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AMT RPT Practice Exam 1

Number of questions: 200

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About the AMT RPT exam

The AMT RPT (Registered Phlebotomy Technician) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you have the knowledge to work as a phlebotomist.

The exam contains 200 questions and lasts 145 minutes. All questions are multiple-choice.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT RPT exam.

This page contains 200 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Obtaining Blood Samples, 2. Specimen Collection and Processing, 3. Time Management and Assignment Organization, 4. Professional Communications, 5. Clerical Skills and Duties, 6. Safety Standards and Procedures, 7. Legal, Ethical, and Professional Considerations, and 8. Terminology, Anatomy, and Physiology.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. Obtaining Blood Samples
  2. Specimen Collection and Processing
  3. Time Management and Assignment Organization
  4. Professional Communications
  5. Clerical Skills and Duties
  6. Safety Standards and Procedures
  7. Legal, Ethical, and Professional Considerations
  8. Terminology, Anatomy, and Physiology

Section 1: Obtaining Blood Samples

1.1) A phlebotomist is asked to collect a blood specimen from an inpatient. However, the inpatient is not wearing an ID band. What is the best thing to do?
  1. Ask a nurse for help identifying the patient
  2. Identify the patient by asking them, "What is your name?"
  3. Identify the patient by the name card on the door
  4. Refuse to draw the specimen and cancel the request
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which of these actions can help a phlebotomist find a difficult vein?
  1. Ask the patient to hold their arm up in the air
  2. Ask the patient to make a fist
  3. Cool the area with an ice pack
  4. Tell the patient to drink nothing and come back in a few hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) There are several short lengths of IV-type tubing protruding from a patient's chest. This is most likely a:
  1. CVC
  2. PICC
  3. arterial line
  4. implanted port
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) A patient has an IV in his left wrist and a cast on his right arm. Which site should be used to obtain a blood sample?
  1. A vein in the left hand
  2. An earlobe
  3. The left median cubital vein
  4. The right median cubital vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which vein should be tried first when choosing a draw site?
  1. Basilic
  2. Cephalic
  3. Median antibrachial
  4. Median cubital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) For venipuncture, tourniquets should be:
  1. applied very tightly to the arm
  2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
  3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
  4. tight enough to slow venous flow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is the purpose of a tourniquet in venipuncture?
  1. To decrease the oxygen level
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To monitor blood pressure
  4. To prevent hematoma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What is the most common antiseptic used to disinfect the site before venipuncture?
  1. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  2. Betadine
  3. EMLA
  4. Iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) After applying a tourniquet, small red spots appear on the patient's arm. These spots are a sign that:
  1. the patient has diabetes
  2. the patient is taking an anticoagulant
  3. the site may bleed excessively
  4. the tourniquet is too tight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which statement is true about performing a venipuncture?
  1. Disinfect the entry site with a 70% alcohol swab
  2. Ensure the bevel of the needle is pointing down when the needle enters the vein
  3. Enter the vein at a 50-degree angle
  4. Remove the needle first, then the tourniquet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) During phlebotomy, in which direction should the bevel be facing when the needle enters the arm?
  1. Downwards
  2. To the left
  3. To the right
  4. Upwards
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) A phlebotomist has made two unsuccessful attempts while trying to collect a blood specimen from a patient. What should the phlebotomist do next?
  1. Ask another phlebotomist to collect it
  2. Ask the patient's nurse to do the draw
  3. Collect it by arterial puncture
  4. Try to draw it one more time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release their fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) A physician requests a vitamin A test and a complete blood count. In which vacutainer tubes should the phlebotomist collect the blood samples?
  1. Gold and lavender
  2. Gray and gold
  3. Gray and lavender
  4. Gray and light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?
  1. Electrolyte panel
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Lithium levels
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) A phlebotomist has to collect a lavender top tube, green top tube, and light blue top tube from a patient. In which order should the phlebotomist fill the tubes?
  1. Green, lavender, light blue
  2. Green, light blue, lavender
  3. Lavender, green, light blue
  4. Light blue, green, lavender
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) What are cross-match tubes used for?
  1. Blood compatibility testing
  2. Coagulation studies
  3. Glucose tests
  4. Trace element studies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) EDTA prevents clotting by binding to:
  1. anti-hemophilia factor
  2. calcium ions
  3. fibrinogen
  4. prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Light blue top vacutainer tubes require a citrate-to-blood ratio of:
  1. 1:3
  2. 1:6
  3. 1:9
  4. 1:12
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Green top vacutainers contain which anticoagulant?
  1. Citrate
  2. EDTA
  3. Fluoride
  4. Heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) What special action does a phlebotomist need to take before drawing a light blue top tube with a butterfly needle?
  1. Draw a discard tube
  2. Get a bucket of ice ready
  3. Label the tube
  4. Make sure the patient is lying down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Which vacutainer tube is used for hemoglobin testing?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Lavender
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) Which anticoagulant is in gray top vacutainers?
  1. Heparin
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. SPS
  4. Sodium polyanethole sulfonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) What is the glycolytic inhibitor in gray top tubes?
  1. Heparin
  2. Silica
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium fluoride
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Which vacutainer tube is used for trace metal analysis?
  1. Light blue
  2. Orange
  3. Red
  4. Royal blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate?
  1. Gray
  2. Light blue
  3. Pink
  4. Red (glass)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) What vacutainer tube is used for reticulocyte counts?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which additive do pink top vacutainer tubes contain?
  1. Potassium EDTA
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) A phlebotomist needs to collect blood in a gray top tube, a gold top tube, and a lavender top tube. What is the correct order to fill the tubes?
  1. Gold, gray, lavender
  2. Gold, lavender, gray
  3. Gray, gold, lavender
  4. Gray, lavender, gold
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) What color tube is used for stat chemistry tests?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Black top vacutainer tubes contain which anticoagulant?
  1. EDTA
  2. Sodium citrate
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) For which vacutainer tube is the blood-to-additive ratio most critical?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Which of these vacutainer tubes contains an anticoagulant that works by binding calcium?
  1. Green
  2. Light blue
  3. PST
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) A phlebotomist has to draw a patient's blood into a blood culture bottle and four tubes: red top, green top, light blue top, and lavender top. Which should the phlebotomist fill first?
  1. Blood culture bottle
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue top tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Collect the SST first then the light blue tube
  2. Collect the light blue tube first then the SST
  3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue tube, then collect the SST
