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AMT RPT Practice Exam 2

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1) Covalent bonds are:
  1. formed between two ions
  2. never used in organic molecules
  3. polar or non polar
  4. usually very unstable
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2) When should a "stat" glucose test be performed?
  1. Immediately
  2. Within 1 hour
  3. 2 hours after the last meal
  4. Within 4 hours
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3) What can happen if an angle of 35 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. The needle may go completely through the vein
  2. The needle may miss the vein completely
  3. The needle will enter above the vein
  4. The sample may be rejected due to hemolysis
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4) Which of these is a sign of a needle puncturing an artery during venipuncture?
  1. Blood spurting into the tube
  2. Breathing difficulties
  3. Dark blue blood
  4. Intense pain
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5) A phlebotomist is performing a venipuncture. The needle is in place but no blood is entering the tube. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do?
  1. Change to pediatric tubes
  2. Discontinue the draw and cancel the requisition
  3. Switch to a winged blood collection set
  4. Try adjusting the needle slightly
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6) Which test result is most affected when collected from a crying infant?
  1. Bilirubin
  2. Cholesterol
  3. Lead level
  4. White blood cell count
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7) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Gray
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. SST
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8) Which anticoagulant is used to collect arterial blood gas specimens?
  1. EDTA
  2. Heparin
  3. Potassium oxalate
  4. Trisodium citrate
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9) Which color vacutainer tube is called the erythrocyte sedimentation rate tube?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
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10) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Dark green
  2. Gold
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
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11) The term "comorbidity" means:
  1. a clinically insignificant condition
  2. a disease present in two or more patients
  3. the death of two patients at the same time
  4. two or more health conditions in the same patient
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12) The due date of a pregnant woman is known as the:
  1. ASP
  2. CVD
  3. EDC
  4. HDN
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13) A blood clot that forms in a vessel and remains there is called:
  1. a hematoma
  2. a thrombus
  3. an embolism
  4. an ischemia
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14) What term means 'without infection'?
  1. Antibiotic
  2. Aseptic
  3. Septic
  4. Stasis
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15) What does the specific gravity of urine measure?
  1. The concentration of particles
  2. The level of nitrates
  3. The pH of urine
  4. The weight of the urine
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16) What does the term "thermolabile" mean?
  1. Changed by heat
  2. Insensitive to heat
  3. Produced by heat
  4. Produces heat
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17) The study of how the body functions is called:
  1. anatomy
  2. histology
  3. microbiology
  4. physiology
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18) Cartilage found between the bones of the spine is called:
  1. articular cartilage
  2. elastic cartilage
  3. fibrocartilage
  4. hyaline cartilage
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19) A resting metabolic state early in the morning after a minimum of twelve hours of fasting is called a ___________ state.
  1. absorptive
  2. basal
  3. postprandial
  4. starvation
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20) What is macrocytosis?
  1. A blood cancer
  2. A high concentration of white blood cells
  3. A platelet deficiency
  4. Abnormally large red blood cells
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21) What is the negative log of hydrogen ion concentration known as?
  1. SG
  2. pH
  3. pKa
  4. the T/S constant
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22) What is the medical term for the bones of the fingers?
  1. Carpals
  2. Patellas
  3. Phalanges
  4. Tarsals
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23) What is the medical term for the shoulder blade?
  1. Clavicle
  2. Patella
  3. Scapula
  4. Sternum
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24) Diffusion of particles through a membrane by means of a carrier molecule is called:
  1. dialysis
  2. facilitated diffusion
  3. osmosis
  4. transpiration
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25) An injection into the tissues between the skin and muscle is called a(n) _________ injection.
  1. intradermal
  2. intramuscular
  3. intravenous
  4. subcutaneous
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26) Adipose tissue is more commonly known as:
  1. bone
  2. cartilage
  3. fat
  4. skin
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27) What does hypertrophy mean?
  1. Excess energy
  2. Increase in cell numbers
  3. Increase in size
  4. Underdeveloped
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28) Which word means "under a fingernail"?
