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CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 4

Number of questions: 180

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About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 180 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) What is the word for an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from one individual to another?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Fomite
  3. Germ
  4. Parasite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which of these is an example of regulated waste?
  1. Empty medicine bottles
  2. Patient gowns
  3. Sterile dressings
  4. Used blood tubes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What is the most common type of fire extinguisher in clinical laboratories?
  1. ABC
  2. Class A
  3. Class B
  4. Class C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Class D fires involve:
  1. combustible metals
  2. electrical equipment
  3. flammable liquids
  4. paper and wood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What type of fire extinguisher can be used on a methane gas fire?
  1. ABC powder
  2. AFFF foam
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) Which of these is written information that must be supplied by manufacturers of chemicals and hazardous materials?
  1. OSHA
  2. OSM
  3. SDS
  4. TOSM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) How thick is a 5 mil glove?
  1. 0.005 inches
  2. 0.005 millimetres
  3. 0.5 millimetres
  4. 5 millimetres
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?
  1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  2. Flush the burn with water
  3. Go to the emergency department
  4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which of these burns is the most life-threatening?
  1. First-degree
  2. Second-degree
  3. Third-degree
  4. Combination
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) The Heimlich maneuver is used for:
  1. choking
  2. heart attack
  3. poisoning
  4. syncope
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) In CPR, how many chest compressions should be given per second?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) What is the minimum amount of time the eyes should be flushed with water in the event of a chemical splash?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 5 minutes
  3. 10 minutes
  4. 15 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Bottles of organic peroxides require which two pictograms?
  1. Flame and exploding bomb
  2. Flame and flame over a circle
  3. Health hazard and exclamation mark
  4. Health hazard and gas cylinder
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) Which of these items of information is NOT required on a supplier label of a hazardous product?
  1. A hazard statement describing the nature of the hazard posed by the product
  2. A hazard symbol
  3. The contact details of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer
  4. The website of the Canadian manufacturer or the Canadian importer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) WHMIS stands for:
  1. Warehouse Methods and Industrial Security
  2. Workbook of Harmful Material Information Sheets
  3. Worker Handbook on Mechanical And Industrial Safety
  4. Workplace Hazardous Materials Information System
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) If the word 'Forbidden' is written in column 3 of a Hazardous Materials Table, it means the material should not be:
  1. discarded
  2. ingested
  3. transported
  4. used
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs:
  1. in a fume hood
  2. in a poorly ventilated area
  3. near sources of ignition
  4. near the flammable storage cabinet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which of these is used when cleaning a radioactive spill?
  1. Tongs
  2. Soda ash
  3. Spill pillow
  4. Soda lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Which of the following plastics is autoclavable?
  1. High density polyethylene
  2. Polypropylene
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Polyurethane
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Which of these methods results in sterilization?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Chemical disinfectants
  3. Freezing
  4. Soap and water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) The cabinet with the highest personal, environmental, and specimen protection is the:
  1. class A biological safety cabinet
  2. class I biological safety cabinet
  3. class II biological safety cabinet
  4. class III biological safety cabinet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Which chemical is added to formalin as a stabilizer?
  1. Half-normal saline
  2. Iodine
  3. Methanol
  4. Sodium phosphate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Class 8 hazardous materials are:
  1. corrosive
  2. explosive
  3. poisonous
  4. radioactive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) You have to draw blood from a nervous patient. What should you do?
  1. Be friendly and confident
  2. Cancel the requisition and send them home
  3. Tell the patient the needle won't hurt
  4. Tell the patient to calm down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) There are several short lengths of IV-type tubing protruding from a patient's chest. This is most likely a:
  1. CVC
  2. PICC
  3. arterial line
  4. implanted port
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) A patient has a mastectomy on the right side. What special precaution is needed when drawing blood from this patient?
  1. Check the patient's white blood cell count first
  2. Do not draw blood from the right arm
  3. Make sure the patient is lying down
  4. Make sure the patient is sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm?
  1. Downwards
  2. To the left
  3. To the right
  4. Upwards
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which test result is most affected when collected from a crying infant?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Lead level
  4. White blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) A phlebotomist is collecting blood from the vein of a 14-month-old baby when the blood stops flowing. Which of these actions should the phlebotomist take to try to continue the draw?
