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MT(AAB) Basic Knowledge practice questions

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1) If 0.5 mL of a sample is added to 10 mL of diluent, what is the dilution factor?
  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 20
  4. 21
 2) A lab technician makes a solution by mixing 500 mL of water with 4.5 g of salt. What is the salt concentration of the solution?
  1. 0.9 g/L
  2. 8 g/L
  3. 8.9 g/L
  4. 9 g/L
 3) A dilution factor of 1/10 means what part specimen and what part diluent?
  1. 1 part specimen, 9 parts diluent
  2. 1 part specimen, 10 parts diluent
  3. 1 part specimen, 10.5 parts diluent
  4. 1 part specimen, 11 parts diluent
 4) How much concentrate and water are needed to make 500 mL of buffer made from 2 parts concentrate and 6 parts water?
  1. 125 mL of concentrate and 375 mL of water
  2. 150 mL of concentrate and 350 mL of water
  3. 175 mL of concentrate and 325 mL of water
  4. 200 mL of concentrate and 300 mL of water
 5) How many grams of sodium chloride are needed to make 200 mL of a 5% m/v sodium chloride solution?
  1. 5 g
  2. 10 g
  3. 15 g
  4. 20 g
 6) A solution is made by mixing 100 mL of hydrochloric acid with 100 mL of water. What is the %v/v concentration of hydrochloric acid in this solution?
  1. 1%
  2. 10%
  3. 25%
  4. 50%
 7) A lab technician is preparing a serial dilution with eight tubes. The first tube contains a 1/2 dilution. If the dilution factor doubles with each transfer, what would be the dilution in the eighth tube?
  1. 1/128
  2. 1/256
  3. 1/512
  4. 1/1024
 8) What is a molar solution?
  1. 1 gram of solute in 1 mL of solution
  2. 1 gram of solute in 1 mole of solution
  3. 1 mL of solute in 1 mole of solution
  4. 1 mole of solute in 1 liter of solution
 9) A dilution ratio of 1:12 means what part specimen and what part diluent?
  1. 1 part specimen, 12 parts diluent
  2. 1 part specimen, 13 parts diluent
  3. 11 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
  4. 12 parts specimen, 1 part diluent
 10) What volume of solute is required to prepare 950 mL of an acetic acid solution made from 7 parts solute and 10 parts solvent?
  1. 58 mL
  2. 101 mL
  3. 391 mL
  4. 559 mL
 11) A lab technician has a liter of 85% alcohol. How much water must the technician add to the alcohol to dilute it to 70%?
  1. 214 mL
  2. 528 mL
  3. 1,214 mL
  4. 1,528 mL
 12) A lab assistant has a 100x stock solution. From this solution, the assistant wants to make 500 mL of a 5x solution. How much of the 100x stock solution does the assistant need?
  1. 5 mL
  2. 10 mL
  3. 25 mL
  4. 50 mL
 13) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/v solution?
  1. (solute mass / solution mass) × 100
  2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
  3. (solution volume / solute mass) × 100
  4. (solution volume / solute volume) × 100
 14) What is the formula for calculating a percent w/w solution?
  1. (solute mass / solution mass ) × 100
  2. (solute mass / solution volume) × 100
  3. (solution mass / solute mass) × 100
  4. (solution mass / solute volume) × 100
 15) Which of these expresses solution concentration for a solid solute dissolved in a liquid solvent?
  1. %(m/m)
  2. %(m/v)
  3. %(v/m)
  4. %(v/v)
 16) Which of these is the responsibility of a laboratory assistant?
  1. Giving results to patients
  2. Performing tests that require judgment
  3. Preparing chemical solutions
  4. Supervising other workers
 17) Which of the following should be included in an employee's personnel file?
  1. Information about the employee's family members
  2. Most recent vacation destination
  3. Performance reviews
  4. Web addresses of the employee's social media profiles
 18) Which prefix means 10⁻⁶?
  1. Centi-
  2. Kilo-
  3. Micro-
  4. Nano-
 19) What does the prefix kilo- mean?
  1. 10
  2. 100
  3. 1,000
  4. 10,000
 20) What does the prefix nano- mean?
