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AMT MLT Certification Exam: Practice Test 1

Number of questions: 210

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About the AMT MLT exam

The AMT MLT (Medical Laboratory Technician) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you can work in a laboratory as a medical technologist.

The exam contains 210 questions and lasts 3 hours. All questions are multiple-choice.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT MLT exam.

This page contains 210 practice questions divided into the nine sections of the exam: 1. General Laboratory, 2. Chemistry, 3. Hematology, 4. Coagulation and Hemostasis, 5. Immunology and Serology, 6. Immunohematology, 7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services, 8. Microbiology, and 9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Sections

  1. General Laboratory
  2. Chemistry
  3. Hematology
  4. Coagulation and Hemostasis
  5. Immunology and Serology
  6. Immunohematology
  7. Blood Banking and Transfusion Services
  8. Microbiology
  9. Urinalysis and Body Fluids

Section 1: General Laboratory

1.1) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) A data point that differs significantly from other data points is called a(n):
  1. outsider
  2. outlier
  3. nonconformist
  4. radical
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?
  1. Centi-
  2. Kilo-
  3. Micro-
  4. Nano-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) What does the standard deviation tell you?
  1. How many errors are in the data set
  2. How spread out the data is
  3. The average value in the data set
  4. The number the data tends to cluster around
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What information does the mean of a dataset provide?
  1. How spread out the set of data is
  2. The average value in the dataset
  3. The difference between the largest and smallest values
  4. The most common value in the dataset
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) What is 9/20 expressed as a percentage?
  1. 2.22%
  2. 18%
  3. 22%
  4. 45%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) Class D fires involve:
  1. combustible metals
  2. electrical equipment
  3. flammable liquids
  4. paper and wood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) Class B fires occur with:
  1. electrical equipment
  2. flammable liquids
  3. ordinary combustibles
  4. reactive metals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) By which route do toxic chemicals enter the body by direct skin contact?
  1. Absorption
  2. Ingestion
  3. Inhalation
  4. Injection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Universal precautions are based on what assumption?
  1. All laboratory chemicals may be carcinogenic
  2. All specimens are potentially infectious
  3. Equipment is not sterile
  4. Handwashing is the best way to prevent the spread of infection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) What does this pictogram mean?
  1. Corrosive
  2. Flammable
  3. Oxidizer
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) What is the best way to clean glassware containing water-insoluble solutions?
  1. Rinse 2-3 times with ethanol then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  2. Rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  3. Rinse with copious amounts of tap water then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
  4. Wash with hot soapy water, rinse thoroughly with tap water, and then rinse 3-4 times with deionized water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Which microscope is most used in clinical laboratories?
  1. Dark-field
  2. Florescent
  3. Light
  4. Phase-contrast
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What is the total magnification of a microscope if the eyepiece lens is 10x and the objective lens is 20x?
  1. 30x
  2. 200x
  3. 375x
  4. 525x
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) On a microscope, what structure connects the eyepiece to the objective lens?
  1. Base
  2. Nosepiece
  3. Stage
  4. Tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) What part of a microscope focuses light onto the specimen?
  1. Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Objective lens
  4. Ocular lens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which microscope lens has the best ability to resolve fine detail?
  1. 100x dry objective
  2. 100x oil immersion objective
  3. 50x oil immersion objective
  4. 60x objective
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) _______________ must be removed immediately after use of a microscope.
  1. Immersion oil
  2. The eyepiece
  3. The light source
  4. The objective lenses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?
  1. Clean the eyepiece
  2. Clean the objective
  3. Open the iris
  4. Tighten the tension adjustment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Which durable material is used to make heat-resistant glassware?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Polyethylene
  3. Polystyrene
  4. Soda-lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) In quality management, what does PDCA stand for?
  1. Plan-do-check-act
  2. Predict-determine-compare-adjust
  3. Prepare-develop-check-adjust
  4. Propose-design-compare-act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Precise values:
  1. are caused by random errors
  2. are close to the true value
  3. are the same as the true value
  4. fall within a narrow range
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) The coefficient of variation is a measure of:
  1. accuracy
  2. precision
  3. sensitivity
  4. specificity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) Which specimen is needed for the glycosylated hemoglobin test?
  1. Plasma
  2. Serum
  3. Urine
  4. Whole blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) Which of these is a patient identifier?
  1. Date of collection
  2. Patient name
  3. Specimen type
  4. Time of collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Midstream urine samples are most often used for:
  1. culture and susceptibility
  2. mononucleosis testing
  3. pregnancy testing
  4. routine urinalysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Why are capillary puncture sites warmed beforehand?
  1. To delay clotting
  2. To increase blood flow
  3. To minimize contamination
  4. To reduce hemoconcentration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Which of these tests would be collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?
  1. To avoid puncturing a vein
  2. To prevent bacterial contamination
  3. To prevent bone injury
  4. To prevent excessive bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Which media is used to transport and preserve stool specimens?
  1. Blood agar
  2. Cary-Blair media
  3. Lowenstein-Jensen agar
  4. MacConkey agar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) Which of these tests should be kept away from the light?
  1. Magnesium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?
  1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?
  1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
  2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
  3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  4. Privacy Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Which act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?
  1. Health Care Consent Act
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Act
  3. Privacy Act
  4. SAFETY Act
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) Dipstick urinalysis falls under which CLIA category of test complexity?
  1. High complexity
  2. Moderate complexity
  3. Provider performed microscopy
  4. Waived
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) How often does CLIA require laboratories to perform proficiency testing?
  1. Every month
  2. Every two years
  3. Once a year
  4. Twice a year
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Chemistry