  1. Give the baby something sweet to eat
  2. Release the tourniquet
  3. Try a new tube
  4. Try to collect blood from the baby's heel instead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Light blue top vacutainer tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:
  1. 1:3
  2. 1:6
  3. 1:9
  4. 1:12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a light blue top tube with a butterfly needle?
  1. Draw a discard tube
  2. Get a bucket of ice ready
  3. Label the tube
  4. Make sure the patient is lying down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?
  1. Differential
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Platelet count
  4. Prothrombin time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) What colour is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) A winged infusion set is also called a ____________ needle.
  1. Milliner's
  2. butterfly
  3. straight
  4. universal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. obese patients
  4. patients with AIDS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) The gauge size of a needle indicates the diameter of the needle's:
  1. bevel
  2. hub
  3. lumen
  4. shaft
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) After a blood draw, which of these instructions should you tell the patient?
  1. Bend your arm a few times
  2. Hold the cotton wool in place for 5 minutes
  3. Refrain from drinking fluids for the next 2–3 hours
  4. Walk around if you feel lightheaded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) What term means 'without infection'?
  1. Antibiotic
  2. Aseptic
  3. Septic
  4. Stasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) The study of how the body functions is called:
  1. anatomy
  2. histology
  3. microbiology
  4. physiology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Cartilage found between the bones of the spine is called:
  1. articular cartilage
  2. elastic cartilage
  3. fibrocartilage
  4. hyaline cartilage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Substances that prevent blood clotting are called:
  1. anticoagulants
  2. coagulants
  3. platelets
  4. thrombi
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) A resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of twelve hours of fasting is called a ___________ state.
  1. absorptive
  2. basal
  3. postprandial
  4. starvation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What does intercostal mean?
  1. Between blood vessels
  2. Between the ribs
  3. The rib cage
  4. Within a joint space
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Which term means the abnormal build-up of fluid in the peritoneal cavity?
  1. Ascites
  2. Cellulitis
  3. Edema
  4. Paracentesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) Bone cells that absorb and remove unwanted bone tissue are called:
  1. calcani
  2. exocytes
  3. fossas
  4. osteoclasts
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) White blood cells are also known as:
  1. erythrocytes
  2. leukocytes
  3. osteocytes
  4. thrombocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) What is the term for the production of blood cells and platelets?
  1. Apheresis
  2. Coagulation
  3. Hemopoiesis
  4. Hemosynthesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Adipose tissue is more commonly known as:
  1. bone
  2. cartilage
  3. fat
  4. skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Buccal means pertaining to the:
  1. cheek
  2. soft palate
  3. teeth
  4. tongue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which blood vessel carries blood from the heart to the lungs?
  1. Aorta
  2. Pulmonary artery
  3. Pulmonary vein
  4. Superior vena cava
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which anatomical plane separates the body into front and back?
  1. Frontal
  2. Oblique
  3. Sagittal
  4. Transverse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which prefix means the liver?
  1. Adeno-
  2. Gastro-
  3. Hepato-
  4. Nephro-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which suffix means "hardening"?
  1. -pathy
  2. -plegia
  3. -sclerosis
  4. -stomy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) Which does the prefix adeno- refer to?
  1. Glands
  2. Joints
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What is the medical term for fever?
  1. Hypertension
  2. Hypothermia
  3. Pyrexia
  4. Tachypnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) What is the medical term for a heart attack?
  1. Angina
  2. Angina pectoris
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Myocardial infarction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Small red or purple spots caused by a minor hemorrhage are called:
  1. palachiae
  2. parachiae
  3. pasachiae
  4. petechiae
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) What is a fistula?
  1. A knot of old scar tissue
  2. A vein that has become distended and engorged
  3. An abnormal connection between two parts of the body
  4. An infection of the large intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) What is a hematoma?
  1. A cancer of the blood that originates in red blood cells
  2. A cut in the skin
  3. A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels
  4. A severed artery
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) What is otitis?
  1. An abnormal discharge from the nose
  2. An eye infection
  3. Ear inflammation
  4. Inflammation of the sinuses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to:
  1. galactose
  2. glucagon
  3. glycogen
  4. sucrose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which of these is an enzyme?
  1. Glucagon
  2. Glucose
  3. Lipase
  4. Lipid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Loose connective tissue is also called ____________ tissue.
  1. areolar
  2. cuboidal
  3. squamous
  4. transitional
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) Which of these fluids is normally clear and colourless?
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid
  2. Lymph fluid
  3. Serum
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) How many teeth do adults have?