  4. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue tube, then finish the SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Underfilling which tube will most likely result in a hemolyzed specimen?
  1. Gold
  2. Gray
  3. Lavender
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-colored tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a light blue top tube. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:
  1. add a little blood from another tube
  2. fill another light blue top tube partly full and mix the two tubes
  3. repeat the procedure with a new light blue top
  4. submit the tube for testing as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Which of these tests is collected in a light blue top tube?
  1. Differential
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Platelet count
  4. Prothrombin time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) What color is the EDTA vacutainer tube?
  1. Gray
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) What color is the top of a plasma separator tube?
  1. Green
  2. Lavender
  3. Light blue
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) EDTA prevents blood clots by binding:
  1. calcium
  2. chloride
  3. plasma
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) What are tan top vacutainer tubes used for?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Lactic acid testing
  3. Lead testing
  4. Therapeutic drug monitoring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) What is the main purpose of tiger top tubes?
  1. Preventing clots
  2. Preventing glycolysis
  3. Separating plasma from blood cells
  4. Separating serum from blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) Venipuncture needles are color-coded according to their:
  1. expiration date
  2. gauge
  3. length
  4. manufacturer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) Which tool is needed to collect blood by syringe?
  1. Multisample needle
  2. Transfer device
  3. Tube holder
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Which of these needles has the largest diameter?
  1. 18-gauge
  2. 19-gauge
  3. 20-gauge
  4. 21-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) 24-gauge needles are used for:
  1. diabetics
  2. infants
  3. obese patients
  4. patients with AIDS
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?
  1. 15-gauge
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 21-gauge
  4. 24-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) If a patient is having blood drawn for a prothrombin time test, you might expect:
  1. the patient to be fasting
  2. the patient to bleed for a long time
  3. to have difficulty filling the tube
  4. to have to mix the tube more
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) Used needles should be discarded in:
  1. a biohazard sharps container
  2. a glass disposal bucket
  3. a glass recycling bin
  4. the regular garbage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) Which of these is needed for a malaria test?
  1. Capillary tube
  2. Clay sealant
  3. Glass slide
  4. Microhematocrit tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) Which anticoagulant is used for red blood cell counts?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium oxalate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. clot activator
  4. serum separating gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRP
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) Which of these specimens would most likely be rejected for testing?
  1. A hemolyzed potassium specimen
  2. A nonfasting glucose specimen
  3. A serum-separator tube that is only half-filled
  4. An icteric bilirubin specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) When preparing blood smears, the spreader slide should be at what angle?
  1. 15 degrees
  2. 30 degrees
  3. 45 degrees
  4. 60 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively from a venipuncture site?
  1. A herbal medicine
  2. An anticoagulant
  3. Birth control pills
  4. Medicine for high cholesterol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) Which specimen is used for coagulation testing?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) Which specimen is needed for the glycosylated hemoglobin test?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true?
  1. The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
  2. The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
  3. The specimen is tested within 24 hours
  4. The test requires an arterial sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) To perform an arterial puncture, you need heparin solution, sterile gauze, betadine wipes, a sterile needle, a syringe and:
  1. a butterfly needle
  2. a tourniquet
  3. alcohol wipes
  4. ice water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) Where is the first choice for an arterial puncture?
  1. The antecubital area of both arms
  2. The brachial artery
  3. The femoral artery
  4. The thumb side of the wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which of these is an acceptable needle gauge for an arterial puncture?
  1. 10
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 28
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) When performing a radial artery puncture, the needle should enter the skin:
  1. at a 20-degree angle, at the exact point where the pulse is felt
  2. at a 20-degree angle,1 cm lateral to where the pulse is felt
  3. at a 45-degree angle, 1 cm distal to where the pulse is felt
  4. at a 45-degree angle, at the exact point where the pulse is felt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) Which of these is a patient identifier?
  1. Date of collection
  2. Patient name
  3. Specimen type
  4. Time of collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
  2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
  3. Continue regardless
  4. Retake both specimens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) Which of these tests is the most likely to require chain-of-custody documentation?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cross-match
  3. Drug screen
  4. TDM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:
  1. one blood sample
  2. one urine sample
  3. two or more blood samples
  4. two or more urine samples
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) A xylose tolerance test is usually performed for:
  1. lipid disorders
  2. liver disorders
  3. malabsorption syndromes
  4. muscular wasting disorders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. The infant may move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) There are two reasons why phlebotomists should wipe away the first drop of blood when performing a capillary puncture. The first reason is to remove traces of alcohol. What is the second reason?
  1. The first drop of blood contains excess tissue fluid
  2. The first drop of blood is high in clotting factors
  3. To increase blood flow to the area
  4. To remove pathogens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.77) Which of these statements about capillary punctures is true?
  1. It is better to clean the skin with iodine than with alcohol
  2. The first drop of blood is the best to use
  3. The puncture must hit bone for it to be deep enough
  4. The puncture should be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.78) Where is the preferred site to obtain capillary blood from adults?
  1. Ear
  2. Fingertip
  3. Heel
  4. Toe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.79) Which of these tests would be collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.80) Which area on a newborn is suitable for skin puncture?
  1. Arm
  2. Finger
  3. Heel
  4. Thigh
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.81) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.82) Extra precautions are necessary when labeling specimens for:
  1. C&S
  2. blood typing
  3. factor assays
  4. therapeutic drug monitoring
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.83) Which test monitors the treatment of colorectal cancer?
  1. Blood urea nitrogen test
  2. Carcinoembryonic antigen test
  3. Circulating tumor cells test
  4. Lactate dehydrogenase test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.84) The glycosylated hemoglobin test is used to diagnose which disease?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hemoglobin C disease
  3. Inflammation
  4. Renal disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.85) Which supplement can cause blood folate levels to appear falsely high when taken in high doses?
  1. Biotin
  2. Cobalamin
  3. Thiamine
  4. Vitamin D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Specimen Collection and Processing