  1. Epidermis
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Subcutaneous
  4. Subungual
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29) What does "modality" mean in the context of healthcare?
  1. A change in genetic material
  2. Damage to normal tissue
  3. The description of the diagnosis
  4. The method of treatment
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30) What term means assisting or aiding?
  1. Adjuvant
  2. Aspiration
  3. Fractionation
  4. Lethal
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31) What is the name of the saclike membrane surrounding the heart?
  1. Bundle of His
  2. Interatrial septum
  3. Pericardium
  4. Ventricle
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32) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?
  1. Diastole
  2. Septum
  3. Systole
  4. Tachycardia
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33) The gap between two neurons is called a(n):
  1. axon
  2. dendrite
  3. synapse
  4. ventricle
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34) What is the medical term for paralysis of the arms and legs?
  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Hemiplegia
  3. Paraplegia
  4. Quadriplegia
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35) What does palpebra mean?
  1. Cornea
  2. Eyelid
  3. Lens of the eye
  4. Tear gland
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36) What is the muscular wave-like movement that transports food through the digestive system?
  1. Emulsification
  2. Mastication
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Regurgitation
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37) Buccal means pertaining to the:
  1. cheek
  2. soft palate
  3. teeth
  4. tongue
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38) Swollen, twisted veins near the testes are called:
  1. herpes genitalis
  2. hydrocele
  3. hypospadias
  4. varicocele
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39) What is the medical term for the foreskin of the penis?
  1. Glans penis
  2. Perineum
  3. Phimosis
  4. Prepuce
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40) Which term means a location towards the front of the body?
  1. Anterior
  2. Distal
  3. Lateral
  4. Posterior
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41) What does the prefix brady- mean?
  1. Different
  2. Hidden
  3. Same
  4. Slow
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42) Enzymes end with which suffix?
  1. -ase
  2. -cyte
  3. -osis
  4. -phage
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43) Which does the prefix adeno- refer to?
  1. Glands
  2. Joints
  3. Kidney
  4. Liver
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44) What does the prefix entero- mean?
  1. Entire
  2. Inside
  3. Intestine
  4. Stomach
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45) What does the prefix epi- mean?
  1. Above
  2. Below
  3. Between
  4. Next to
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46) Which suffix means 'resembling'?
  1. -eal
  2. -lith
  3. -oid
  4. -osis
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47) What does the suffix -emia refer to?
  1. Blood condition
  2. Enlargement
  3. Paralysis
  4. Surgical removal
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48) Which prefix means "false"?
  1. Pneumo-
  2. Poly-
  3. Pseudo-
  4. Trans-
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49) Which prefix means "muscle"?
  1. Masto-
  2. Meso-
  3. Myco-
  4. Myo-
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50) Which suffix means "surgical removal"?
  1. -ectomy
  2. -itis
  3. -lysis
  4. -plasty
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51) What does the prefix gingivo- mean?
  1. Chest
  2. Gums
  3. Intestine
  4. Stomach
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52) Which body part does the prefix stomato- refer to?
  1. Elbow
  2. Knee
  3. Mouth
  4. Stomach
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53) Which suffix means "flow" or "discharge"?
  1. -emesis
  2. -ptysis
  3. -rrhaphy
  4. -rrhea
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54) A patient's test results say "BMI: 27.8". What does BMI stand for?
  1. Biomagnetic image
  2. Body mass index
  3. Bone and muscle integrity
  4. Brain-muscle interface
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55) What does the hospital term ICU stand for?
  1. Image control utility
  2. Intensive care unit
  3. Internal communications
  4. International controlled unit
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56) In clinical chemistry, what does PSA stand for?
  1. Patient safety awareness
  2. Plasma-specific antibody
  3. Platelet-specific antigen
  4. Prostate-specific antigen
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57) ETS stands for ________ ________ system.
  1. electrical tube
  2. evacuated tube
  3. extravascular testing
  4. extravascular tube
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58) In hematology, what does HCT stand for?
  1. Hematocrit
  2. Hemoglobin color testing
  3. High cell total
  4. High cell turbidity
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59) What does the medical abbreviation O&P stand for?