  1. 20
  2. 28
  3. 32
  4. 40
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) What is the first step of hemostasis?
  1. Blood coagulation
  2. Temporary blockage of a break by a platelet plug
  3. Vasoconstriction
  4. Vasodilation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Type 1 diabetes mellitus:
  1. is an autoimmune condition
  2. is the most common form of diabetes mellitus
  3. requires an oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosis
  4. usually occurs after age 40
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) Which of these diseases is a viral infection of the liver?
  1. HIV
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. Syphilis
  4. Tuberculosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Which chromosome is only present in males?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. X
  4. Y
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) What are the main signs of nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Hemoglobinuria, hypernatremia, and thrombocytopenia
  2. Ketonuria, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia
  3. Proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and hypoalbuminemia
  4. Pyuria, hyperglycemia, and leukopenia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which of these is an inherited metabolic disorder detected through newborn screening?
  1. Vitamin D deficiency
  2. Congenital hypothyroidism
  3. Phenylketonuria
  4. Sickle cell disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) The larger of the two lower leg bones is called the:
  1. condoyle
  2. fibula
  3. tibia
  4. ulna
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. glucose
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) What is the functional unit of the kidney?
  1. Glomerular tuft
  2. Glomerulus
  3. Loop of Henle
  4. Nephron
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?
  1. Active transport
  2. Diffusion
  3. Filtration
  4. Osmosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) The parasympathetic nervous system:
  1. decreases the metabolic rate
  2. is also known as the enteric nervous system
  3. is part of the somatic nervous system
  4. is under voluntary control
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which part of a neuron carries impulses away from the neuron?
  1. Axon
  2. Cell body
  3. Dendrite
  4. Myelin sheath
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which cellular component is involved in packaging enzymes?
  1. Endoplasmic reticulum
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mitochondria
  4. Ribosomes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together?
  1. DNase
  2. Hexonuclease
  3. Ligase
  4. Primase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?
  1. Vitamins A and C
  2. Vitamins B3 and B6
  3. Vitamins B9 and B12
  4. Vitamins C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) Deficiency of which mineral or vitamin causes pernicious anemia?
  1. Folate
  2. Iron
  3. Vitamin B12
  4. Vitamin B6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) A deficiency of which mineral can cause anemia?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iodine
  3. Iron
  4. Zinc
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Which of these is an autoimmune disorder?
  1. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome
  2. Anaphylactic shock
  3. Lymphedema
  4. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) Which antibody causes asthma?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) A requisition says that a specimen is to be drawn at 1530. What is that in 12-hour time?
  1. 1:30 pm
  2. 3:30 pm
  3. 5:30 pm
  4. 7:30 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) What is the temperature of a laboratory refrigerator?
  1. −4°C
  2. 0°C
  3. 3°C
  4. 20°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which test measures the oxygen-carrying capacity of red blood cells?
  1. CBC
  2. ESR
  3. Hct
  4. Hgb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) Which of these is higher in capillary blood than in venous blood?
  1. Calcium
  2. Carotene
  3. Glucose
  4. Total protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) Which of these practices is dangerous and should be avoided?
  1. Immediately performing first aid to someone who has been exposed to blood
  2. Recapping used needles using both hands
  3. Securing used sharps containers during transport
  4. Using plasticware instead of glass
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) When collecting a semen sample, the patient should:
  1. collect the entire ejaculate, including the first drops
  2. keep the sample on ice during transport
  3. use a latex condom
  4. use a lubricant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:
  1. a butterfly needle
  2. a tourniquet
  3. alcohol wipes
  4. ice water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) What does a hemoglobin A1c test measure?
  1. The amount of hemoglobin in the patient's blood
  2. The concentration of red blood cells in the patient's blood
  3. The patient's average blood glucose levels over the last three months
  4. The patient's blood glucose level at the time the sample drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Glucose tolerance
  3. HCG detection
  4. Urine cytology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) Which type of urine specimen is taken after eating?
  1. Clean catch midstream
  2. Pediatric
  3. Postprandial
  4. Random
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) A doctor orders a 2-hour PC glucose test. What does PC mean?
  1. After a meal
  2. After an operation
  3. Before a meal
  4. Before an operation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Which test measures a patient's average blood glucose level over the last two to three months?
  1. Blood insulin
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. HbA1c
  4. Random blood glucose test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) An inpatient is eating breakfast when a phlebotomist arrives to collect a specimen for a fasting blood glucose test. Which of these would be the best action for the phlebotomist to take?