2.1) The results of a comprehensive metabolic panel show decreased calcium levels and elevated potassium levels. All other results are normal. What is the most likely cause of the results?
  1. The patient is taking excessive vitamin D supplements
  2. The sample was stored at room temperature
  3. The sample was taken from an arm with an intravenous drip
  4. The tube was contaminated with EDTA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What does GTT stand for?
  1. Genetic test
  2. Glucose tolerance test
  3. Guanine-thymine test
  4. Guaranteed time and temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) Angiotensin II stimulates the release of which hormone?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Aldosterone
  3. Cortisol
  4. T4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) Hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos are all symptoms of which disease?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) Beriberi is a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B1
  3. Vitamin C
  4. Vitamin D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) Which autoimmune disorder results in hypothyroidism?
  1. Celiac disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Multiple sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) Hypergonadotrophic hypogonadism is also called:
  1. delayed puberty
  2. precocious puberty
  3. primary hypogonadism
  4. secondary hypogonadism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Jaundice is caused by a buildup of ___________ in the blood.
  1. bilirubin
  2. hemoglobin
  3. potassium
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) Antidiuretic hormone stimulates the re-absorption of:
  1. glucose
  2. oxygen
  3. potassium
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which gland produces melatonin?
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Pancreas
  3. Pineal
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?
  1. T0
  2. T1
  3. T2
  4. T3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which hormone is also known as epinephrine?
  1. Adrenaline
  2. Cortisol
  3. Testosterone
  4. Vasopressin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which monosaccharide is the main end product of carbohydrate digestion?
  1. Glucose
  2. Lactose
  3. Maltose
  4. Sucrose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which lactate dehydrogenase isoenzyme is found mainly in the lungs?
  1. LDH-1
  2. LDH-2
  3. LDH-3
  4. LDH-4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which organ conjugates bilirubin?
  1. Kidneys
  2. Liver
  3. Pancreas
  4. Spleen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Which organ is the main secretor of B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)?
  1. Heart
  2. Kidneys
  3. Liver
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Deficiencies of which two vitamins cause megaloblastic anemia?
  1. Vitamins A and C
  2. Vitamins B3 and B6
  3. Vitamins B9 and B12
  4. Vitamins C and D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Adipose tissue stores:
  1. fat
  2. mucous
  3. protein
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Fat molecules consist of three fatty acids and a ___________ backbone.
  1. amino acid
  2. glycerol
  3. monosaccharide
  4. polysaccharide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which of these is a lipid?
  1. Cholesterol
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Immunoglobulin A
  4. Insulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) Lipase breaks down:
  1. enzymes
  2. fats
  3. proteins
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) High levels of which lipoprotein are associated with a decreased risk of accelerated atherosclerosis?
  1. Chylomicrons
  2. HDL
  3. LDL
  4. VLDL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) A patient has an A1c of 10.0%. To the nearest mg/dL, calculate an estimate of the patient's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months.
  1. 220 mg/dL
  2. 240 mg/dL
  3. 260 mg/dL
  4. 280 mg/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) How are ethers stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Underwater
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) Bromocresol purple and bromocresol green are dyes used to measure the levels of:
  1. Bence Jones protein
  2. albumin
  3. globulins
  4. immunoproteins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) Which of these test results indicates diabetes?
  1. A random blood glucose test of 88 mg/dL
  2. Blood glucose level of 135 mg/dL two hours into a glucose tolerance test
  3. Fasting blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
  4. Hemoglobin 1Ac level of 4.8%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) The sweat test measures the amount of _________ in sweat.
  1. chloride
  2. copper
  3. lead
  4. phosphatase
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which of these is a normal blood creatinine level for a man?
  1. 1.0 mg/dL
  2. 2.0 mg/dL
  3. 3.0 mg/dL
  4. 4.0 mg/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) Bilirubin is a product of the breakdown of which compound?
  1. Albumin
  2. Heme
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What color is hemoglobin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) A patient's blood gas results are as follows:
Test Result
pH 7.26
PaCO₂ 55 mmHg
These results would be classified as:
  1. metabolic acidosis
  2. metabolic alkalosis
  3. respiratory acidosis
  4. respiratory alkalosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What blood gas results would be expected for a patient with kidney failure?
  1. Metabolic acidosis
  2. Metabolic alkalosis
  3. Respiratory acidosis
  4. Respiratory alkalosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Carcinoembryonic antigen is a protein primarily associated with:
  1. cancer
  2. heart disease
  3. liver failure
  4. pregnancy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) A patient has the following lipid panel results:
Test Result
Total cholesterol 160 mg/dL
LDL 100 mg/dL
VLDL 20 mg/dL
HDL 40 mg/dL
Triglycerides 150 mg/dL
Calculate the cholesterol ratio.
  1. 0.25
  2. 4
  3. 50
  4. 150
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) A blood sample has an elevated result when tested with the Jaffe reaction. This indicates:
  1. arrhythmia
  2. kidney function impairment
  3. pregnancy
  4. prolonged hypothermia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) At what pH are barbital buffers used in the serum protein electrophoresis test?
  1. 5.0
  2. 5.6
  3. 6.5
  4. 8.6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) In total bilirubin assays, bilirubin reacts with diazotized sulfanilic acid to form:
  1. azobilirubin
  2. bilirubin glucuronide
  3. biliverdin
  4. diazobilirubin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) A patient's cholesterol test results are as follows:
Test Result
Triglycerides 230 mg/dL
Cholesterol 280 mg/dL
HDL 55 mg/dL
Calculate the patient's LDL.
  1. 119 mg/dL
  2. 149 mg/dL
  3. 159 mg/dL
  4. 179 mg/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) What is the primary screening test for thyroid dysfunction?
  1. Free T3 test
  2. Free T4 test
  3. TSH test
  4. Total T4 test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Scurvy is caused by a deficiency of which vitamin?
  1. Niacin
  2. Thiamine
  3. Vitamin A
  4. Vitamin C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Hematology

