property of cardiac cells to generate spontaneous action potentials.
  2. conductivity
  3. contractility
  4. excitability
27) What is the name of the sac that contains the heart?
  1. Bundle of His
    The bundle of His is a specialized group of heart muscle cells that conducts electrical impulses from the atria to the ventricles.
  2. Endocardium
    The endocardium is the inner lining of the heart. Endo- means "inner" and cardium means "heart".
  3. Myocardium
    The myocardium is the heart muscle. Myo- means "muscle".
  4. Pericardium
    The pericardium is the fluid-filled sac that surrounds the heart. Peri- means "surrounding".
28) What is the normal, inherent rate for the AV junction?
  1. 20-40 beats per minute
  2. 40-60 beats per minute
  3. 60-80 beats per minute
  4. 80-100 beats per minute
29) What is diastole?
  1. A heart rate below 60 beats per second
  2. An irregular heart rate
  3. When the heart muscle contracts
  4. When the heart muscle relaxes
    Diastole is the period between heartbeats when the heart relaxes and fills with blood.
30) A defibrillator can be used:
  1. to produce an electrical rhythm
  2. to record the patient's breathing pattern
  3. to treat an abnormal heart rhythm
  4. without training
31) Which of these can an ECG NOT assess?
  1. Breathing rate and rhythm
    An ECG is a test that records the electrical activity of the heart. It is used to assess the heart's health, not the lungs or breathing.
  2. Electrical conduction through the heart
  3. Heart rate
  4. Signs of heart conditions
32) Where are continuous ECG monitors most commonly used?
  1. Assisted-living centers
  2. Clinics
  3. Hospitals
    A continuous ECG (electrocardiogram) monitor is most commonly used in hospitals, such as intensive care units, emergency rooms, and cardiac care units. This monitor continuously monitors the electrical activity of a patient's heart, allowing doctors to respond to abnormal heart rhythms immediately.
  4. Physician's offices
33) If your most important duties include watching an ECG tracing and notifying the physician of abnormalities, then you are most likely a:
  1. cardiovascular technologist
  2. electrocardiogram monitoring technician
  3. electrocardiogram technician
  4. physician assistant
34) What does the pulse measure?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Blood volume
  3. Circulation
  4. Heart rate
    Pulse is a measure of the number of times the heart beats per minute.
35) A normal resting heart rate for adults is _________ beats per minute.
  1. 40 to 80
  2. 60 to 100
    A normal resting heart rate for adults ranges from 60 to 100 beats per minute.
  3. 80 to 120
  4. 100 to 140
36) What view of the heart do leads V1 and V2 of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
37) What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
    Leads I, aVL, V5, and V6 are the lateral leads as they provide a view of the lateral wall of the left ventricle.
  4. Septal
38) What view of the heart do leads V3 and V4 of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
39) What view of the heart do leads II, III, and aVF of an electrocardiogram represent?
  1. Anterior
  2. Inferior
    Leads II, III, and aVF are referred to as the inferior leads because they provide a view of the inferior wall of the left ventricle.
  3. Lateral
  4. Septal
40) Which of these is a mistake when attaching ECG leads to a patient?
  1. Attaching the LA lead to the patient's left arm
  2. Attaching the LL lead to the patient's left leg
  3. Attaching the RL lead to the patient's right arm
    RL means 'right leg' and should be attached to the patient's right leg, not the right arm. The correct lead placements are:
    • RA: right arm
    • LA: left arm
    • RL: right leg
    • LL: left leg
    • V1 to V6: chest
  4. Attaching the V1 lead to the 4th intercostal space, right sternal edge
41) How many leads are in a standard ECG?
  1. 10
  2. 12
    A standard ECG has ten electrodes (the patches that stick to the skin) and twelve leads (the views of the heart). There are six limb leads (I, II, III, aVL, aVF, and aVR) and six precordial leads (V1 to V6). These leads provide different views of the heart's electrical activity.
  3. 14
  4. 16
42) What are leads II, III, and aVF of an ECG known as?
  1. Grounding leads
  2. Inferior leads
    Leads II, III, and aVF are called inferior leads because they observe the inferior wall of the left ventricle.