2.1) Which of these fluids is normally clear and colorless?
  1. Cerebrospinal fluid
  2. Lymph fluid
  3. Serum
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) The icterus index is a measure of which color of serum?
  1. Green
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What color is lipemic plasma?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Clear red
  3. Milky
  4. Straw-colored
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) A lab technician is performing a microhematocrit. She collects a blood sample in a microhematocrit tube and inverts the tube carefully to mix the blood with the heparin. What must she do next before putting the tube in the centrifuge?
  1. Add controlled volumes of saline to the tube
  2. Add washed sensitized cells to the tube
  3. Remove gloves and wash hands
  4. Seal one end of the tube with clay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:
  1. SAF fixative
  2. agar
  3. saline
  4. sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) The sweat test diagnoses which disease?
  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Infection
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pneumonia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) The creatinine clearance test:
  1. is a liver function test
  2. requires a blood sample and a 24-hour urine collection
  3. requires the patient to be fasting at the onset of testing
  4. requires timed blood samples to be drawn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Stool
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) An ABG test measures the amount of:
  1. bacteria and yeast in a urine sample
  2. occult blood in a stool sample
  3. oxygen and carbon dioxide in arterial blood
  4. red and white blood cells in venous blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:
  1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
  2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
  3. phosphates and bilirubin
  4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which test can rule out a false positive result for bilirubin on a urine strip?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. Sulfosalicylic acid (SSA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) What does sulfosalicylic acid detect in urine?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Glucose
  3. Protein
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Urine samples for culture should be collected in containers that:
  1. are narrow-mouthed
  2. are sterile
  3. contain an anticoagulant
  4. have been cleaned with disinfectant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:
  1. culture and susceptibility
  2. mononucleosis testing
  3. pregnancy testing
  4. routine urinalysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?
  1. Glucose oxidase
  2. Glucose oxide
  3. Glucose reductase
  4. Hexichloridine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. glucose
  3. occult blood
  4. protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Which urine collection technique collects urine by inserting a sterile needle into the patient's bladder through the abdominal wall?
  1. Biopsy
  2. Necropsy
  3. Suprapubic aspiration
  4. Urinary catheter
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which of these tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Creatinine clearance
  2. Glucose tolerance
  3. HCG detection
  4. Urine cytology
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To facilitate blood sample collection
  2. To prevent excessive bleeding
  3. To prevent scar formation
  4. To reduce pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) When urine is left at room temperature, which of these increases?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Leukocytes
  3. Nitrites
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) Which of these chemicals can preserve 24-hour urines for endocrine testing?
  1. Boric acid
  2. Potassium chloride
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which of these specimens needs to be kept at 35–37°C?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Feces
  3. Throat swab
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Which of these tests should be kept away from the light?
  1. Magnesium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. discarded
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) Which of these specimens is sterile in healthy people?
  1. Blood
  2. Feces
  3. Gastrointestinal tract specimens
  4. Sputum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What color is the urine of patients with jaundice?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Milky
  3. Red
  4. Straw-colored
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Catecholamines
  2. Creatinine clearance
  3. Ketones
  4. Ketosteroids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What color is a positive result on the fecal occult blood test?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
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Section 3: Time Management and Assignment Organization