3.1) Which color vacutainer tube is called the erythrocyte sedimentation rate tube?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) White blood cells are also known as:
  1. erythrocytes
  2. leukocytes
  3. osteocytes
  4. thrombocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which of these anemias is hypochromic and microcytic?
  1. Hemolytic
  2. Megaloblastic
  3. Sickle cell
  4. Thalassemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Pernicious anemia can be distinguished from folate deficiency by the:
  1. bone marrow findings
  2. mean cell volume
  3. presence of autoantibodies to intrinsic factor
  4. presence of hypersegmented neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) The Coulter principle is based on the detection of:
  1. changes in cell electrical currents
  2. color absorption changes
  3. diffusion
  4. high-frequency sound waves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What color is lipemic plasma?
  1. Brownish-yellow
  2. Clear red
  3. Milky
  4. Straw-colored
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) For a test requiring whole blood, the blood sample must be collected in a vacutainer containing a(n):
  1. anticoagulant
  2. antiglycolytic agent
  3. clot activator
  4. serum separating gel
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) What is the preferred source of DNA for DNA testing?
  1. Plasma proteins
  2. Platelets
  3. Red blood cells
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which routine hematology test includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determinations?
  1. CBC
  2. CDC
  3. CPK
  4. CRP
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Capillary blood composition most closely resembles:
  1. arterial blood
  2. lymph fluid
  3. tissue fluid
  4. venous blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) A buffy coat forms when:
  1. an SST is left to rest for 24 hours
  2. whole anticoagulated blood is centrifuged
  3. whole blood is left to rest for 24 hours
  4. whole coagulated blood is centrifuged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Hematocrit results will be low for patients with:
  1. an infection
  2. anemia
  3. dehydration
  4. polycythemia vera
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) What is a buffy coat made of?
  1. Granulocytes and fibrin
  2. Red blood cells and granulocytes
  3. Reticulocytes and granulocytes
  4. White blood cells and platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) What is the term for a leukocyte count of 18.4 × 10⁹/L?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukorrhea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What is the term for a red cell count of 3.6 × 10¹²/L in men?
  1. Anemia
  2. Leukocytosis
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Polycythemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:
  1. anemia
  2. erythremia
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) A microscopic analysis of a patient's blood sample reveals neutrophils with six-lobed nuclei. Which illness does this indicate?
  1. Acute myelogenous leukemia
  2. Erythrocytosis
  3. Hemochromatosis
  4. Megaloblastic anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) What test is used to diagnose hereditary spherocytosis?
  1. Heat instability test
  2. Kleihauer-Betke test
  3. Osmotic fragility test
  4. Sucrose hemolysis test
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) In healthy individuals, the hematocrit is roughly equal to three times the:
  1. hemoglobin
  2. mean corpuscular volume
  3. red blood cell count
  4. white blood cell count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which red blood cell index is the average amount of hemoglobin in a single red blood cell?
  1. MCH
  2. MCV
  3. RBC
  4. RDW
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which white blood cell contains granules that stain orange?
  1. Eosinophil
  2. Mature neutrophil
  3. Monocyte
  4. Small lymphocyte
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) Polycythemia makes the blood:
  1. appear blue
  2. more acidic
  3. thicker
  4. thinner
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which of these is a normal pH for a sperm sample?
  1. 5.4
  2. 6.2
  3. 7.6
  4. 8.8
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which of these results indicates anemia in a male patient?
  1. Hematocrit: 36%
  2. MCH: 32 pg
  3. MCV: 90 80 fL
  4. RBC: 5.9 × 10¹²/L
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) Which blood cells protect the body from pathogens and foreign cells?
  1. Erythrocytes
  2. Hemoglobin
  3. Leukocytes
  4. Platelets
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) On a normal blood smear, which blood cell is the most numerous?
  1. Basophil
  2. Eosinophil
  3. Erythrocyte
  4. Platelet
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) The liquid that separates out when blood clots is:
  1. fibrinogen
  2. lymph
  3. plasma
  4. serum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Around ________ of an adult's body weight is blood.
  1. 2%
  2. 8%
  3. 16%
  4. 22%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Formed elements in blood include which of the following?
  1. Electrolytes
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Plasma proteins
  4. White blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Hemoglobin A consists of:
  1. five alpha chains
  2. one alpha chain, one beta chain, and one delta chain
  3. three delta chains
  4. two alpha chains and two beta chains
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Plasma makes up around _____ of the total blood.
  1. 55%
  2. 65%
  3. 75%
  4. 95%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Which plasma protein helps maintain blood volume by pulling tissue fluid into capillaries?
  1. Albumin
  2. Fibrinogen
  3. Gamma globulin
  4. Prothrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) Which white blood cell is the largest?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Monokines are:
  1. neutralized monocytes
  2. produced by monocytes and macrophages
  3. responsible for the production of lymphokines
  4. sensitized macrophages
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which white blood cell is the most numerous on a normal blood slide?
  1. Eosinophils
  2. Lymphocytes
  3. Monocytes
  4. Neutrophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) Which white blood cell contains heparin?
  1. Basophil
  2. Lymphocyte
  3. Monocyte
  4. Neutrophil
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Monocytes can develop into which two cells?
  1. B cells and T cells
  2. Macrophages and dendritic cells
  3. Neutrophils and basophils
  4. Neutrophils and eosinophils
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) In which disease is hemoglobin A2 elevated?
  1. Alpha-thalassemia
  2. Alport Syndrome
  3. Beta-thalassemia
  4. Hemolytic anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Coagulation and Hemostasis