  1. 1 hundredth
  2. 1 thousandth
  3. 1 millionth
  4. 1 billionth
 21) What does the symbol μ represent in measurements?
  1. 10⁹
  2. 10⁻³
  3. 10⁻⁶
  4. 10⁻⁹
 22) What are cubic decimeters more commonly known as?
  1. Grams
  2. Liters
  3. Meters cubed
  4. Moles
 23) Which prefix means 0.001?
  1. Micro-
  2. Centi-
  3. Pico-
  4. Milli-
 24) What is 0.05 mL in microliters?
  1. 0.0005 μL
  2. 0.005 μL
  3. 5 μL
  4. 50 μL
 25) What is the following graph shape?
  1. Normal distribution
  2. Polynomial function
  3. Quadratic chart
  4. Reciprocal graph
 26) For data distributed normally, how many values are within one standard deviation from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
 27) In a normal distribution, what percentage of cases are above the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 75%
  4. 100%
 28) The following data were calculated on a series of 100 determinations of a control.
Mean 5.8
Median 6.0
Mode 5.7
Range 1.5–20.2
Standard deviation 0.25
If confidence limits are set at ±2 standard deviations, what are the allowable limits for the control?
  1. 5.30–6.30
  2. 5.35–6.25
  3. 5.50–5.90
  4. 5.60–5.90
 29) For data distributed normally, how many values are within two standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 50%
  2. 68%
  3. 83%
  4. 95%
 30) If a data set has a mean of 7.2 and a standard deviation of 1.2, what range of values falls within two standard deviations of the mean?
  1. 4.8–9.6
  2. 6.0–8.4
  3. 7.2–9.6
  4. 8.6–10.2
 31) For data distributed normally, how many values are within three standard deviations from the mean?
  1. 68%
  2. 83%
  3. 95%
  4. 99.7%
 32) Which acceptable range do laboratories typically use for quality control results?
  1. One standard deviation from the mean
  2. Two standard deviations from the mean
  3. The middle 68% of the results
  4. The outer 5% of the results
 33) If a control has a mean of 5 and a standard deviation of 1, what range should encompass 95% of the observed values?
  1. 1–9
  2. 2–8
  3. 3–7
  4. 4–6
 34) Which formula calculates the coefficient of variation?
  1. Coefficient of variation = mean / standard deviation
  2. Coefficient of variation = standard deviation / mean
  3. Coefficient of variation = standard deviation / variance
  4. Coefficient of variation = variance / mean
 35) Automated white blood cell counts are performed on 29 blood samples. The mean value is 8.0 cells/nL, and the standard deviation is 1.2 cells/nL. What is the coefficient of variation?
  1. 15%
  2. 30%
  3. 45%
  4. 60%
 36) If the mean is 20 and two standard deviations is 8, what is the coefficient of variation?
  1. 0.2%
  2. 4%
  3. 20%
  4. 40%
 37) Ten patients have the following bilirubin results: 3.1, 3.2, 3.8, 4.1, 4.7, 5.1, 5.9, 6.0, 6.2, 6.9. Calculate the mean of these results.
  1. 4.5
  2. 4.7
  3. 4.9
  4. 5.1
 38) What is the term for the middle value in a sorted data set?
  1. Average
  2. Coefficient of variation
  3. Mean
  4. Median
 39) What is the term for the value that appears most often in a set of data values?
  1. Average
  2. Coefficient of variation
  3. Mean
  4. Mode
 40) Which of these actions reduces the risk of repetitive strain injury?
  1. Repeating the same movement many times
  2. Resting your arms on a hard surface
  3. Sitting in the same position for a long period of time
  4. Taking frequent breaks
 41) What is the name of the process of assessing the severity and likelihood of workplace hazards?
  1. Health needs evaluation
  2. Myers-Briggs type indicator
  3. Risk assessment
  4. Workplace danger evaluation
 42) What does the mnemonic PASS help to remember?
  1. The key safety principles of working in a laboratory
  2. The steps for first aid
  3. The steps to operate a fire extinguisher
  4. The warning signs of a stroke
 43) What is the term for a document that identifies hazards and the ways to minimize their impact?