3.1) Which specimen request has the highest priority?
  1. Fasting
  2. Post-op
  3. Stat
  4. Urgent
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which of these status designations has the same priority as Stat?
  1. Med Emerg
  2. Postop
  3. Preop
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) You have to collect specimens from three patients. The specimens are routine, preop, and fasting. What is the correct order of priority for collecting these specimens?
  1. Fasting, Preop, Routine
  2. Fasting, Routine, Preop
  3. Preop, Fasting, Routine
  4. Routine, Fasting, Preop
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which of these specimens has the lowest priority?
  1. Postop complete blood count
  2. Preop pregnancy test
  3. Routine urinalysis
  4. Timed glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) A priest is with the patient when you arrive to collect a stat specimen. What should you do?
  1. Draw blood from a different patient and then check back
  2. Excuse yourself and ask for permission to draw the specimen
  3. Go back to the lab and draw the specimen on the next sweep
  4. Wait outside the room for a few minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) When should you label a blood collection tube?
  1. As soon as you receive the test order
  2. Just before the patient arrives
  3. Before you collect the specimen
  4. After you collect the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) A doctor orders a 2-hour PC glucose test. What does PC mean?
  1. After a meal
  2. After an operation
  3. Before a meal
  4. Before an operation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the minimum number of blood samples for the one-step glucose tolerance test?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) You are performing a glucose tolerance test that requires a blood sample at baseline and then four blood samples thereafter, at a rate of one sample every 30 minutes. If the patient drinks the glucose at 10:00 am, at what time should you take the final blood sample?
  1. 11:00 am
  2. 10:30 am
  3. 11:30 am
  4. 12:00 pm
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Section 4: Professional Communications

