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1)
The cosine of 90 degrees is
- -1
- -.5
- 0
- .5
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2)
In order to image deeper structures, _______.
- the TGC needs to be increased
- the PRF needs to be increased
- the frame rate needs to be increased
- the PRF needs to be decreased
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3)
If the PRF of a real time system is 2200 Hz, the maximum depth of imaging would be ________.
- 35cm
- 30 mm
- 30cm
- 35mm
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4)
All of the following are disadvantages of analog scan converter except:
- image fade
- image flicker
- deterioration
- Low resolution image
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5)
Period is the _____ it takes for one _____ to occur.
- time; wavelength
- frequency; cycle
- time; pulse
- time; cycle
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6)
The rate at which energy passes through a unit area is called____.
- Intensity
- attenuation
- power
- amplitude
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7)
Vertical parallel scan lines are seen with which transducer format?
- Curvilinear
- linear
- vector
- convex
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8)
Sonography is medicla anatomic imaging using a ______-______ technique.
- transducer instrument
- starting point
- vertical parallel
- pulse echo
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9)
If two variable are inversely proportional, if one decreased by a factor of 5, then the other
- decreases
- decreases by a factor of 5
- increases
- increased by a factor of 5
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10)
Stiffer media have ______ sound speeds.
- stiffness doesn't change the propagation speed
- lower
- higher
- sound cannot propagate through stiffer media
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11)
Sequenced, phased, and vector are types of:
- operations
- transducers
- constructions
- focusing
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12)
Waves that exist at the same location and time will combine together. What is this called?
- rarefaction
- interference
- inference
- mechanical interaction
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13)
Mirror image artifact is a form of:
- reverberation
- Grating Lobes
- speed error
- refraction
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14)
Regions of lower pressure and density are called
- compressions
- longitudinal waves
- rarefactions
- acoustic variables
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15)
Snell's law relates the _____ beam direction to the incident beam direction and the speeds of sound in the two materials forming the interface?
- transmitted
- rarefaction
- Scattering
- reflected
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16)
What is the attenuation coefficient for a 5.0 MHz transducer in soft tissue?
- 10.0 dB/cm
- .1 dB/cm
- 2.5 dB/cm
- .25dB/cm
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17)
Diagnostic Ultrasound transducer generate a ______ of sound into the body?
- Pulse
- wave
- frequency
- Doppler
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18)
Amplitude is the maximum variation that occurs in an acoustic ______.
- variable
- propagation speed
- Wave
- medium
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19)
If the wavelength is .5 mm the spatial pulse length for a 4 cycle pulse is:
- 0mm
- .8mm
- 8.0mm
- .2mm
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20)
Attenuation increased with increasing ____.
- power
- wavelenght
- pressure
- frequency
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21)
Gray-scale artifacts include all of teh following except:
- mirror image
- aliasing
- range ambiguity
- shadowing
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22)
Ultrasound pulses contain a range of frequencies called the _______.
- fundamental frequencies
- duty factor
- bandwidth
- pulse repetition frequenc
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23)
Persistence does all of the following except:
- increase contrast resolution
- Increase frame rate
- improve dynamic range
- decrease speckle
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24)
As sound travels, the reduction in amplituded and intensity of the wave is called?
- attenuation
- absorption
- reflection
- scattering
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25)
Old echo information from previous frames is retained while the new echoes are added to the image in the direction in which the scan plane is moving is called______.
- spatial compounding
- pixel interpolation
- panoramic imaging
- harmonic imaging
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26)
Pulse repetition frequency is the ____ of pulses occuring in 1 second.
- speed
- number
- type
- cycle
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27)
The wavelength of 3 MHz ultrasound in soft tissue is _____ mm.
- 1
- .51
- 510
- 4.6
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28)
What is the travel time in microseconds for US to image a structure that is 5cm deep?
- 5
- 13
- 65
- 130
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29)
To receive information for display at a rapid rate, it is desirable to use a _______.
- high operating frequency
- low PRF
- lower operating frequency
- high PRF
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30)
The PRF is the number of _______sent to the transducer each second.
- none of the answers
- cycles
- ultrasound pulses
- voltage pulses
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31)
Mirror imaging of a Doppler spectrum can ________.
- appear on teh oposite side of the baseline
- Occur when the Doppler angle is near 90 degrees
- occur when the receiver gain is set too high
- all of the above
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32)
Ultrasound pulses contain a range of frequencies called the ______.
- bandwidth
- duty factor
- fundamental frequencies
- pulse repetition frequencies
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33)
Propagation speed is higher in _____ than soft tissue.