  1. Oncology and pediatrics
  2. Ongoing procedure
  3. Operation and post-operation
  4. Ova and parasites
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60) What is an embolism?
  1. A blockage in a blood vessel
  2. A bruise
  3. An inflamed area of the esophagus
  4. Swelling in a vein
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61) What is the medical term for a heart attack?
  1. Angina
  2. Angina pectoris
  3. Cardiomyopathy
  4. Myocardial infarction
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62) Small red or purple spots caused by a minor hemorrhage are called:
  1. palachiae
  2. parachiae
  3. pasachiae
  4. petechiae
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63) What is a fistula?
  1. A knot of old scar tissue
  2. A vein that has become distended and engorged
  3. An abnormal connection between two parts of the body
  4. An infection of the large intestine
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64) What is hematuria?
  1. A skin rash
  2. Bacteria in the bloodstream
  3. Blood in the urine
  4. Kidney stones
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65) Which term means a low white blood cell count?
  1. Leukocytosis
  2. Leukodystrophy
  3. Leukopenia
  4. Leukoplakia
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66) What is the medical term for excessive fluid accumulation in body tissues?
  1. Edema
  2. Hemoconcentration
  3. Icterus
  4. Syncope
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67) What is otitis?
  1. An abnormal discharge from the nose
  2. An eye infection
  3. Ear inflammation
  4. Inflammation of the sinuses
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68) An abnormal clot that attaches to the site at which it formed and remains there is called:
  1. a platelet plug
  2. a thrombus
  3. an embolism
  4. an embolus
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69) Urticaria is another name for:
  1. hives
  2. malignancy of the basal cells
  3. scales
  4. severe itching
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70) What medical term means "vomiting blood"?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hematopoiesis
  3. Hematuria
  4. Hemorrhage
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71) Cyanosis is when the skin or lips turn which color?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
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72) What is the name of the condition where one of the vertebrae slips out of position?
  1. Kyphosis
  2. Rachitis
  3. Spondylitis
  4. Spondylolisthesis
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73) A malignant tumor of smooth muscle is called:
  1. leiomyoma
  2. leiomyosarcoma
  3. rhabdomyoma
  4. rhabdomyosarcoma
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74) What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in males?
  1. Galactorrhea
  2. Gynecomastia
  3. Homeostasis
  4. Hypogonadism
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75) What is the term for spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hemoptysis
  3. Hemorrhage
  4. Hyperemesis
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76) What is the medical term for an abnormal tingling or prickling sensation?
  1. Analgesia
  2. Anesthesia
  3. Neurasthenia
  4. Paresthesia
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77) What is the medical term for inflammation of a spinal nerve root?
  1. Blepharitis
  2. Encephalitis
  3. Meningitis
  4. Radiculitis
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78) What is tinnitus?
  1. A false sense of motion or spinning
  2. A ringing sound in the ears
  3. A voice disorder
  4. Hearing loss occurring with old age
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79) What is the medical term for difficulty breathing when lying down?
  1. Dysphonia
  2. Dyspnea
  3. Hemothorax
  4. Orthopnea
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80) What is the medical term for low levels of oxygen in the blood?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hemorrhage
  3. Hypoxemia
  4. Paroxysmal
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81) Which lung disease is associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis?
  1. Asthma
  2. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
  3. Cystic fibrosis
  4. Interstitial lung disease
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82) Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?
  1. Euthyroid
  2. Goiter
  3. Hypergonadism
  4. Hypophyseal enlargement
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83) Hyperkalemia means high levels of which chemical element?
  1. Calcium
  2. Mercury
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
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84) What is the term for undescended testicles?
  1. Anorchism
  2. Cryptorchism
  3. Epispadias
  4. Phimosis
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85) What is a necropsy?
  1. A build-up of old blood
  2. A cluster of dead cells
  3. A post-mortem examination
  4. A surgical treatment
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86) What is an electroencephalogram?