4.1) When drawing blood from a frightened child, you should:
  1. explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
  2. say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
  3. tell the child that the needle won't hurt
  4. tell the child to be brave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) You have to draw blood from a nervous patient. What should you do?
  1. Be friendly and confident
  2. Cancel the requisition and send them home
  3. Tell the patient the needle won't hurt
  4. Tell the patient to calm down
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) If a patient refuses to have blood drawn:
  1. ask the patient for a urine sample instead
  2. notify the patient's nurse or physician
  3. restrain the patient and draw the blood
  4. try to convince the patient to be cooperative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) Which of these is proper phone etiquette?
  1. Introducing yourself upon picking up the phone
  2. Leaving the caller on hold for a long time
  3. Multi-tasking while listening to the caller
  4. Speaking quickly
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
  2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
  3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
  4. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) You think a patient's name is John Smith but you are unsure. Which of these is the best question to confirm the patient's name?
  1. "Are you John Smith?"
  2. "I have to confirm your name. Can you confirm that your name is John Smith?"
  3. "Is your name the same as the name written here on this form?"
  4. "What is your name?"
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Section 5: Clerical Skills and Duties

5.1) When the same piece of data exists in multiple places, this is called:
  1. redundancy
  2. inconsistency
  3. variance
  4. deviation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Which filing system is also known as reverse filing?
  1. Consecutive numeric
  2. Middle digit
  3. Straight
  4. Terminal digit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) A hospital uses a terminal digit filing system. To find record 12-08-35, which number(s) would you use first?
  1. 08
  2. 35
  3. 12
  4. 5
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Section 6: Safety Standards and Procedures

6.1) A patient is extremely anxious about having her blood drawn. She tells you that she is afraid of needles. You do not have much experience drawing blood. What should you do?
  1. Ask an experienced phlebotomist to perform the draw for you
  2. Explain to her that you will use a small needle that barely hurts
  3. Tell her that it's not a big deal and that she shouldn't be afraid
  4. Use an ice pack to numb the site before drawing the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Two patients are in a room and one of the patients has a latex allergy. A phlebotomist needs to collect a specimen from the other patient. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Ask the allergic patient to wear a mask
  2. Do not take anything that contains latex into the room
  3. Proceed as usual
  4. Pull the curtain between beds and proceed as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) A phlebotomist is drawing blood from a young boy. The boy's mother is in the room and she says she doesn't like the sight of blood. She looks pale and says she feels faint. The phlebotomist should:
  1. ignore the mother as the focus should be on the child
  2. offer the mother a chair to sit in
  3. take the child's blood as quickly as possible to get it over with
  4. tell the mother not to worry
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) In venipuncture, why must you wait for the alcohol on the puncture site to dry before inserting the needle into the vein?
  1. To ensure all pathogens are killed
  2. To ensure the needle doesn't slip
  3. To prevent alcohol from entering the patient's bloodstream
  4. To prevent hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) Why must the phlebotomist clean the patient's skin before performing a venipuncture?
  1. To increase blood flow to the area
  2. To make the veins more prominent
  3. To remove microorganisms
  4. To remove oil and sweat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) What can happen if a phlebotomist releases the tourniquet after removing the needle from the arm?
  1. Angina
  2. Bleeding
  3. Cyanosis
  4. Edema
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. The needle may enter above the vein
  3. The needle may go completely through the vein
  4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) What should you do if a patient faints during a venipuncture?
  1. Continue the procedure until all blood is collected
  2. Leave the needle in the vein and call the physician
  3. Remove the needle and attend to the patient
  4. Yell loudly at the patient to keep him conscious
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?
  1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
  2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
  3. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
  4. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) What causes reflux during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Probing with the needle
  3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  4. Using the wrong order of draw
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen?
  1. A needle stick injury
  2. Adulteration of the specimen
  3. Bacterial contamination
  4. Hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) During venipuncture, what is the longest time a tourniquet should remain on the patient's arm?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 3 minutes
  3. 5 minutes
  4. 7 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) A patient is still bleeding from a venipuncture site five minutes after the blood draw. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Apply a pressure bandage to the patient
  2. Give the patient an anti-inflammatory medication
  3. Notify the patient's nurse
  4. Tell the patient it is okay to leave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?
  1. To avoid puncturing a vein
  2. To prevent bacterial contamination
  3. To prevent bone injury
  4. To prevent excessive bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) What is the maximum lancet size for heel punctures on babies?
  1. 1 mm
  2. 2 mm
  3. 3 mm
  4. 4 mm
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Section 7: Legal, Ethical, and Professional Considerations