  1. Ask the patient to vomit into a sink or emesis basin before taking the sample
  2. Ask the patient's nurse if the specimen should still be collected
  3. Draw the specimen quickly before the patient finishes eating
  4. Give the patient a dose of insulin to counteract the food they have eaten
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which additive is preferred for collecting blood culture specimens?
  1. Citrate phosphate dextrose
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium heparin
  4. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) How many bottles are drawn for a blood culture set?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You collect the fasting specimen at 8:10 am. You give the patient the glucose drink at 8:13 am. He finishes the drink at 8:18 am. When should you collect the 1 hour specimen?
  1. 9:10 am
  2. 9:13 am
  3. 9:15 am
  4. 9:18 am
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Glucose point-of-care testing screens for:
  1. glycemia
  2. glycogenolysis
  3. glycolysis
  4. glycosuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) To one decimal place, what is a glucose value of 91 mg/dL in mmol/L?
  1. 5.1
  2. 6.2
  3. 7.3
  4. 8.4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Which fingers are used for finger puncture?
  1. Little finger and ring finger
  2. Little finger and thumb
  3. Middle finger and ring finger
  4. Ring finger and thumb
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) Which sample is needed for a cardiac enzyme test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Sweat
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) What do C and T mean on a pregnancy test?
  1. Clarity and time
  2. Colour and temperature
  3. Consistency and translucency
  4. Control and test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) Specimens containing the smallpox virus must be transported as:
  1. Category A
  2. Category B
  3. Class 1
  4. Class 2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) What does the UN packaging code 4G mean?
  1. Fibreboard box
  2. Glass bottle
  3. Plastic bag
  4. Steel drum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) Which test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens?
  1. Immunoelectrophoresis
  2. Ouchterlony double diffusion
  3. Radioimmunoassay
  4. Western blot
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) Which enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin?
  1. Renin
  2. Secretin
  3. Serotonin
  4. Thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Formed elements in blood include which of the following?
  1. Electrolytes
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Plasma proteins
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Which of these is NOT a type of white blood cell?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Erythrocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Which of these is a liver function test?
  1. AST test
  2. Creatine kinase test
  3. Creatinine test
  4. Troponin test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) What is a nosocomial infection?
  1. A hospital-acquired infection
  2. A nose infection
  3. A pneumococcal infection
  4. A throat infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) Which of these glass types has the strongest resistance to heat?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Crystal
  3. Optical
  4. Soda-lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which chemical is added to formalin as a buffer?
  1. Half-normal saline
  2. Iodine
  3. Methanol
  4. Sodium phosphate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) How much of formalin is formaldehyde?
  1. 3.7–4.0%
  2. 10%
  3. 37–40%
  4. 77–80%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) During fixation, why is buffered formalin used instead of normal formalin?
  1. To inactivate cellular enzymes
  2. To keep the tissue dehydrated
  3. To maintain a neutral pH
  4. To prevent cells from bursting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) What is the purpose of fixation?
  1. To make the tissue transparent
  2. To prevent cell death
  3. To prevent water loss
  4. To stop the tissue from deteriorating
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) Picric acid fixatives such as Bouin's fixative give tissue which colour?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) In tissue processing for paraffin sections, which step comes after dehydration?
  1. Clearing
  2. Decalcification
  3. Embedding
  4. Staining
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the most common clearing agent?
  1. Aniline oil
  2. Cedarwood oil
  3. Oil of wintergreen
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Why are tissues dehydrated before embedding?
  1. Because wax is hydrophobic
  2. To make the tissue transparent
  3. To remove calcium ions from the specimen
  4. To stop autolysis and putrefaction
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) If paraffin is not infiltrated properly, the tissue will:
  1. become soft and crumbly
  2. become too hard to cut properly
  3. liquefy
  4. lose its colour
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which microtome is used to prepare tissue sections for electron microscopy?
  1. Cryostat
  2. Rotary microtome
  3. Sledge microtome
  4. Ultramicrotome
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) A lab technician has cut a ribbon of sections from a tissue block. What should the lab technician do next?
  1. Add a few drops of a softening agent
  2. Float the sections on warm water
  3. Leave the sections in a freezer for an hour
  4. Submerge the sections in ethanol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) At which of these pH levels is Alcian blue solution used?