  1. A record of electricity in the brain
  2. A record of electricity in the heart
  3. A record of sound waves in the brain
  4. An x-ray of the brain
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87) Fulguration is a procedure that uses __________ to destroy abnormal tissue.
  1. drugs
  2. electricity
  3. radiation
  4. soundwaves
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88) What is an in vivo test?
  1. Experiments are performed in a laboratory
  2. Experiments are performed in a living organism
  3. Radionuclide is incorporated into a chemical substance
  4. Radiopharmaceuticals are used
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89) A myelogram is an x-ray of:
  1. bone marrow
  2. lymphatic vessels
  3. muscles
  4. the spinal cord
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90) Which type of scan combines a series of X-ray images taken from different angles around the body and uses computer processing to create cross-sectional images?
  1. CT scan
  2. Lymphangiogram
  3. MRI
  4. Ultrasonography
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91) What is the medical term for the removal of the voice box?
  1. Esophagectomy
  2. Larnygectomy
  3. Laryngectomy
  4. Pharnygectomy
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92) What is the term for an incision of the perineum?
  1. Colpotomy
  2. Episiotomy
  3. Laparotomy
  4. Perineoplasty
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93) What is normal flora?
  1. A contagious disease passed from physician to patient
  2. A disease that affects the skin
  3. Fungi that will only grow on MacConkey agar
  4. Harmless microorganisms that live on the body
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94) What is the basic structural and functional unit of the human body?
  1. Cell
  2. Organ
  3. System
  4. Tissue
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95) Loose connective tissue is also called ____________ tissue.
  1. areolar
  2. cuboidal
  3. squamous
  4. transitional
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96) What is the major cation found in extracellular fluid?
  1. Magnesium
  2. Potassium
  3. Sodium
  4. Zinc
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97) Which pathway is also known as the contact activation pathway?
  1. Common pathway
  2. Extrinsic pathway
  3. Intrinsic pathway
  4. Tissue factor pathway
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98) Angiotensin-converting enzyme converts angiotensin I to:
  1. aldosterone
  2. angiotensin II
  3. angiotensin III
  4. renin
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99) Oxygen and nutrients pass from the blood to the tissues via the:
  1. arteries
  2. arterioles
  3. capillaries
  4. lymphatic vessels
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100) Around 60% of the human adult body is:
  1. blood
  2. bone
  3. muscle
  4. water
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101) Which of these is a primary lymphoid organ?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymph node
  3. Peyer's patch
  4. Spleen
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102) Which autoantibody is against the Fc portion of IgG?
  1. Anti-La
  2. Anti-Ro
  3. Anti-nuclear antibody
  4. Rheumatoid factor
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103) The transfer of a person's own tissue to another part of the body is called a:
  1. allograft
  2. autograft
  3. syngeneic graft
  4. xenograft
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104) The transfer of tissue between identical twins is called a:
  1. allograft
  2. autograft
  3. syngeneic graft
  4. xenograft
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105) Hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos are all symptoms of which disease?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
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106) What disorder causes breathing to stop during sleep?
  1. Amnesia
  2. Insomnia
  3. Narcolepsy
  4. Sleep apnea
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107) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin C
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108) Grade 1 tumors grow ________ and have cells that look _________.
  1. quickly, abnormal
  2. quickly, normal
  3. slowly, abnormal
  4. slowly, normal
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109) Which of these diseases is most likely to cause tremors?
  1. Alzheimer's
  2. Arthritis
  3. Diabetes
  4. Parkinson's
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110) Degenerative diseases are:
  1. acute
  2. chronic
  3. latent
  4. short
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111) Which subpopulation is most likely to develop rheumatoid arthritis?
  1. African Americans
  2. Asians
  3. Men
  4. Women
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112) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is most common in:
  1. baby boys
  2. baby girls
  3. men
  4. women
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113) In which part of the body does T cell maturation occur?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Lymph node
  3. Spleen
  4. Thymus
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114) Which of these vaccines would most likely evoke the best and most long-lasting protective immune response?