7.1) What does "primum non nocere" mean?
  1. First, do good
  2. First, do no harm
  3. Follow the patient's requests
  4. The patient always comes first
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) A nurse misidentifies a patient and gives the patient the wrong medication. As a result, the patient is seriously injured. What type of crime has the nurse committed?
  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Misdemeanour
  4. Negligence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) A term that means 'being held responsible' is:
  1. accountability
  2. communication
  3. competence
  4. safety
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Patient personal information:
  1. may be discussed during coffee breaks
  2. may be discussed with family members
  3. may be discussed with other patients
  4. must never be discussed outside the hospital
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) What are the four pillars of medical ethics?
  1. Beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, autonomy
  2. Dignity, privacy, compassion, accountability
  3. Professionalism, consequentialism, trust, responsibility
  4. Professionalism, sensitivity, integrity, confidentiality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) The attributes of good judgment, respecting patients' rights, and not harming anyone intentionally are all examples of:
  1. competency statements
  2. ethical standards
  3. morals
  4. rules
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Beneficence is the duty to:
  1. do good
  2. do no harm
  3. follow the law
  4. fully inform the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) Which pillar of medical ethics is respect for the patient’s right to make decisions about their healthcare?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) What is the justice pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) The duty to "do no harm" is also referred to as:
  1. autonomy
  2. beneficence
  3. justice
  4. non-maleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) Under which ethical principle do phlebotomists have a duty to obtain consent from patients before drawing blood?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) A phlebotomist draws blood for a pregnancy test. After the woman has left the room, a colleague approaches the phlebotomist and asks what test was ordered. He explains he wants to know because he is the woman's ex-boyfriend. The phlebotomist should:
  1. call the police
  2. inform his colleague he has no right to know which test was ordered
  3. lie and tell his colleague the test was a complete blood count
  4. reassure his colleague that he has nothing to worry about
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) What is meant by a chain of custody?
  1. Chains used to restrain a prisoner during a forced medical procedure
  2. The hierarchy of caregivers who have custody of a child
  3. The management hierarchy in a hospital
  4. The process of documenting the handling of evidence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) Which legal doctrine means an employer can be held legally accountable for the negligent acts of an employee?
  1. Non compus mentis
  2. Res ipsa loquitur
  3. Respondeat superior
  4. Subpoena duces tecum
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Section 8: Terminology, Anatomy, and Physiology