4.1) Which pathway is also known as the contact activation pathway?
  1. Common pathway
  2. Extrinsic pathway
  3. Intrinsic pathway
  4. Tissue factor pathway
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient was taking an anticoagulant medication?
  1. Prothrombin time
  2. Red blood cell count
  3. White blood cell count
  4. Hematocrit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) What is the name for the series of reactions that stop blood flow after a cut?
  1. Erythropoiesis
  2. Hemolysis
  3. Hemostasis
  4. Homeostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) A __________ clot is formed during the process of hemostasis.
  1. fibrin
  2. fibrinogen
  3. prothrombin
  4. thrombin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) Which term means a low platelet level?
  1. Thrombocyte
  2. Thrombocythemia
  3. Thrombocytopenia
  4. Thrombolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) In a platelet aggregation study, a patient's platelets aggregate normally in response to adenosine diphosphate, epinephrine, and collagen. However, the platelets do not aggregate in response to ristocetin, even after normal plasma is added. Which clotting disorder does the patient have?
  1. Bernard-Soulier syndrome
  2. Hereditary factor Xa deficiency
  3. Parahemophilia
  4. Von Willebrand disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) What is the name of the process by which platelets adhere to one another and form a hemostatic plug?
  1. Activation
  2. Aggregation
  3. Attachment
  4. Hemostasis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) The following lab results were obtained:
Test Result
Bleeding time Prolonged
Platelet adhesiveness Abnormal
PT Normal
APTT Normal
CBC Normal
These findings are most consistent with which inherited autosomal dominant trait?
  1. Factor X deficiency
  2. Factor XI deficiency
  3. Hemophilia A
  4. Von Willebrand disease
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) Megakaryocytes produce and release:
  1. agranulocytes
  2. granulocytes
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) Platelets:
  1. are also known as antithrombins
  2. are enzymes
  3. convert prothrombin to thrombin
  4. form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) Red blood cells shaped like teardrops are called:
  1. acanthocytes
  2. dacrocytes
  3. drepanocytes
  4. echinocytes
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Section 5: Immunology and Serology