- bone
- lung
- fat
- water
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34)
____ is the number of complete cycles per second.
- Period
- Wavelength
- Frequency
- Propagation speed
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35)
The attenuation of a 5 MHz tranducer in soft tissue would be _____ dB in 2 cm of depth.
- 20
- 10
- 5
- 1.25
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36)
What is the period of a 5.0 MHz in soft tissue.
- 02 us
- .2 us
- 3.1 us
- .2 sec
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37)
What is the maximum depth in soft tissue for a PRF of 10kHz.
- 5 mm
- 7.7 mm
- 7.7 cm
- 7.5 cm
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38)
Frequency _____ wavelength.
- is equal to
- has no bearing on
- is inversely proportional to
- is directly proportional to
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39)
A sonographer adjusts an ultrasound scan to double the depth of view from 5 cm to 10 cm. If the frame rate remains the same, which one of the following also occurs?
- increased the line density
- narrower sector
- mulit focused imaging turned on
- wider sector
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40)
Impedance is equal to density multiplied by ____
- wavelength
- path length
- stiffness
- propagational speed
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41)
Regions of lower pressure and density are called _____.
- longitudinal waves
- compressions
- acoustic variables
- rarefactions
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42)
A sonographer using a phased array ultrasound system, turns off the multi-focus feature. What is most likely consequence of this action?
- temporal resolution improves
- frame rate decreases
- temporal resolution degrades
- imaging depth increases
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43)
Electronic scanning is performed by _____.
- mechanical transducers
- array transducers
- sector transducers
- linear transducers
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44)
_____ array is the combination of linear and phased array operations.
- phased
- convex
- vector
- interventional
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45)
Beneficial artifacts include all of the following except:
- reverberation
- Enchancement
- shadowing
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46)
Which of the following would be least likely to cause acoutic shadowing?
- Urinary bladder
- uterine fibroid
- gallstone
- bowel gas
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47)
The frequency of the ______ determines the frequency of the resulting ultrasound pulse.
- voltage pulse
- bandwidth
- beam former
- operating frequency
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48)
The shadowing and enhancement are description of __________ artifacts?
- attenuation
- refraction
- propagation
- reverberation
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49)
In oblique incidence the ____ and ____ angles are always equal.
- normal ; transmitted
- incidence; transmitted
- incidence; reflection
- transmitted; reflected
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50)
With too much gain, __________.
- saturation occurs
- differenced in echo strenghth are lost
- there is a decrease in contrast resolution
- All of the above
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51)
To avoid echo misplacement:
- a code is added to the pulser
- multiple receivers are installed
- all echoes from one pulse must be received before the next pulse is emitted
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52)
Which of the following forms of resolution improved when frame rate increases?
- temporal
- lateral
- longitudinal
- spatial
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53)
Which artifact displaces structures axially?
- Refraction
- Speed Error
- Reverberation
- Grating lobes
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54)
Range ambiguity can occur in which of the following?
- Pulsed Doppler instruments
- Color doppler instruments
- Duplex instruments
- All of the above
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55)
The fraction of time that pulsed US is on is called____?
- PRP
- DF
- Period
- SPL
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56)
20 kHz is equal to _____ Hz.
- 200,000
- 2000
- 20,000
- 200
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57)
If the PD is 3 u and the PRP is 35-0 usec, the DF is _____%?
- 6
- 1.16
- .86
- 086
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58)
Calculate the pulse duration for a 3. MHz transducer in soft tissue with a 4 cycle pulse.
- 2 micro second
- 12. micro second
- 13. micro second
- 1.3 micro second
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59)
a bit memory has an _______ shade memory.
- 4
- 8
- 256
- 16
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60)
Pulse duration will increase with all the following except?
- period
- number of cycles in the pulse
- Frequency
- None of the above
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61)
All of the following are advantages of PACS systems except:
- older, archieve studies and reports an be reviewed easliy
- images have hight resolution than what appears on the systems display
- data will not deteriorate
- images can be delivered to distant location on the imaging netork
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62)
What term describes the number of cycles that an acoustic variable completes in a second?
- period
- frequency
- variable rate
- PRP
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63)
Enhancement of an echo results from a structure having ______.
- higher attenuation than surrounding structures
- higher impedance than surrounding structures
- lower density than surrounding structures
- lower attenuation than structures
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64)
Refraction may display ______
- 1 incorrect structure shape
- incorrect structure size
- incorrect structure location
- all of the above
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65)
Which of the following will NOT result in a shorter pulse duration?
- using a higher frequency
- using a shorter period
- a lower propagaion velocity
- suing few pulses
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66)
Sound requires a ________ through which to travel.
- wave
- pressure
- vacuum
- medium
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67)
If you employ a 7.5 MHz transducer, what is the wavelength of the sound in soft tissue.