8.1) The cavity located in the elbow joint is called the ________ fossa.
  1. antecavital
  2. antecubital
  3. antedoctal
  4. anterectal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Motor neurons are also called __________ neurons.
  1. afferent
  2. association
  3. efferent
  4. nervous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) The absence of pigment in the skin is called:
  1. albinism
  2. dermatitis
  3. melanism
  4. xanthoderma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) The male gonad is more commonly known as the:
  1. penis
  2. scrotum
  3. sperm cell
  4. testis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) What does the prefix peri- mean?
  1. Across
  2. Before
  3. Forward
  4. Surrounding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) Which prefix means "joint"?
  1. Arthro-
  2. Brady-
  3. Nephro-
  4. Osteo-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) What is a CCMSU?
  1. A blood test to diagnose cancer of the red blood cells
  2. A hospital department providing special care to newborns
  3. A method of collecting urine samples
  4. A type of x-ray
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) In the context of laboratories, what does SDS stand for?
  1. Safe delivery standards
  2. Safety data sheet
  3. Same-day surgery
  4. Secure data storage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) In the context of healthcare, what does CBC stand for?
  1. Center for blood care
  2. Center for blood control
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Complete blood culture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) What is phlebitis?
  1. A type of blood cancer
  2. A viral infection that affects lymph nodes
  3. Clotting in an artery
  4. Inflammation of a vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) What is a hematoma?
  1. A cancer of the blood that originates in red blood cells
  2. A cut in the skin
  3. A localized collection of blood outside the blood vessels
  4. A severed artery
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) A high-pitched, wheezing sound caused by disrupted airflow is called:
  1. asthma
  2. diphtheria
  3. epistaxis
  4. stridor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) Which word means difficult or obstructed labor?
  1. Dyspareunia
  2. Dystocia
  3. Eclampsia
  4. Eutocia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) Which operation creates an opening for the large intestine through the abdomen?
  1. Colostomy
  2. Enterostomy
  3. Jejunostomy
  4. Jejunotomy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) Which of these is a type of connective tissue?
  1. Areolar
  2. Cuboidal
  3. Squamous
  4. Transitional
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) The three major groups of plasma proteins are:
  1. albumin, fibrinogen, globulin
  2. albumin, globulin, hemoglobin
  3. fibrin, globulin, albumin
  4. insulin, glucagon, hemoglobin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) Myoglobin is a protein that binds to:
  1. DNA
  2. cancer cells
  3. cholesterol
  4. oxygen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.18) Which of the following initiates the coagulation cascade via the extrinsic pathway?
  1. Factor XII
  2. Prothrombinase
  3. Thrombin
  4. Tissue factor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.19) Cortisol levels are generally highest at what time of day?
  1. 8 am
  2. 12 pm
  3. 4 pm
  4. 8 pm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.20) Which hormone lowers blood glucose levels?
  1. FSH
  2. Glucagon
  3. Insulin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.21) Which tubes connect the kidney and the bladder?
  1. Bile ducts
  2. Eustachian tubes
  3. Ureters
  4. Urethras
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.22) In the kidneys, substances travel from the glomerulus into the Bowman capsule by which process?
  1. Active transport
  2. Diffusion
  3. Filtration
  4. Osmosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.23) What is the motile tail of sperm called?
  1. Dock
  2. Flagellum
  3. Microtubule
  4. Microvillus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.24) What is the final part of the digestive system?
  1. Anus
  2. Duodenum
  3. Ileum
  4. Rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.25) Neurons that transmit nerve impulses toward the central nervous system are called ____________ neurons.
  1. bipolar
  2. intermediary
  3. motor
  4. sensory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.26) Which part of the brain regulates muscle tone and coordination?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobes
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.27) Blood returning from the lungs enters which part of the heart?
  1. Left atrium
  2. Left ventricle
  3. Right atrium
  4. Right ventricle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.28) The dermis is:
  1. above the epidermis
  2. also known as the epithelial layer
  3. the basal layer of the skin
  4. the middle layer of the skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.29) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?
  1. Vitamins A and C
  2. Vitamins B3 and B6
  3. Vitamins B9 and B12
  4. Vitamins C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.30) Which type of anemia is due to excessive red blood cell destruction?
  1. Aplastic anemia
  2. Hemolytic anemia
  3. Iron-deficiency anemia
  4. Pernicious anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.31) What is another name for the innate immune system?
  1. Adaptive
  2. Cellular
  3. Humoral
  4. Nonspecific
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.32) Which two antibodies initiate the classical complement pathway?
  1. IgA and IgD
  2. IgA and IgE
  3. IgD and IgE
  4. IgG and IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.33) What is the word for an inanimate object that can transmit infectious agents from one individual to another?
  1. Bacteria
  2. Fomite
  3. Germ
  4. Parasite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.34) Which plasma protein is the most abundant?
  1. Albumin
  2. Beta globulin
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Gamma globulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.35) Which cells mature in the thymus gland?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hematopoietic stem cells
  3. Natural killer cells
  4. T cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.36) Approximately what percentage of thymocytes survive positive and negative selection?
  1. 15%
  2. 30%
  3. 5%
  4. 50%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.37) Which leukocytes become macrophages?
  1. Basophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Monocytes
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