  3. Lateral leads
  4. Limb leads
43) In electrocardiography, what does the letter A in aVL stand for?
  1. actual
  2. alternating
  3. amplitude
  4. augmented
    AVL stands for 'augmented voltage left'. Left in this case means the left arm.
44) What is another name for the right leg (RL) electrode in an ECG?
  1. F
    F or 'foot' refers to the left leg electrode, not the right leg electrode.
  2. N
    The right leg electrode is also known as the N electrode (for 'neutral') or the ground electrode. Unlike the other leads, the RL electrode does not record electrical activity. Instead, it completes the circuit and helps reduce electrical interference.
  3. T
  4. V1
    V1 is a chest electrode.
45) In electrocardiography, which lead is called the augmented unipolar right arm lead?
  1. Lead I
  2. aVF
  3. aVL
  4. aVR
    aVR is the augmented unipolar right arm lead. It is called "augmented" because its signal is amplified, and "unipolar" because it measures the electrical activity from only one limb (on the right arm).
46) The most commonly used ECG electrodes are _______ and are used _______.
  1. disposable, more than once
  2. disposable, once
  3. reusable, more than once
  4. reusable, once
47) For which condition might you need to increase the ECG paper speed?
  1. Adams–Stokes syndrome
  2. Bradycardia
  3. Bundle branch block
  4. Tachycardia
    Tachycardia is a heart rate over 100 beats per minute. For patients with tachycardia, you may need to increase the ECG paper speed from 25 mm/sec to 50 mm/sec to make the output easier to read.
48) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?
  1. RA, LA and LL
    The electrodes RA (right arm), LA (left arm), and LL (left leg) form Einthoven's Triangle.
  2. RA, LA and RL
  3. RA, LL and RL
  4. V1, V2 and V3
49) In electrocardiography, what is the angle of Louis also known as?
  1. Anterior-posterior angle
  2. Einthoven's triangle
  3. Lead I
  4. Sternal angle
    The angle of Louis is also known as the sternal angle. It is an angle found on the sternum (breastbone). It is helpful to be able to identify the angle of Louis when placing ECG electrodes.
50) What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG?
  1. "Don't worry; it takes only a few seconds."
  2. "I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor."
  3. "Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done."
  4. “Can you tell me what concerns you about the ECG?”
    Asking the patient why they don't want an ECG is the most appropriate response. It allows the ECG technician to understand the patient's concerns or fears, which can then be addressed appropriately to reassure and educate the patient about the importance and safety of the procedure.
51) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V4 placed?
  1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
  2. Fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line
    V4 is placed at the fifth intercostal space at the midclavicular line, as shown in the image below. The fifth intercostal space is the fifth gap between the ribs, counting from the top. The midclavicular line is an imaginary vertical line that runs down from the midpoint of the clavicle (collarbone).
  3. Fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  4. Fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
52) Where is the V2 chest electrode placed in an ECG?
  1. At the fifth intercostal space to the left of the midclavicular line
  2. At the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
    The V2 lead is placed at the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum (breastbone).
  3. At the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  4. Midway between V3 and V5
53) To prevent disease transmission during an ECG, you should:
  1. check the ground prong
  2. lower the bed
  3. raise the side rail
  4. wash your hands
    To prevent disease transmission during an ECG procedure, it is essential to wash your hands. Hand hygiene is the best way to reduce the spread of infections and maintain a sterile environment.
54) Where is the V1 chest electrode placed in an ECG?
  1. At the fifth intercostal space, left midclavicular line
  2. At the fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
  3. At the fourth intercostal space, right sternal border
    The V1 lead is placed at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.
  4. Midway between V3 and V5
55) When applying chest leads for an electrocardiogram, where is V6 placed?
  1. Anywhere between the right shoulder and the wrist
  2. The fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum
  3. The fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum
  4. The midaxillary line at the same level as V4 and V5
    V6 is placed at the midaxillary line at the same horizontal level as V4 and V5.