- 1mm
- .11mm
- 025mm
- .20mm
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68)
What is the maximum penetration depth with a frame rate of 32 frames per second and a line density of 100 lines per fram and using only one focus.
- 24 mm
- 12 cm
- 20 cm
- 24 cm
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69)
The impedance of the matching layer is _______.
- less than the value between the transducer element and tissue
- equal to the tissue
- greater than the value between the transducer element and tissue
- intermediate value between the transducer element and tissue
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70)
To receive information for display at a rapid rate, it is desirable to use a _______.
- high operating frequency
- lower operating frequency
- Low PRF
- high PRF
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71)
The _______ is the number of sonographic images entered into memory per second.
- cine loop
- frame rate
- image refresh rate
- PRF
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72)
If an echo returns 104u after a pulse was emitted by a transducer, at what depth is the structure that produced the echo located?
- 8mm
- 8.mm
- 80.cm
- 8.cm
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73)
The attenuation of a 5.0MHz transducer at a depth of 4cm is _____ dB.
- 20. dB
- 16.0 dB
- 1.6 dB
- 10. dB
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74)
Which of the following is the most important in determining the frame rate of the system?
- transmitter output
- tranducer frequency
- speed of sound in the medium
- dynamic range of the received
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75)
Propagation speed is primarily determined by the _____ of the medium.
- stiffness
- density
- thickness
- water
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76)
the range of frequencies found within a pulse describes with of the following terms?
- pulse repetition frequency
- harmonics
- bandwidth
- duty factor
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77)
If you switch to a lower frequency for penetration, the wavelength of the transducer will ______?
- remain unchanged
- double
- increase
- decrease
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78)
The duty factor will increase with all of the following except.
- period
- pulse duration
- PRF
- none of the above
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79)
Brightness mode is term?
- gray-scale
- B-Mode
- B-Scan
- All of the above
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80)
What is the PD equal to?
- frequency × period
- period × wavelength
- # of cycles in a pulse/wavelength
- period × # of cycles in the pulse
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81)
A sonographer adjusts an ultrasound scan to double the depth of view from 5 cm to 10 cm. What happens to the frame rate?
- it is doubled
- it is halved
- it is unchanged
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82)
If the beam power increases, intensity will _______.
- remain unchanged
- double
- increase
- decrease
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83)
Which of the following are averaging techniques of an ultrasound system?
- parallel processing
- pixel interpolation
- smoothing
- persistence
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84)
A rectangular image display would be seen when using a ________ transducer?
- convex
- sector
- linear
- vector
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85)
3D imaging requires many adjacent tissue ____ ____ to build the image.
- frequency shifts
- ultrasound pulses
- moving objects
- cross sections
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86)
If two variables are directly proportional, if one increases by a factor of 5, then the other
- decreases
- decreases by a factor of 5
- increases
- increases by a factor of 5
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87)
Which resolution relates to more directly to transducers?
- temporal
- Vectoral
- contrast
- detail
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88)
What does 3 dB of attenuation mean?
- one third of the original intensity
- one half of the original intensity?
- increasing amplitude
- 4 decibels more than the original intensity
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89)
If the speed of sound in a medium is 100m/sec, how long will it take sound to travel 420m?
- .42 sec
- 4.2 sec
- 42 sec
- 420sec
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90)
The wavelenght of 3 MHz US in soft tissue is ______ mm.
- 0.51
- 5.1
- 510
- 4.6
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91)
In order to image deep structures __________.
- the TGC needs to be increased
- the PRF needs to be decreased
- the frame rate needs to be increased
- the PRF needs to be increased
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92)
The following are all ultrasound frequencies except:
- 30,000 Hz
- 250.0kHz
- 15.0 kHz
- .30 Hz
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93)
What is the SPL of a 4 cycle pulse with a wavelength of 0.1mm ?
- .4mm
- .4cm
- 4.0 mm
- 40.mm
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94)
______ is the number of complete cycles per second.
- period
- propagation speed
- wavelength
- Frequency
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95)
Intensity is equal to the power of a wave dived by the _____ over which the power is spread.
- area
- diameter
- radius
- width
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96)
Which of the following characteristic will create the slowest speed of sound?
- High density, high stiffness
- low density, high stiffness
- high density, low stiffness
- low density, low stiffness
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97)
_____ is (are) the even and odd multiples of the fundamental frequency.
- side lobes
- Harmonics
- mechancial waves
- bandwidth
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98)
All of the following are advantages of spatial compounding except:
- echo information is added from previous frames
- specular surfaces are presented more completely
- speckle reduction
- surfaces are interogated at more than one angle
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99)
The ________ format determines the starting points and paths for the individual scan.