  1. Accident and incident recording form
  2. First aid assessment form
  3. Inspection report
  4. Risk management policy
 44) Which federal agency regulates the disposal of hazardous waste produced by laboratories?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
 45) Which act regulates hazardous waste disposal?
  1. Clean Water Act (CWA)
  2. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)
  3. Pollution Prevention Act (PPA)
  4. Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)
 46) Which of these is an example of regulated waste?
  1. Empty medicine bottles
  2. Patient gowns
  3. Sterile dressings
  4. Used blood tubes
 47) Where should used needles be discarded?
  1. Biohazard sharps container
  2. Glass disposal bucket
  3. Glass recycling bin
  4. Regular garbage
 48) What is an upper flammability limit?
  1. The amount of fuel that will burn before the fuel burns itself out
  2. The highest concentration of a vapor that can catch fire
  3. The highest temperature at which a liquid can be stored safely
  4. The highest temperature that a chemical can reach when ignited
 49) In 2015, OSHA adopted the Globally Harmonized System (GHS) for classifying and labeling of chemicals. This resulted in flammable liquids being redefined as liquids with a flashpoint lower than:
  1. 37.8°C
  2. 67.3°C
  3. 93°C
  4. 100°C
 50) Refer to the image below. Which of these fires can this fire extinguisher extinguish?
  1. Electrical equipment
  2. Methanol
  3. Oil bath
  4. Cardboard boxes
 51) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol. This fire extinguisher:
  1. can be used on fires involving flammable liquids or gases
  2. requires annual top-ups of type B fuel
  3. should be stored in a separate room from flammable chemicals
  4. uses kerosene to extinguish fires
 52) What are the three components of the fire triangle?
  1. Oxygen, heat, and fuel
  2. Oxygen, ignition, and fuel
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Escape
  4. Rescue, Alarm, Extinguish
 53) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?
  1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
  2. Recover, Act, Control, Escape/Evacuate
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
  4. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Escape/Extinguish
 54) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can extinguish electrical fires
  2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
  3. carries a risk of electric shock
  4. requires charging before use
 55) Which of these chemicals is flammable?
  1. Acetone
  2. Carbon tetrachloride
  3. Chloroform
  4. Saline
 56) What is this fire extinguisher called?
  1. ABC
  2. AFFF foam
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Class F
 57) At low concentrations, what does hydrogen sulfide smell like?
  1. Burnt sugar
  2. Rotten eggs
  3. Rotting meat
  4. Strong cheese
 58) When mixing acid and water:
  1. add the acid quickly to the water
  2. add the acid slowly to the water
  3. add the water quickly to the acid
  4. add the water slowly to the acid
 59) Where should you handle chemicals that produce harmful vapors?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Biological safety cabinet
  3. Fume hood
  4. Sealed room
 60) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?
  1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  2. Flush the burn with water
  3. Go to the emergency department
  4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate
 61) What is the minimum amount of time the eyes should be flushed with water in the event of a chemical splash?
  1. 1 minute
  2. 5 minutes
  3. 10 minutes
  4. 15 minutes
 62) A lab technologist has spilled concentrated hydrochloric acid onto his clothing and skin, affecting a large portion of his body. After he has removed his clothing, what is the next thing he should do?
  1. Apply a burn ointment to his skin
  2. Pour baking soda onto his skin
  3. Seek emergency medical assistance
  4. Use the emergency safety shower
 63) Which type of hazard do universal precautions apply to?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
 64) Which biosafety level does a nonpathogenic strain of E. coli require?
  1. BSL-1
  2. BSL-2
  3. BSL-3
  4. BSL-4
 65) Which of these is an OPIM (other potentially infectious material)?
  1. Saliva
  2. Semen
  3. Urine
  4. Vomit
 66) The responsibility for identifying employees at risk of exposure to blood or OPIM lies with the:
  1. employer
  2. government
  3. patient
  4. union
 67) What is the pictogram for gases under pressure?
  1. A flame
  2. A flame over a circle
  3. A gas cylinder
  4. An exploding test tube
 68) Which of these is found on safety data sheets?