5.1) Which type of immunity do B cells and antibodies mediate?
  1. Cell-mediated
  2. Humoral
  3. Innate
  4. Passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) Developing B cells always make which antibody first?
  1. IgD
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) Cells in a hypertonic solution will:
  1. hemolyze
  2. not be affected
  3. shrink
  4. swell and burst
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) Killer T cells:
  1. attack virus-invaded cells
  2. sensitize the activity of macrophage
  3. suppress the activity of B cells
  4. terminate the normal immune response
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) What are T cells?
  1. Blood cells that carry oxygen and carbon dioxide around the body
  2. Cells that make up the thyroid
  3. Immune system cells that produce antibodies in response to an infection
  4. Immune system cells that target specific antigens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.6) Which protein do helper T cells have on their surface?
  1. CD4
  2. CD5
  3. CD6
  4. CD7
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.7) Which lymphocyte kills pathogens without prior exposure to the pathogen?
  1. B lymphocytes
  2. Natural killer cells
  3. Neutrophils
  4. T lymphocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.8) A patient has clinical symptoms of Lyme disease. The doctor orders an ELISA test but the results of the test are inconclusive. The doctor orders a second ELISA test and the results are still inconclusive. Which test would the doctor order next?
  1. C-reactive protein (CRP) test
  2. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) test
  3. Rapid antigen test
  4. Western blot
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Section 6: Immunohematology