- location
- display
- scan
- image
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100)
The attenuation of a 5.0 MHz transducer at a depth of 4cm is _____dB.
- 6 dB
- 10 dB
- 20 dB
- 16. dB`
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101)
The PRF is ________ Hz if ther are 30 fram per secon and 40 lines per frame.
- 12,000
- 1200
- 12
- 120
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102)
Which resolution depends on penetration depth, lines per frame, and the number of focuses.
- Temporal
- Contrast
- Detail
- Axial
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103)
A _______ scan is shaped like a slice of pie?
- convex
- curivilinear
- sector
- linear
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104)
The functions of a beam former aer all of the following except:
- compress the dynamic range
- direct, focus, and apodize the transmitted beam
- determine the PRF
- compensate for attenuation
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105)
How are axial and lateral resolutions artifactual?
- Two adjacent structures seen as one
- increase from actual size of structure
- Failura to resolve a mass due to loss of detail
- All of the above
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106)
Stiffer media have _____ sound speeds.
- Stiffness doesn't change the the propagation speed
- sound cannot propagate through stiffer media
- higher
- lower
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107)
As sound travels, the reduction in amplitude and intensity of the wave is called____.
- reflection
- scattering
- attenuation
- absorption
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108)
What is the wavelength of a wave with an unknown frequency traveling in soft tissue?
- .51 m/s
- .51 pascals
- 51 watts
- .51 mm
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109)
Which of the following is not a form of reverberation?
- comet-tail
- mirrior image
- ring-down
- speckle
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110)
Propagations speed is primaritly determined by the _____ of the medium.
- thickness
- stiffness
- density
- water
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111)
_______ is the even and odd multiples of the fundamental frequency.
- bandwidth
- mechancial waves
- harmonics
- side lobes
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112)
Attenuation increases with increasing ______.
- pressure
- frequency
- power
- wavelength
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113)
A _____ impedance of the transducer element allows more energy to transmit into the patient.
- faster
- slower
- lower
- higher
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114)
Which resolution depends on penetration depth, lines per frame and the number of focuses?
- axial
- temporal
- contrast
- detail
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115)
The most common artifact encounter in Doppler US is ________.
- clutter
- range ambiguity
- aliasing
- mirror image
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116)
What are the two key issues concerning US data?
- storage and displaying
- receiving and storage
- storage and compression
- compression and displaying
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117)
20 kHz is equal to _____ Hz.
- 200,000
- 2000
- 200
- 20,000
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118)
What is the attenuation coefficient for a 5. MHz transducer in soft tissue.
- .25 dB/cm
- 10. dB/cm
- .1 dB/cm
- 2.5 dB/cm
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119)
The SPL will increase with all of the following except?
- Number of cycles in the pulse
- wavelength
- frequency
- None of the above
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120)
Which of the following is not an image artifact?
- Incorrect respresentation of motion in color
- Anything not properly indicative of teh structures imaged
- Errors in presentation of anatomic structures
- None of the above
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121)
The location of each dot corresponds to the _______ of the echo to return.
- strength
- pulse
- time
- frequency
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122)
If the beam power increases, intensity will ____.
- double
- remain unchanged
- decreased
- increased
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123)
Log (x/y) equals?
- log × + log y
- log × - log y
- log × = log y
- answer is not here
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124)
Select the sequence that appears in increasing order.
- milli, hecto, centi, deci, nano, giga
- centi, deci, deca, hecto
- namo, milli, micro, deci, deca, mega
- mega, kilo, hecto, milli, giga
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125)
The assumptions in teh design of sonographic instruments include all of the following except?
- amplitude and intensity are properties of the structure
- sound travels in a straight line
- echoes originate from objects located on teh beam axis
- sound travels at different speeds in soft tissues
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126)
Which of the following approaches would yield the best imaging results on a large, difficult to image patient?
- 6MHz transmit and recieive,.8 cm aperture
- 1.4 MHz transmit, 2.8 Mhz receive, 1 cm aperture
- 2MHz transmit, 4MHz receive, 1.8 cm aperture
- 2.5 MHz transmit and receive and 2, cm aperture
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127)
All of the following are true about a wide dynamic range except:
- perferred for imaging abdominal organs
- low contrast
- high contrast
- many shades of gray
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128)
Which of the following would likely demonstrate acoustic enhancement?
- Solid mass
- gallstone
- gallbladder
- complex mass
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129)
The distance to a reflector in soft tissue is 15 cm. What is th round trip time to this depth?
- 11.5 micro second
- 19.5 micro second
- 195. micro second
- 1.15 micro second
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130)
If Frequency increases, period will _____.
- increase
- None of the above
- decrease
- remain unchanged
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