  1. Expiry date
  2. Health hazards
  3. Price
  4. Production date
 69) How many sections are in a standard GHS safety data sheet?
  1. 8
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
 70) Where should bulk quantities of acetone be kept?
  1. Biological safety cabinet
  2. Flammable storage cabinet
  3. Freezer
  4. Refrigerator
 71) How are ethers stored?
  1. In airtight bottles
  2. In the light
  3. In the refrigerator
  4. Underwater
 72) What is the correct place to store a stock solution of ethanol?
  1. Flammable safety cabinet
  2. Freezer
  3. Fume hood
  4. Refrigerator
 73) Under OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, which of the following information is mandatory on hazardous chemical labels?
  1. Environmental pictogram
  2. Expiration date
  3. Personal protective equipment (PPE) pictogram
  4. Phone number of the manufacturer or importer
 74) If a chemical has a hazard that warrants a “Danger” signal word and another hazard that warrants the “Warning” signal word, then what signal word should appear on the label?
  1. "Fatal"
  2. Both "Warning" and "Danger"
  3. Only the “Danger” signal word
  4. Only the “Warning” signal word
 75) A lab assistant has spilled acetone on the floor. What should be his first action?
  1. Clean up the spill
  2. Move everyone to fresh air
  3. Tell the lab assistant to wash his eyes
  4. Turn off any flames
 76) Which of these substances would be the best solution to clean up a large blood spill?
  1. 1:10 dilution of bleach
  2. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  3. Antibacterial soap and water
  4. Povidone-iodine
 77) Which concentration of bleach is used to decontaminate benchtops?
  1. 10%
  2. 20%
  3. 30%
  4. 50%
 78) How does cold sterilization sterilize medical instruments?
  1. With chemicals
  2. With cold air
  3. With ice
  4. With liquid nitrogen
 79) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?
  1. Make a note in the incident logbook
  2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
  3. Put on PPE
  4. Soak up the spill with paper towels
 80) Which of these dilutions is the most effective disinfectant?
  1. 10% ethyl alcohol
  2. 40% ethyl alcohol
  3. 70% ethyl alcohol
  4. 90% ethyl alcohol
 81) Which disinfectant inactivates prions?
  1. Alcohol
  2. Formaldehyde
  3. Formalin
  4. Sodium hydroxide
 82) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when used to clean urine spills?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
 83) Which chemical is best for neutralizing weak acid spills?
  1. Acetic acid
  2. Boric acid
  3. Sodium bicarbonate
  4. Sodium hydroxide
 84) Mercury spills are most dangerous when the spill occurs:
  1. in a fume hood
  2. in a poorly ventilated area
  3. near sources of ignition
  4. near the flammable storage cabinet
 85) Which of these is used for cleaning radioactive spills?
  1. Bleach
  2. Lead sheet
  3. Paper towels
  4. Soda ash
 86) What pressure and temperature do autoclaves use?
  1. 12 psi at 115°C
  2. 12 psi at 120°C
  3. 15 psi at 112°C
  4. 15 psi at 121°C
 87) Which type of glass is autoclavable?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Float
  3. Lead
  4. Soda-lime
 88) Which process kills all microorganisms, including spores?
  1. Cleaning
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sanitization
  4. Sterilization
 89) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. Sterilization may not be complete
  4. The oven may get damaged
 90) Which of these is a Standard Precaution?
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Keeping chemical containers closed
  4. Radiation shielding
 91) What is the meaning of a 4 in the yellow quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond?
  1. The substance is highly radioactive
  2. The substance is extremely contagious
  3. The substance readily burns at normal temperatures
  4. The substance readily explodes
 92) Which color on the NFPA hazard diamond signals the degree of hazards to health?
  1. Blue
  2. Green
  3. White
  4. Yellow
 93) What is the meaning of a 1 in the red quadrant on the NFPA hazard diamond?
  1. The substance does not burn
  2. The substance only ignites after considerable preheating
  3. The substance ignites if moderately heated
  4. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures
 94) On the NFPA hazard diamond below, what do the letters SA mean?