  1. Attenuated
  2. DNA
  3. Extract
  4. Killed
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115) Which immunoglobulin appears first in the primary immune response?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
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116) Occipital, sphenoid, frontal, temporal, and ethmoid are all bones of the:
  1. cranium
  2. face
  3. pelvis
  4. spine
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117) Which is the triangular muscle of the shoulder?
  1. Bicep
  2. Deltoid
  3. Long abductor
  4. Tricep
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118) Which fibrous connective tissue connects muscle to bone?
  1. Cartilage
  2. Ligament
  3. Muscle fiber
  4. Tendon
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119) During exercise, blood flow within a muscle is increased by:
  1. homogenization
  2. hyalinization
  3. precipitation
  4. vasodilatation
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120) When a muscle contracts, it:
  1. lengthens and pulls a bone
  2. lengthens and pushes a bone
  3. shortens and pulls a bone
  4. shortens and pushes a bone
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121) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Stomach
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122) Which hormone promotes sodium retention?
  1. Aldosterone
  2. Angiotensin II
  3. Anti-diuretic hormone
  4. Renin
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123) What color is bilirubin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
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124) What is the glomerulus?
  1. A collecting chamber in the kidney
  2. A tube in the bladder
  3. A tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
  4. Small balls of capillaries in the kidney
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125) The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum and:
  1. cecum
  2. colon
  3. ileum
  4. rectum
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126) Bright red blood in stools is usually caused by bleeding in the:
  1. higher intestinal tract
  2. lower gastrointestinal tract
  3. small intestine
  4. stomach
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127) What is the first part of the large intestine?
  1. Cecum
  2. Colon
  3. Duodenum
  4. Jejunum
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128) The impulse in a neuron moves from the ____________ to the ____________.
  1. Schwann cell, myelin
  2. axon, dendrite
  3. cell body, myelin
  4. dendrite, axon
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129) The parasympathetic nervous system:
  1. decreases the metabolic rate
  2. is also known as the enteric nervous system
  3. is part of the somatic nervous system
  4. is under voluntary control
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130) The central nervous system includes the:
  1. brain and spinal cord
  2. heart
  3. somatic nerves
  4. spinal nerves
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131) The somatic nervous system has which other name?
  1. Parasympathetic
  2. Peripheral
  3. Sympathetic
  4. Voluntary
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132) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?
  1. Arteries
  2. Capillaries
  3. Lymph vessels
  4. Veins
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133) Which is the largest artery in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Iliac artery
  3. Pulmonary artery
  4. Superior vena cava
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134) Which skin structure helps prevent water loss and inhibits bacterial growth on the surface of the skin?
  1. Arrector pili
  2. Hair follicles
  3. Oil glands
  4. Sweat glands
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135) Which of these cells synthesizes cartilage?
  1. Chondroblasts
  2. Chondrocytes
  3. Osteoblasts
  4. Osteocytes
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136) During which stage of mitosis do the centrioles move to the opposite poles of the cell?
  1. Anaphase
  2. Metaphase
  3. Prophase
  4. Telophase
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137) What is the largest cell in the body?
  1. Liver cell
  2. Ovum
  3. Sperm
  4. White blood cell
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138) Cell membranes are composed primarily of:
  1. peptidoglycan in prokaryotes
  2. phospholipd and polysaccharides
  3. protein and phospholipids
  4. protein and polysaccharides
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139) Which organ system does the kidney belong to?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Urinary
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140) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Respiratory
  4. Skeletal
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141) Which enzyme unwinds DNA?
  1. Helicase
  2. Hexonuclease
  3. Primase
  4. Topoisomerase
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142) Which enzyme joins fragments of DNA together?
  1. DNase
  2. Hexonuclease
  3. Ligase
  4. Primase
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143) How many kinds of stop codons are there in the genetic code?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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144) DNA nucleotides consist of:
  1. a carbon base, deoxyribose, and carboxyl
  2. a carbon base, ribose, and phosphate
  3. a nitrogen base, deoxyribose, and phosphate
  4. a nitrogen base, ribose, and carboxyl
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145) How many nucleotides are in a codon?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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146) In which thyroid disorder are both TSH and T4 elevated?