6.1) Antibody class is determined by the:
  1. constant region of the heavy chain
  2. constant region of the light chain
  3. variable region of the heavy chain
  4. variable region of the light chain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) Which antibody is the most abundant in the body?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Immunology tests are based on the reaction of:
  1. acids and bases
  2. antigens and antibodies
  3. lysing agents and red blood cells
  4. proteins and salicylsalicylic acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) Erythroblastosis fetalis occurs due to:
  1. ABO incompatibility
  2. Rh incompatibility
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) The absence of which antigen makes red blood cells resistant to Plasmodium vivax malaria?
  1. Duffy
  2. Kidd
  3. Lewis
  4. Rhesus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) Which of these situations could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
  1. Rh+ mother, Rh+ fetus
  2. Rh+ mother, Rh− fetus
  3. Rh− mother, Rh+ fetus
  4. Rh− mother, Rh− fetus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) Which genes code the MNS antigens?
  1. Cysteine-rich protein 1 and cysteine-rich protein 2
  2. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B
  3. Lamin A/C and lamin B1
  4. VASH1 and VASH2
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.8) Which of these statements is correct?
  1. People lacking type A antigens on their red blood cells have anti-B antibodies in their blood
  2. People lacking type B antigens on their red blood cells have anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their blood
  3. People with type A antigens on their red blood cells have anti-A antibodies in their blood
  4. People with type B antigens on their red cells have anti-B antibodies in their blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.9) A person's blood group is determined by:
  1. the antibodies circulating in their blood
  2. the antibodies on the surface of their red blood cells
  3. the antigens circulating in their blood
  4. the antigens on the surface of their red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.10) What is the rarest phenotype of the Kidd blood group?
  1. Jk(a+b+)
  2. Jk(a+b-)
  3. Jk(a-b+)
  4. Jk(a-b-)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.11) Which of these situations could be dangerous for a fetus?
  1. Both the father and mother are Rh-positive
  2. The father has blood type A and the mother has blood type B
  3. The father has blood type O and the mother has blood type AB
  4. The father is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.12) A person is Rh-positive if they have which antigen on their red blood cells?
  1. RhC
  2. Rhc
  3. RhD
  4. RhE
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.13) What does "Rhesus positive" mean?
  1. The antibodies in a pregnant woman's blood are destroying her baby's blood cells
  2. The patient has a deficiency of Factor VIII, resulting in hemophilia
  3. The patient has the D antigen on the surface of their red blood cells
  4. The patient has the rhesus antibody in their blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.14) On which chromosome are the RHD and RHCE genes?
  1. Chromosome 1
  2. Chromosome 3
  3. Chromosome 5
  4. Chromosome 7
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.15) A person with B and D antigens on their red blood cells is called:
  1. A negative
  2. A positive
  3. B negative
  4. B positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.16) The ABO system of blood groups is based on the presence of which proteins on red blood cells?
  1. Agglutinins
  2. Antibodies
  3. Antigens
  4. Immunoglobulins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.17) A person with type AB blood has:
  1. A and B antigens
  2. A antigens and anti-B antibodies
  3. B antigens and anti-A antibodies
  4. no antigens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.18) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB–
  2. A–
  3. B+
  4. O–
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.19) If a patient's ABO blood group genotype is BO, then what is the patient's blood type?
  1. A
  2. AB
  3. B
  4. O
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.20) HIV self-tests are what type of test?
  1. Antibody test
  2. Antigen test
  3. Antigen/antibody test
  4. Nucleic acid test (NAT)
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Section 7: Blood Banking and Transfusion Services