  1. Can shock or cause acid damage
  2. Safety assessed
  3. Simple asphyxiant
  4. Substance abuse
 95) What does a number 2 in the blue quadrant of an NFPA hazard diamond indicate?
  1. Continued exposure to the substance could cause temporary incapacitation or injury
  2. The substance can be ignited at normal temperatures
  3. The substance is unreactive with water
  4. The substance reacts with water in an unusual or dangerous way
 96) In the NFPA hazard diamond, which quadrant is for special hazards?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
 97) What is the universal solvent?
  1. 0.85% sodium chloride
  2. 10% ethanol
  3. 8.5% sodium chloride
  4. Water
 98) Which of these describes preventive maintenance?
  1. Fixing things before they break
  2. Identifying unexpected failures
  3. Repairing equipment after it fails
  4. Turning off machines when they are not in use
 99) Which of these chemical grades has the highest purity?
  1. Commercial
  2. Laboratory
  3. Reagent
  4. Technical
 100) A reagent requires 1.26 grams of sodium carbonate. The lab technician should measure it with a:
  1. analytical balance
  2. desiccator
  3. pH meter
  4. single pan balance
 101) What is the function of a buffer?
  1. To accentuate changes in pH
  2. To make a solution more acidic
  3. To make a solution more basic
  4. To minimize changes in pH
 102) Triple-beam balances give readings in what unit of measurement?
  1. Grams
  2. Kilograms
  3. Liters
  4. Milliliters
 103) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?
  1. pH 1
  2. pH 4
  3. pH 7
  4. pH 10
 104) What substance is used to calibrate refractometers?
  1. Distilled water
  2. Healthy urine
  3. Hydrochloric acid
  4. Sheep blood
 105) Which water purification method involves boiling water into steam, and then letting the steam cool?
  1. Deionization
  2. Distillation
  3. Filtration
  4. Reverse osmosis
 106) How is relative centrifugal force (RCF) converted from revolutions per minute (RPM)?
  1. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁵ × r²
  2. RCF = RPM × 1.144 × 10⁻⁵ × r²
  3. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁵ × r
  4. RCF = RPM² × 1.118 × 10⁻⁵ × r
 107) What is the term for water that does not contain charged particles?
  1. Chlorinated water
  2. De-ionized water
  3. Distilled water
  4. Flat water
 108) What is the term for a solution in which no more solvent can be dissolved?
  1. Concentrated
  2. Diluted
  3. Saturated
  4. Soluted
 109) Which microscope is used most in clinical laboratories?
  1. Dark-field
  2. Florescent
  3. Light
  4. Phase-contrast
 110) Which part of a microscope adjusts the light intensity?
  1. Iris diaphragm
  2. Numerical aperture
  3. Ocular lens
  4. Stage clip
 111) Which objective lenses do microscopes usually have?
  1. 10x, 40x, and 100x
  2. 10x, 50x, and 100x
  3. 20x, 40x, and 80x
  4. 20x, 50x, and 80x
 112) Which microscope is best for examining an unstained, wet preparation of cells before dehydration?
  1. Brightfield
  2. Electron
  3. Fluorescence
  4. Phase contrast
 113) Which part of a microscope focuses light onto the specimen?
  1. Condenser
  2. Diaphragm
  3. Objective lens
  4. Ocular lens
 114) Which microscope magnification is used to distinguish between different bacteria and see their internal structure?
  1. 10x
  2. 100x
  3. 400x
  4. 1000x
 115) You notice dirt in the field of view while using a microscope. The dirt moves when you rotate the eyepiece. What action should you take?
  1. Clean the eyepiece
  2. Clean the objective
  3. Open the iris
  4. Tighten the tension adjustment
 116) A pipette gives a reading of 4.9 mL, but the true value of the volume of liquid inside the pipette is 5.0 mL. What is the percent error?
  1. 2%
  2. 4%
  3. 6%
  4. 8%
 117) Pipettes marked TC are:
  1. allowed to drain freely
  2. marked with a double ring at the mouthpiece
  3. rinsed out after delivery
  4. used for toxic, corrosive liquids
 118) Which of these glasswares is designed to deliver specific volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Volumetric flask
  4. Volumetric pipette
 119) Which pipette is the most accurate?