  1. Primary hyperthyroidism
  2. Primary hypothyroidism
  3. Secondary hyperthyroidism
  4. Secondary hypothyroidism
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147) Jaundice is the medical term for:
  1. inflammation
  2. liver disease
  3. skin disease
  4. yellow skin
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148) What is the medical term for an exaggerated feeling of well-being?
  1. Autism
  2. Euphoria
  3. Labile
  4. Paranoia
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149) What is the term for the part of an antibody that recognizes an antigen?
  1. Antitope
  2. Epitope
  3. Paratope
  4. Syntope
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150) Which term means the total binding strength between an antibody with an antigen?
  1. Affinity
  2. Agility
  3. Apogamy
  4. Avidity
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151) Antibodies bind to which part of the antigen?
  1. Effector region
  2. Epitope
  3. Hinge
  4. Variable region
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152) Type I hypersensitivity can be blocked using:
  1. a myeloma protein of mixed antibody class
  2. an IgA myeloma
  3. histamine
  4. sodium cromoglycate
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153) Vaccination is what type of immunity?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
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154) Skin is which type of immunity?
  1. Acquired
  2. Active
  3. Auto
  4. Innate
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155) What type of immunity occurs when a person is injected with someone else's antibodies?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
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156) Which response to vaccination happens first?
  1. Anamnestic response
  2. Autoimmune response
  3. Innate immune response
  4. Memory response
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157) Fat molecules consist of three fatty acids and a ___________ backbone.
  1. amino acid
  2. glycerol
  3. monosaccharide
  4. polysaccharide
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158) Lipase breaks down:
  1. enzymes
  2. fats
  3. proteins
  4. red blood cells
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159) How many fatty acids does a triglyceride molecule have?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
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160) Which antibody is abnormal in Waldenström macroglobulinemia?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
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161) What is the main antibody in mucus?
  1. lgA
  2. lgD
  3. lgE
  4. lgG
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162) What is the main antibody in blood?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
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163) Which antibody causes allergies?
  1. IgA
  2. IgD
  3. IgE
  4. IgG
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164) Which antibody primarily protects body surfaces lined with mucous membranes, such as the eyes and intestines?
  1. IgA
  2. IgE
  3. IgG
  4. IgM
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165) A toxic chemical that affects the body by being absorbed into the blood is called a blood:
  1. agent
  2. antagonist
  3. attacker
  4. panel
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166) Which is the department for a fecal occult blood (FOB) test?
  1. Chemistry
  2. Cytology
  3. Hematology
  4. Microbiology
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167) Which parasite is passed in the feces as a noninfective rhabditiform larva?
  1. Dipylidium caninum
  2. Hymenolepis nana
  3. Schistosoma mansoni
  4. Strongyloides stercoralis
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168) Which virus is the most common cause of congenital infections?
  1. Cytomegalovirus
  2. Measles
  3. Rubella
  4. Smallpox
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169) Which of the following clinical signs is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?
  1. Abnormal aggregation with ADP
  2. Increased platelet count
  3. Large platelets
  4. Shortened bleeding time
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170) What does the word "macroscopic" mean?
  1. Can only be seen with a microscope
  2. Large enough to be seen with the naked eye
  3. Relatively large compared to most bacteria
  4. Too small to be seen with the naked eye
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171) What is the chemical formula for carbon dioxide?
  1. CO2
  2. CO²
  3. CO₂
  4. C₂O
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172) Which vein is located on the thumb side of the arm?
  1. Cephalic
  2. External iliac
  3. Femoral
  4. Posterior tibial
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173) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?
  1. Fish
  2. Popcorn
  3. Red meat
  4. Whole wheat bread
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174) PKU tests are performed routinely on:
  1. HIV patients
  2. cancer patients
  3. new employees
  4. newborn infants
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175) A patient begins a routine glucose tolerance test. After 30 minutes, the patient's blood sugar is 374 mg/dL. What should you do?