7.1) In humans, the major histocompatibility complex is also called the _____ system.
  1. EHP
  2. GOW
  3. HLA
  4. IRH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) Autologous blood is:
  1. a person's own blood
  2. blood from a sibling
  3. blood from a twin
  4. blood from an anonymous donor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) Which vacutainer tube is preferred for blood bank tests?
  1. Black
  2. Gray
  3. Green
  4. Pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) Washed red blood cells are prepared by washing red cells with:
  1. acetic acid
  2. ethanol
  3. normal saline
  4. sodium hydroxide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Which of these people is eligible to donate whole blood?
  1. A 19-year-old taking antibiotics for acne
  2. A man who donated whole blood a month ago
  3. A woman who donated whole blood two weeks ago
  4. Someone who is HIV positive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) When blood is transfused, what is the most important consideration?
  1. Do the donor's red cells contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
  2. Do the patient's red cells contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?
  3. Does the donor's serum contain an antibody against the patient's red cells?
  4. Does the patient's serum contain an antibody against the donor's red cells?
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) Which blood group system is the most important for blood transfusions?
  1. ABO
  2. Lutheran
  3. MNS
  4. P
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) In blood transfusions, what kind of red cells are given to patients who have a severe allergy to standard red cells?
  1. Frozen
  2. Irradiated
  3. Synthetic
  4. Washed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) Which of these types of blood transfusion is rarely given nowadays?
  1. Plasma transfusion
  2. Platelet transfusion
  3. Red blood cell transfusion
  4. White blood cell transfusion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.10) Leukocytes are removed from transfusable blood components by a process called:
  1. leukoextraction
  2. leukorebation
  3. leukoreduction
  4. leukotransference
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.11) A unit of donated blood is roughly equivalent to how many pints?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.12) When donated blood is bright yellow to brown, it is probably due to:
  1. bacterial contamination
  2. high levels of bilirubin
  3. high levels of fat
  4. red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.13) What is the 30-minute rule in blood banking?
  1. After a transfusion, the donor should sit in a quiet room for 30 minutes before going home
  2. Red blood cell units left out of a refrigerator for more than 30 minutes cannot be returned to the refrigerator
  3. The tourniquet should not be left on the patient's arm for more than 30 minutes
  4. Transfusions of red blood cell units should take no longer than 30 minutes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.14) Which of these is a sign of hemolysis in a unit of red blood cells?
  1. Blood clots
  2. Bright cherry red color
  3. Excessive and unusual air bubbles
  4. Increased opacity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.15) Stored blood is automatically disqualified for transfusion if it:
  1. has clots
  2. has white particulate matter
  3. is icteric
  4. is lipemic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.16) Which of these is a symptom of transfusion-associated circulatory overload?
  1. High oxygen levels in the blood
  2. Low blood pressure
  3. Shortness of breath
  4. Slow heart rate
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Section 8: Microbiology

8.1) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) Which of these methods results in sterilization?
  1. Autoclaving
  2. Chemical disinfectants
  3. Freezing
  4. Soap and water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) What term describes microorganisms that do not produce disease?
  1. Apathogens
  2. Aseptic organisms
  3. Nonpathogens
  4. Normal flora
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) Which of these tests can detect heterophile antibodies?
  1. ABO typing
  2. Indirect antiglobulin test
  3. Mononucleosis test
  4. Rh and antibody screen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) A lab technician performs a Triple Sugar Iron test. Both the slant and the butt turn yellow. The technician therefore records the result as A/A. What do the two A's stand for?
  1. Acid/Acid
  2. Alkaline/Acid
  3. Alkaline/Alkaline
  4. All/All
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.6) Which Plasmodium species has a distinctive band-like or sash-like structure in the trophozoite stage?
  1. Falciparum
  2. Malariae
  3. Ovale
  4. Vivax
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.7) What type of organism do phages infect?
  1. Animals
  2. Bacteria
  3. Plants
  4. Viruses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.8) Some bacteria can produce a capsule that is resistant to heat and drying. What is this capsule called?
  1. Cyst
  2. Scab
  3. Spore
  4. Tunic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.9) What is the term for an organism that grows best at high salt concentrations?
  1. Capnophile
  2. Halophile
  3. Osmophile
  4. Xerophile
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.10) Where should agar plates be stored before use?
  1. In a cupboard
  2. In a dry oven
  3. In the freezer
  4. In the fridge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.11) MacConkey agar differentiates bacteria based on their:
  1. ability to ferment lactose
  2. ability to hydrolyze starch
  3. ability to utilize the safranin dye
  4. hemolytic activity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.12) Corynebacterium diphtheria is a:
  1. gram-negative cocci
  2. gram-negative rod
  3. gram-positive cocci
  4. gram-positive rod
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.13) Which substance does the RPR assay detect?
  1. Cardiolipin
  2. Pyruvate
  3. Reagin
  4. Rifamycin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.14) Which bacteria can hydrolyze hippurate, is beta-hemolytic, is a major cause of neonatal meningitis and sepsis, and produces CAMP factor?
  1. Enterococcus faecalis
  2. Streptococcus agalactiae
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae
  4. Streptococcus pyogenes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.15) A man cuts his hand while doing yard work. The wound becomes infected. A Gram stain reveals the wound contains gram-positive cocci and gram-negative bacilli. Which media can be used to selectively isolate each organism?
  1. Columbia-CNA and Chocolate
  2. KV-laked agar and Thayer-Martin
  3. PEA and MacConkey
  4. Sheep blood and Chocolate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.16) Which Streptococcus species causes post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
  1. S. aureus
  2. S. epidermidis
  3. S. pneumonia
  4. S. pyogenes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.17) Which test detects viral RNA?
  1. Blood culture
  2. ELISA
  3. NAT
  4. Western Blot
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 9: Urinalysis and Body Fluids