  1. Bulb
  2. Graduated
  3. Pasteur
  4. Volumetric
 120) What does "10 mL TD 25 SEC" on a pipette mean?
  1. The pipette can be filled with 10 mL in 25 seconds
  2. The pipette can deliver 10 mL in its primary tube and 25 mL in its secondary tube
  3. The pipette will deliver 10 mL when left to drain for 25 seconds
  4. You should wait 25 seconds between filling and dispensing the pipette
 121) A to-deliver pipettor has an accuracy of +/- 0.8% and a precision of +/- 0.15%. When using the pipette to deliver a volume of 100 µL, what range would you expect the volume of liquid to fall within?
  1. 99.05–100.95 µL
  2. 99.2–100.8 µL
  3. 99.55–100.45 µL
  4. 99.85–100.15 µL
 122) What do the double rings mean on this pipette?
  1. The last drop must be blown out
  2. The pipette can hold 2 mL
  3. The pipette will deliver the measured amount of liquid only at 20°C
  4. The volume is measured at this point
 123) Which pipette has a bulged-out portion in the middle?
  1. Mohr
  2. Pasture
  3. Serological
  4. Volumetric
 124) At which level should a volumetric pipette be viewed for an accurate reading?
  1. At an angle
  2. At eye level
  3. Just above eye level
  4. Just below eye level
 125) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Graduated pipette
 126) Which type of pipette is used to measure and dispense various volumes using calibration marks (graduations) along the entire length of the tube?
  1. Disposable
  2. Pasteur
  3. Serological
  4. Volumetric
 127) How often should biological safety cabinets be tested?
  1. Once a year
  2. Every 2 years
  3. Every 3 years
  4. Every 4 years
 128) What type of filter in biological safety cabinets removes airborne particles such as bacteria and viruses?
  1. Electrostatic
  2. Fiberglass
  3. HEPA
  4. UV light
 129) Which centrifuge is used to spin capillary tubes?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytospin
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refrigerated
 130) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytocentrifuge
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refrigerated
 131) What should you do before turning on a centrifuge?
  1. Ensure the centrifuge is balanced
  2. Open the cover
  3. Place the centrifuge on a slanted surface
  4. Uncover all liquid specimen tubes
 132) Which device measures the RPM of a centrifuge?
  1. Ohmmeter
  2. Rheostat
  3. Tachometer
  4. Voltmeter
 133) What is the most common cause of excessive centrifuge vibration?
  1. Electrical interference
  2. Unbalanced tubes
  3. Uneven bench surfaces
  4. Variable voltage
 134) What does it mean if a lab value is critical?
  1. The patient has a life-threatening condition
  2. The test is malfunctioning and needs to be calibrated
  3. The value is needed to calculate other lab results
  4. The value must be reported to the doctor within 24 hours
 135) Which of these situations would cause random errors?
  1. A lab assistant who reads the volume of liquids in flasks at a different angle every time
  2. A plastic tape measure that has become slightly stretched over the years
  3. A scale that has been incorrectly calibrated and always gives a value 10 g lighter than the real weight
  4. A thermometer that always reads 2 degrees too high
 136) What is the term for when readings become consistently lower or higher over time?
  1. Calibration
  2. Drift
  3. Offset error
  4. Unpredictability
 137) While counting the number of colonies on an agar plate, a lab technician accidentally counts the same colony twice. What type of error is this?
  1. Environmental
  2. Instrumental
  3. Observational
  4. Theoretical
 138) Which of these is a pre-analytical error?
  1. Calculating test results incorrectly
  2. Interpreting results incorrectly
  3. Mislabeling a blood specimen
  4. Reporting a result on the wrong patient
 139) Which of these is an example of a zero error?
  1. A blood sample missing a label
  2. A lab technician forgetting a zero when performing a calculation
  3. A thermometer registering 102°C in boiling water instead of 100°C
  4. Scales that give a reading of 1.1 g when nothing is placed on them
 140) Which of these is a post-analytical error?