  1. Do nothing and continue with the test
  2. Make a note and continue with the test
  3. Start the test again
  4. Tell the attending nurse immediately
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176) Which of these actions is NOT performed when performing quality control of a glucometer?
  1. Apply a drop of blood to the test strip
  2. Check the test strips are in date
  3. Compare the result displayed by the glucometer with the expected value
  4. Insert a test strip into the glucometer
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177) The two most common types of white blood cells are:
  1. monocytes and eosinophils
  2. monocytes and lymphocytes
  3. neutrophils and basophils
  4. neutrophils and lymphocytes
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178) Serum and plasma both contain:
  1. clotting factors
  2. plasma proteins
  3. platelets
  4. red blood cells
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179) Plasma is obtained by centrifuging:
  1. a red top tube
  2. a tube containing an anticoagulant
  3. an SST tube
  4. clotted blood
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180) What causes colloid osmotic pressure in blood?
  1. Proteins in the blood
  2. Proteins in the interstitial fluid
  3. Sodium and chloride ions in the blood
  4. The water component of the blood
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181) What is the most efficient organ for the removal of old red blood cells?
  1. Bone marrow
  2. Liver
  3. Spleen
  4. Thymus
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182) Red blood cells are also known as:
  1. eosinophils
  2. erythrocytes
  3. monocytes
  4. thrombocytes
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183) What is the medical term for red blood cell production?
  1. Erythroconception
  2. Erythronascency
  3. Erythropoiesis
  4. Erythroteritus
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184) Which of these is a macrophage?
  1. Basophil
  2. Kupffer cell
  3. Megakaryocyte
  4. T cell
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185) Lysosomes contain:
  1. DNA
  2. chromosomes
  3. digestive enzymes
  4. hemoglobin
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186) What type of white blood cells are natural killer cells?
  1. Basophils
  2. Eosinophils
  3. Lymphocytes
  4. Monocytes
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187) Which of these cells is a granulocyte?
  1. Dendritic cell
  2. Macrophage
  3. Natural killer cell
  4. Neutrophil
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188) Granzyme produced by cytotoxic T cells:
  1. activates apoptosis via Fas
  2. cleaves and activates pro-apoptotic caspases
  3. cleaves antigens into peptide fragments
  4. is involved in innate immunity
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189) Which cell makes immunoglobins?
  1. Basophil
  2. Mast cell
  3. Plasma cell
  4. Red blood cell
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190) Platelets:
  1. are also known as antithrombins
  2. are enzymes
  3. convert prothrombin to thrombin
  4. form a plug in the hole of damaged blood vessels
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191) What color is hemoglobin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
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192) The transfer of tissue between genetically different individuals of the same species is called a:
  1. allograft
  2. autograft
  3. syngeneic graft
  4. xenograft
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193) Which of these has the maximum transplantation success rate?
  1. Allograft
  2. Autograft
  3. Syngeneic graft
  4. Xenograft
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194) Herceptin is used as adjuvant therapy for:
  1. all types of breast cancer
  2. certain types of breast cancer
  3. lymphoma
  4. prostate cancer
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195) What is normal body temperature?
  1. 21°C
  2. 32°C
  3. 37°C
  4. 100°C
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196) Which enzyme would NOT be increased in a patient with acute myocardial infarction?
  1. Acid phosphatase
  2. Aspartate aminotransferase
  3. Creatine kinase
  4. Troponin T
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197) Vitamin K:
  1. converts prothrombin to thrombin
  2. destroys fibrin which allows a clot to dissolve gradually
  3. is essential for the liver's production of prothrombin
  4. is water soluble
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198) Which element plays a key role in protein and nucleic acid synthesis?
  1. Copper
  2. Manganese
  3. Selenium
  4. Zinc
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199) A patient with a highly contagious lung infection would be hospitalized in:
  1. enteric isolation
  2. respiratory isolation
  3. reverse isolation
  4. wound and skin precautions isolation
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200) A patient receiving chemotherapy would be hospitalized in:
  1. enteric isolation
  2. respiratory isolation
  3. reverse isolation
  4. strict isolation
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