56) You are preparing a patient for an electrocardiogram but the patient's left lower leg is amputated. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the electrocardiogram
  2. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL and RL electrodes
  3. Perform the electrocardiogram but without the LL electrode
  4. Place the LL electrode above the patient's left knee instead
    Since you cannot place the LL electrode on the patient's lower left leg, you should place the electrode on the upper left leg instead, or on the lower torso anywhere caudal to the heart. Since the EKG measures electrical vectors, it does not matter whether the arm or leg electrode is on the arm or leg; they just have to be relatively close to the line drawn between the heart and the limb.
57) Which electrodes are used for lead III in an ECG?
  1. LL and LA
    On an ECG:
    • the RA and LA electrodes form lead I
    • the RA and LL electrodes form lead II
    • the LA and LL electrodes form lead III
    This is shown in the image below, which is called Einthoven's triangle.
  2. LL and RA
  3. RL and LA
  4. RL and RA
58) What is Einthoven's law?
  1. Lead II = Lead I + Lead III
    Einthoven’s law states that the sum of the potentials of Lead I and Lead III equals that of Lead II.
  2. Lead II = Lead I − Lead III
  3. Lead III = Lead I + Lead II
  4. Lead III = Lead I − Lead II
59) Which electrodes are used to record lead I in an ECG?
  1. LA and RA
    Lead I represents the voltage difference between the left arm (LA) and the right arm (RA). This is shown in the Einthoven triangle below.
  2. LA and RL
  3. RA and LL
  4. RA and RL
60) How many electrodes does the 12-lead ECG use?
  1. 6
  2. 8
  3. 10
    A 12-lead ECG uses ten electrodes. Four electrodes are placed on the arms and legs (RA, LL, LA, RL) and six are placed over the heart (V1, V2, V3, V4, V5, and V6).
  4. 12
61) In electrocardiography, what is the collective name for the aVR, aVL, and aVF leads?
  1. Alternating voltage leads
  2. Amplified voltage leads
  3. Augmented limb leads
    Leads aVR, aVL, and aVF are the augmented limb leads. They are called limb leads because their electrodes are placed on the arms and legs of the patient, and augmented because their signals are created from other limb leads (leads I, II and III).
  4. Depolarization-repolarization leads
62) What are leads I, II, and III of an ECG known as?
  1. Augmented limb leads
  2. Bipolar limb leads
    The six limb leads are I, II, III, aVR, aVL, and aVF. Three are unipolar (aVR, aVL, and aVF) and three are bipolar (I, II, and III).
  3. Positive limb leads
  4. Unipolar limb leads
63) What does ST elevation on an ECG suggest?
  1. Bundle branch block
  2. Heart murmur
  3. Myocardial infarction
  4. The leads are on the wrong way around
64) What does the QRS complex on an ECG represent?
  1. Atrial depolarization
  2. Atrial repolarization
  3. Ventricular depolarization
  4. Ventricular repolarization
65) Which of these may cause a shortened PR interval on an ECG?
  1. Brugada syndrome
  2. Diabetes
  3. First-degree heart block
  4. Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
    Wolf-Parkinson-White syndrome is a condition where an accessory pathway results in pre-excitation.
66) Which is of these NOT one of the three main components of an ECG?
  1. P wave
  2. QRS complex
  3. T wave
  4. Z wave
    The P wave is caused by the depolarization of the atria, the QRS complex is caused by the depolarization of the ventricles, and the T wave is caused by the repolarization of the ventricles. There is no such thing as a Z wave.
67) In electrocardiography, which is the largest wave in the QRS complex?
  1. The P wave
  2. The Q wave
  3. The R wave
    The R wave is much larger than any other wave. This is because the R wave represents the electrical stimulus as it passes through the main portion of the ventricular walls. The walls of ventricles are very thick due to the amount of work they have to do, and so more electricity is required.
  4. The S wave
68) What does the T wave on an ECG represent?
  1. Depolarization of the atria
  2. Depolarization of the ventricles
  3. Repolarization of the atria
  4. Repolarization of the ventricles
    The T wave on an ECG represents the repolarization of the ventricles. This is the phase where the ventricles recover from depolarization and prepare for the next contraction.