  1. A hemolyzed specimen
  2. An empty collection tube
  3. Incorrect information on the test request
  4. Results reported in the wrong units
 141) Random errors mainly affect:
  1. accuracy
  2. external validity
  3. internal validity
  4. precision
 142) Which of these best meets the definition of proficiency testing?
  1. Inspections to prevent work-related accidents
  2. Testing for illegal drugs in a biological sample
  3. Tests to ensure workers have the skills and knowledge to perform their jobs
  4. The testing of unknown samples sent to the laboratory
 143) What is the term for the process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument?
  1. Calibration
  2. Estimation
  3. Graduation
  4. Mensuration
 144) Which of the following is an example of a quality assurance indicator?
  1. C-reactive protein test
  2. Keep thorough records of exposure incidents
  3. Laboratory staff must work under a fume hood when dealing with toxic chemicals
  4. Laboratory turnaround time
 145) Where would you find the instructions for running quality controls for a specific assay?
  1. Laboratory quality manual
  2. Safety data sheet
  3. Safety manual
  4. Standard operating procedure
 146) What kind of chart is a graphical presentation of run-to-run or day-to-day quality control values?
  1. Eadie-Hofstee
  2. Hanes-Woolf
  3. Levey-Jennings
  4. Lineweaver-Burk
 147) What is the purpose of proficiency testing?
  1. To comply with environmental regulations
  2. To evaluate a laboratory's testing accuracy
  3. To monitor the rate of equipment malfunctions
  4. To track the inventory levels of laboratory reagents
 148) Which federal agency provides calibration services for thermometers?
  1. American Association for Clinical Chemistry (AACC)
  2. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
  3. Department of Energy (DOE)
  4. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
 149) The monitoring of laboratory processes to ensure the accuracy of test results is an aspect of:
  1. corporate compliance
  2. critical thinking
  3. quality assurance
  4. risk management
 150) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
 151) If the same thing is measured many times and the measurements are always the same, this means the measurements are:
  1. accurate
  2. reliable
  3. valid
  4. variable
 152) When is data considered reliable?
  1. When the instruments provide precise measurements
  2. When it is close to the true value
  3. When it is statistically significant
  4. When repeated measurements yield similar results
 153) Precise values:
  1. are caused by random errors
  2. are close to the true value
  3. are the same as the true value
  4. fall within a narrow range
 154) What is the formula for calculating diagnostic sensitivity?
  1. False negatives / (false negatives + true positives)
  2. False positives / (false positives + true negatives)
  3. True negatives / (true negatives + false positives)
  4. True positives / (true positives + false negatives)
 155) The quality control chart of an instrument shows ten consecutive data points on one side of the mean. What should you do?
  1. Accept the run
  2. Reject the run and follow the method's troubleshooting procedures
  3. Repeat the control sera on the next run
  4. Report the results with a disclaimer that they may be erroneous
 156) In a control run, five consecutive measurements fall on the same side of the mean. What should the lab technician do?
  1. Accept the control run
  2. Accept the control run, but make a note of the incident in the log file
  3. Reject the control run and take corrective action
  4. Rerun the control run
 157) In a run of twenty control samples, a single control value falls two standard deviations outside of the mean. The other control readings are within the normal range and no source of error can be identified. What is the most appropriate action to take?
  1. Inform relevant clinicians that past results may be incorrect
  2. Prepare a new reagent
  3. Replace the equipment
  4. Report patient results
 158) Which of these best defines 'turnaround time'?
  1. The duration of a blood cell count
  2. The time required for sample preparation
  3. The time taken for instrument maintenance
  4. The time taken to deliver results to a physician
 159) Solid crystals of potassium oxalate are added to distilled water in a container. Which term describes the potassium oxalate?
  1. Reagent
  2. Solute
  3. Solution
  4. Solvent
 160) What is a delta check?
  1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to those from an outside facility
  2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
  3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
  4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers
 161) Which of these actions would increase a laboratory's efficiency?
  1. Finding ways to increase the time it takes to perform key tasks
  2. Storing frequently used equipment in easy-to-reach places
  3. Using an inconsistent labeling system
  4. Using paper files instead of digital files
 162) What is the term for a solution that contains less solute than the maximum amount of solute that can be dissolved?