  1. 2.5
  2. 4.5
  3. 6.5
  4. 8.5
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) What colour is acid fuchsin?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Orange
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What colour are red blood cells after Giemsa staining?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Pale blue
  3. Pale pink
  4. Violet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Masson's trichrome staining stains muscle fibres which colour?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Pink
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which stain is used to stain lipids?
  1. Gram's stain
  2. H&E
  3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
  4. Sudan IV
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which stain is used to stain glycogen?
  1. Gram's stain
  2. H&E
  3. Periodic Acid-Schiff
  4. Sudan IV
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) Alcian blue stains what part of goblet cells?
  1. DNA
  2. Golgi apparatus
  3. Mucins
  4. RNA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) __________ staining is the process of staining living cells that have been removed from the body.
  1. Gram
  2. In vivo
  3. Positive
  4. Supravital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) What is the counterstain in Gram's technique?
  1. Acetone-alcohol
  2. Crystal violet
  3. Iodine
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) The most common mordant for H&E staining is:
  1. Alcian blue
  2. alum
  3. eosin
  4. sodium metabisulphite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) What are the two dyes in the Romanowsky stain?
  1. Carbol fuchsin and methylene blue
  2. Crystal violet and carbol fuchsin
  3. Crystal violet and safranin
  4. Methylene blue and eosin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the decolourizer in H&E staining?
  1. Acid-alcohol
  2. Eosin
  3. Orange G
  4. Peroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which type of bacteria does the Ziehl-Neelsen stain identify?
  1. Acid-fast
  2. Facultative anaerobic
  3. Gram-negative
  4. Spore-forming
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) What is the goal of streaking an agar plate?
  1. To accelerate the solidification of the agar medium
  2. To determine if the bacteria can ferment glucose, sucrose and/or lactose
  3. To determine the number of organisms in the sample
  4. To produce isolated colonies for further study
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) What is the sequence of steps for Gram staining?
  1. Primary stain, decolourizing, counterstain, mordant
  2. Primary stain, decolourizing, mordant, counterstain
  3. Primary stain, mordant, counterstain, decolourizing
  4. Primary stain, mordant, decolourizing, counterstain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) When setting up erythrocyte sedimentation rates, take care to ensure:
  1. a fasting specimen is used
  2. the ESR tubes are vertical
  3. the sample is completely thawed
  4. the water bath is exactly 37°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
  1. acids and bases
  2. antigens and antibodies
  3. lysing agents and red blood cells
  4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) If 0.2 mL of a sample is added to 5 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?
  1. 4.8
  2. 5.2
  3. 25
  4. 26
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) A lab technician requires 400 mL of a 3% solution but has only a 5% solution available. How would the lab technician prepare the 3% solution?
  1. Mix 240 mL of the 5% solution with 160 mL of diluent
  2. Mix 300 mL of the 5% solution with 100 mL of diluent
  3. Mix 360 mL of the 5% solution with 40 mL of diluent
  4. Mix 380 mL of the 5% solution with 20 mL of diluent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) A lab technician has a litre bottle of 90% alcohol. The technician needs a 100 mL solution of 70% alcohol. To make the required solution, the lab technician must mix _____ mL of the 90% alcohol with _____ mL of water.
  1. 66.6, 33.4
  2. 77.8, 22.2
  3. 84.5, 15.5
  4. 90.0, 10.0
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 300 mL of a 2% m/v solution?
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 20
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:
  1. analytical balance
  2. desiccator
  3. pH meter
  4. single pan balance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) In a pH meter, the reference electrode typically contains a saturated solution of:
  1. ethanol
  2. hydrochloric acid
  3. potassium chloride
  4. sulfuric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) What term means everyone in a group agreeing to a solution, even if it's not their ideal choice?
  1. Authority
  2. Consensus
  3. Majority-vote
  4. Railroading
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which of these is a barrier to effective communication?
  1. A clear message
  2. Background noise
  3. Emotional intelligence
  4. Eye contact
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Pronouncing words clearly is called:
  1. articulation
  2. emphasis
  3. intonation
  4. modulation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Which of these is an example of non-verbal communication?
  1. Asking a patient to confirm her name
  2. Nodding to show you agree with someone
  3. Saying "No" to a patient
  4. Writing a note to your manager
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) Sitting with your arms crossed conveys:
  1. concern
  2. interest
  3. resistance
  4. sincerity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Email, telephone and videoconferencing are all examples of which part of the communication cycle?