69) What does the horizontal axis on an ECG represent?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Resistance
  3. Time
    The horizontal axis on an ECG represents time measured in seconds. The axis is divided into small boxes, with each small box representing 0.04 seconds and five small boxes representing 0.2 seconds.
  4. Voltage
70) How long is a normal PR interval on an ECG trace?
  1. 0.02 to 0.06 seconds
  2. 0.06 to 0.12 seconds
  3. 0.12 to 0.20 seconds
  4. 0.20 to 0.28 seconds
71) What part of the ECG tracing represents the time from the start of the atrial activity to the start of ventricular activity?
  1. J point
  2. PR interval
    The PR interval measures the time between the start of atrial activity (P wave) and the start of ventricular activity (R wave). This delay gives the ventricles time to fill before they contract.
  3. QRS complex
  4. QT interval
72) What part of the ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave?
  1. QRS complex
  2. QT segment
  3. ST segment
    The ST segment on an ECG tracing is measured from the end of the S wave to the beginning of the T wave.
  4. U wave
73) What causes somatic tremors on an ECG?
  1. Incorrect placement of leads
  2. Interference from another electrical device
  3. Leakage of electrical current
  4. Patient movement
    Somatic tremors on an ECG are caused by patient movement ("somatic" means the body and "tremor" means shaking). They are also called muscle artifacts. Common causes are shivering, anxiety, and Parkinson’s tremor.
74) You observe somatic tremor artifacts on the ECG. What can you do to reduce these artifacts?
  1. Check for sources of electrical interference
  2. Make sure the electrodes are secure
  3. Move the bed away from the wall
  4. Remind the patient to keep still
    Somatic tremor artifacts are caused by patient movement. ("Somatic" means the body, and "tremor" means shaking.)
75) How many milliseconds long is a normal QRS complex on an ECG trace?
  1. 80–100
    The normal duration of the QRS complex is between 0.08 and 0.10 seconds (80 and 100 milliseconds).
  2. 100–120
  3. 120–140
  4. 140–160
76) Which question does NOT need to be answered when determining the QRS measurement for an ECG?
  1. Are all the QRS complexes of equal length?
  2. Do all QRS complexes look alike?
  3. Is the R-R pattern regular?
  4. What is the actual QRS measurement and is it within normal limits?
77) You are interpreting an ECG tracing. You notice that the QRS complexes measure 0.16 seconds. This most likely indicates:
  1. delayed ventricular conduction
    A QRS complex measuring more than 0.12 seconds most likely indicates delayed ventricular conduction.
  2. increased delay at the AV node
  3. myocardial infarction
  4. normal ventricular conduction
78) Which atrial dysrhythmia has capital "F" waves and a classic sawtooth or picket fence appearance on an ECG tracing?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
  4. PACs
79) Which atrial dysrhythmia has lowercase "f" waves, chaotic atrial electrical activity, and irregular R-R intervals on an ECG tracing?
  1. Atrial fibrillation
  2. Atrial flutter
  3. Multifocal atrial tachycardia
  4. PACs
80) At least ___ differently shaped P waves should be identified on the ECG tracing before making a diagnosis of wandering atrial pacemaker rhythm.
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
81) U waves on ECG tracing:
  1. are best seen in leads V2 and V3
  2. are larger than T waves
  3. get smaller as the heart rate slows down
  4. normally go in the opposite direction to the T wave
82) What is the main difficulty in determining a supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)?
  1. Determining the origin of the tachycardia
    Supraventricular tachycardia is an abnormally fast heart rhythm that originates in the atria. One of the primary challenges in diagnosing and managing supraventricular rhythms is identifying the specific origin of the tachycardia.
  2. Determining the regularity
  3. Determining the ventricular rate
  4. Measuring the QRS interval
83) There are 9 QRS complexes on a six-second ECG strip. Estimate the patient's heart rate in beats per minute.
  1. 15 bpm
  2. 54 bpm
  3. 90 bpm
    The formula to calculate heart rate is: no. of QRS complexes × 60/secs on the strip Inserting the values into the formula: = 9 × 60/6 = 9 × 10 = 90 bpm
  4. 154 bpm
84) Which type of heart block has missing QRS complexes and a consistent PR interval measurement on ECG tracing?