9.1) Which tubes connect the kidney and the bladder?
  1. Bile ducts
  2. Eustachian tubes
  3. Ureters
  4. Urethras
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.2) What gives urine its yellow color?
  1. Urea
  2. Uric acid
  3. Urobilin
  4. Urobilinogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.3) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.4) Which reagent tablet tests for the presence of glucose in urine?
  1. Acetest
  2. Clinitest
  3. Ictotest
  4. TCA
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.5) A UTI urine dipstick tests for:
  1. nitrates and alanine transaminase
  2. nitrites and leukocyte esterase
  3. phosphates and bilirubin
  4. sugars and hemoglobin A1C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.6) Which chemical does the urine glucose dipstick test use?
  1. Glucose oxidase
  2. Glucose oxide
  3. Glucose reductase
  4. Hexichloridine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.7) What do the letters TCA on a urine drug test stand for?
  1. Target channel adapter
  2. Trichloroacetic acid
  3. Trichloroethane
  4. Tricyclic antidepressant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.8) Amorphous urates:
  1. disappear if the urine is heated
  2. form blue sediment in acidic urine
  3. form white sediment in alkaline urine
  4. have a non-granular appearance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.9) Urine microscopic examination is performed on:
  1. diluted urine
  2. heated urine
  3. refrigerated urine
  4. the sediment suspension of centrifuged urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.10) The urine specific gravity test compares the density of urine to the density of:
  1. air
  2. blood
  3. lymph fluid
  4. water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.11) Which of these is normally present in urine?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Creatinine
  3. Glucose
  4. Protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.12) If a patient's urine is positive for ketones, the patient probably has:
  1. advanced liver disease
  2. heart disease
  3. pernicious anemia
  4. uncontrolled diabetes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.13) A urine sample tested positive for urine protein by a dipstick test but negative by the sulfosalicylic acid method. What is the probable cause of these conflicting results?
  1. The urine contained crystals
  2. The urine contained ketones
  3. The urine was very alkaline
  4. The urine was very turbid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.14) What is the SI unit for reporting the result of urine glucose tests?
  1. mg/L
  2. mg/dL
  3. mmol/L
  4. mmol/dL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.15) Which of these tests does NOT require a 24-hour urine specimen?
  1. Catecholamines
  2. Creatinine clearance
  3. Ketones
  4. Ketosteroids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.16) What is the medical term for an abnormally low urine volume?
  1. Aciduria
  2. Oliguria
  3. Polyuria
  4. Pyuria
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.17) During a macroscopic urinalysis, which of these is assessed?
  1. Acidity
  2. Color
  3. Ketones
  4. Specific gravity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.18) A urine's specific gravity is directly proportional to its:
  1. dissolved solids
  2. salt content
  3. sugar content
  4. turbidity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.19) Urine that smells like ammonia may be a sign the patient has:
  1. a Proteus infection
  2. a yeast infection
  3. diabetes
  4. hepatitis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.20) Which cast typically indicates nephrotic syndrome?
  1. Fatty
  2. Renal tubular epithelial cell
  3. Waxy
  4. White blood cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.21) Adults normally produce around how many liters of urine per day?
  1. 1 to 2
  2. 3 to 4
  3. 5 to 6
  4. 7 to 8
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.22) Tiny, colorless, dumbbell-shaped crystals in a urine sample are most likely:
  1. ammonium biurate
  2. calcium oxalate
  3. hippuric acid
  4. uric acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 9.23) A pH of 8 is:
  1. acidic
  2. alkaline
  3. negative
  4. neutral
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