  1. Channel
  2. Message
  3. Receiver
  4. Sender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Speaking quickly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) When answering the phone, you should state your name and:
  1. "How are you today?"
  2. the name of your facility
  3. your facility's opening hours
  4. your phone number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.9) What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG?
  1. "Don't worry; it takes only a few seconds."
  2. "I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor."
  3. "Will you tell me why you don't want to have an ECG?"
  4. "Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done."
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) According to the Pareto principle, roughly _____ of effects come from _____ of causes.
  1. 60%, 40%
  2. 70%, 30%
  3. 80%, 20%
  4. 90%, 10%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Precise values:
  1. are caused by random errors
  2. are close to the true value
  3. are the same as the true value
  4. fall within a narrow range
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) What inventory model uses cards, bins, or other visual cues to signal when items need replenishing?
  1. Just-in-time
  2. Kanban
  3. Min-max
  4. Safety stock model
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) A rectangle shape on a workflow diagram indicates a:
  1. decision
  2. manual input
  3. process
  4. start/stop point
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Which ISO is the standard for risk management specifically in medical laboratories?
  1. ISO 15190
  2. ISO 22367
  3. ISO 22870
  4. ISO 31000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Which of these actions would increase a laboratory's efficiency?
  1. Finding ways to increase the time it takes to perform key tasks
  2. Storing frequently used equipment in easy-to-reach places
  3. Using an inconsistent labelling system
  4. Using paper files instead of digital files
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) Which of these is a sign that a patient is stressed?
  1. Willingness to do as you ask
  2. Crying
  3. Constricted pupils
  4. Eye contact
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) The knowledge, skill, ability, or characteristic associated with high performance on a job, such as problem-solving, analytical thinking, or leadership is called:
  1. competency
  2. human resource training
  3. performance development
  4. work ethic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Patient personal information:
  1. may be discussed during coffee breaks
  2. may be discussed with family members
  3. may be discussed with other patients
  4. must never be discussed outside the hospital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) A lab assistant overhears two clinicians talking about a patient. What kind of risk is this?
  1. Accountability
  2. Infection
  3. Privacy
  4. Security
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) What does the autonomy principle of bioethics mean?
  1. Self-awareness
  2. Self-governance
  3. Self-promotion
  4. Selfishness
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) The duty to "do no harm" is also referred to as:
  1. autonomy
  2. beneficence
  3. justice
  4. non-maleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Which principle of PIPEDA states that organizations must be able to explain why they are collecting personal information?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Challenging compliance
  3. Identifying purposes
  4. Limiting use, disclosure, and retention
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) In 1984, the Canada Health Act was passed, combining two previous federal acts addressing hospital and physician services. Which were the two acts?
  1. Privacy Act and Access to Health Information Act
  2. Privacy Act and Department of Health Act
  3. The Hospital Insurance and Diagnostic Services Act and the Medical Care Act
  4. The Medical Care Act and the Department of Health Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) In Canada, a medical laboratory assistant is a skill level B occupation. What is a skill level B occupation?
  1. A labour job that usually gives on-the-job training
  2. A professional job that usually calls for a degree from a university
  3. A technical job or skilled trade that usually calls for a college diploma or training as an apprentice
  4. An intermediate job that usually calls for high school and/or job-specific training
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) Which of these status designations has the same priority as Stat?
  1. Med Emerg
  2. Postop
  3. Preop
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) You have to collect specimens from three patients. The specimens are routine, preop, and fasting. What is the correct order of priority for collecting these specimens?
  1. Fasting, Preop, Routine
  2. Fasting, Routine, Preop
  3. Preop, Fasting, Routine
  4. Routine, Fasting, Preop
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) What is meant by a dynamic environment?
  1. An environment high in toxic fumes
  2. An environment that changes quickly
  3. An environment with a high risk of electrical shock
  4. An environment with many people
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) You are performing a rapid strep test on an eight-year-old girl. However, when you try to swab the back of her throat, she refuses to open her mouth. She says the swab scares her. What should you do?
  1. Force the swab into her mouth
  2. Scold her for behaving badly
  3. Swab her nose instead
  4. Talk to her about the test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) A patient arrives for an oral glucose tolerance test. She says she ate a few biscuits before coming to the test. What should you do?
  1. Arrange for the test to be rescheduled for another day
  2. Have her walk around to use up the sugar from the biscuits
  3. Start the test as the biscuits will not matter
  4. Wait an hour to ensure all the sugar is out of her bloodstream
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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