  1. First degree heart block
  2. Second degree type I
  3. Second degree type II
  4. Third degree heart block
85) Which type of heart block has regular P-P and R-R intervals that fire at two distinctly different rates on ECG tracing?
  1. First degree heart block
  2. Second degree type I
  3. Second degree type II
  4. Third degree heart block
86) Frequent non-conducted QRS complexes on ECG tracing are likely signs of:
  1. congestive heart failure
  2. high cardiac output
  3. kidney failure
  4. low cardiac output
87) What is unique about the P-P intervals of ventricular dysrhythmias?
  1. They are biphasic
  2. They are irregular
  3. They are non-existent
    Ventricular dysrhythmias have no P waves, so the P-P interval cannot be measured.
  4. They are regular
88) QRS complexes that measure 0.12 seconds or greater with a rate between 20 and 40 beats per minute indicate that the impulses causing ventricular depolarization are coming from the:
  1. AV node
  2. Purkinje fibers (ventricles)
  3. SA node
  4. interatrial pathways
89) Which pacemaker rhythms have a pacing spike before P waves on ECG tracing?
  1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
  2. Atrioventricular pacemaker
  3. Normal sinus rhythm
  4. Ventricular pacemaker
90) Which pacemaker rhythm has a pacing spike before QRS complexes on ECG tracing?
  1. Atrial pacemaker rhythm
  2. Atrioventricular pacemaker rhythm
  3. Normal sinus rhythm
  4. Ventricular pacemaker rhythm
    c. Atrioventricular pacemaker
91) Which pacemaker complication shows a pacing spike on ECG tracing but no waveform immediately following it?
  1. Failure to capture
  2. Failure to sense
  3. Normal sinus rhythm
  4. Oversensing
92) During an ECG, you see a wide QRS in lead II. Which lead would help you find the bundle branch block?
  1. Lead I
  2. Lead III
  3. Lead V1
    V1 and V2 are the most useful leads for evaluating bundle branch blocks. These chest leads detect changes in the electrical activity of the heart's ventricles. V1 is placed in the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum, and V2 is placed in the fourth intercostal space to the left of the sternum.
  4. Lead V4
93) When QRS duration is _________ seconds, bundle branch block must be considered.
  1. less than 0.06
  2. 0.06 to 0.09
  3. 0.09 to 0.12
  4. more than 0.12
    Complete bundle branch block results in a QRS duration of 0.12 seconds or more.
94) What does the vertical axis on electrocardiogram paper represent?
  1. Acceleration
  2. Speed
  3. Time
  4. Voltage
    The vertical axis represents the voltage of the heart's electrical activity.
95) On a normal ECG, which wave is the first wave to show downward deflection?
  1. P wave
  2. Q wave
  3. R wave
  4. S wave
96) Which of these is a common cause of right axis deviation on an ECG?
  1. Atrial septal defect
  2. Heart attack
  3. Right ventricular hypertrophy
    In right ventricular hypertrophy, the increased muscle mass of the right ventricle causes an increased signal on the ECG.
  4. Ventricular septal defect
97) Which of these would NOT cause artifacts on an ECG?
  1. Coins in the cardiologist's pocket
    Metal in the cardiologist's pocket shouldn't affect the ECG.
  2. Electrical interference from nearby equipment
  3. Loose wires
  4. Patient movement
98) While recording a 12-lead ECG, you notice leads I and II have a lot of artifacts. Which electrode is probably not placed appropriately?
  1. Left arm
  2. Left leg
  3. Right arm
    Lead I records differences between the left and right arm electrodes, and lead II records differences between the left leg and right arm electrodes. This means that artifacts in leads I and II are probably due to problems with the right arm electrode since both leads have this electrode in common.
  4. Right leg
99) What dangerous chemical is produced when bleach is mixed with acid?
  1. arsenic trioxide
  2. chlorine gas
    Chlorine gas is a dangerous byproduct of mixing bleach with acid. The gas is deadly in high concentrations. For this reason, bleach and acid should never be mixed.
  3. phosgene
  4. sodium cyanide

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