  1. Diluted
  2. Saturated
  3. Supersaturated
  4. Unsaturated
 163) A hypertonic solution:
  1. causes cells to grow
  2. contains a higher concentration of solutes than another solution
  3. contains a lower concentration of solutes than another solution
  4. contains the same concentration of solutes as another solution
 164) Which of these actions is a crime of battery?
  1. Disclosing a patient's health information without consent
  2. Holding down a patient to draw their blood against their will
  3. Refusing to draw blood from a patient who arrives late to the appointment
  4. Spreading malicious rumours about a colleague
 165) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?
  1. Daily
  2. Weekly
  3. Monthly
  4. Every three months
 166) A courier delivers a chain of custody sample to a technician at a laboratory. Who needs to sign and date the chain of custody form?
  1. Only the courier
  2. Only the laboratory technician
  3. The courier and the laboratory technician
  4. The laboratory manager and the laboratory technician
 167) Which of the following is NOT required on a chain of custody form?
  1. The name of the patient's doctor
  2. The name of the person who collected the specimen
  3. The time the specimen was collected
  4. The type of specimen collected
 168) You receive a specimen that should come with a chain of custody form. However, the form is missing. What should you do?
  1. Ask for a new specimen to be collected
  2. Fill out a new chain of custody form yourself
  3. Perform the test anyway
  4. Use the chain of custody form for a specimen of a different patient
 169) Which of these tests requires chain of custody documentation?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Fetal fibronectin
  3. Free light chains test
  4. Legal paternity test
 170) According to OSHA, which vaccine must be offered to employees at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
  1. HAV
  2. HBV
  3. HIV
  4. MMR
 171) What is the most effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Elimination
  3. Engineering controls
  4. Substitution
 172) Which danger must employers inform workers about under OSHA’s Hazard Communication Standard?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. General safety hazards
  4. Miscommunication
 173) Which GHS pictogram is optional?
  1. Environment
  2. Exclamation mark
  3. Flame over circle
  4. Gas cylinder
 174) In OSHA, a(n) __________ person is defined as "one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has the authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them."
  1. authorized
  2. capable
  3. competent
  4. qualified
 175) What type of hazard are OSHA action levels for?
  1. Ergonomic hazards
  2. Hazardous substances
  3. Psychosocial hazards
  4. Slips, trips, and falls
 176) What is the least effective type of hazard control in the ISO 45001 Hierarchy of Controls?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Engineering controls
  3. Personal protective equipment
  4. Substitution
 177) What is an exempt employee?
  1. An employee who does not have to pay income taxes
  2. An employee who is exempt from overtime rules
  3. An employee working on a temporary or seasonal basis
  4. An employee working remotely
 178) Title I, Employment, is part of which civil rights law prohibiting discrimination?
  1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
  2. Civil Rights Act
  3. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 179) Which federal law, passed in 1972, amended Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to address employment discrimination against African Americans and other minorities?
  1. Employment Non-Discrimination Act (ENDA)
  2. Equal Employment Opportunity Act (EEOA)
  3. Equal Pay Act
  4. Rehabilitation Act
 180) Which act regulates whether employees are exempt or nonexempt?
  1. Civil Rights Acts
  2. Equal Pay Act (EPA)
  3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
 181) How many weeks of unpaid leave does the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) allow employees within a 12-month period without jeopardizing their job?
  1. 12 weeks
  2. 20 weeks
  3. 24 weeks
  4. 36 weeks
 182) A physician fails to inform the patient of all the risks and benefits of a procedure. What could the physician be charged with?
  1. Assault
  2. Battery
  3. Fraud
  4. Negligence
 183) What federal agency regulates the manufacturing of prescription medications?
  1. American Dental Association (ADA)
  2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 184) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
  1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)
 185) Which federal agency regulates the transport of hazardous materials?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Department Of Transportation (DOT)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
 186) Which federal agency is responsible for ensuring clinical laboratories uphold and enforce CLIA standards?
  1. Center for Global Health (CGH)
  2. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
  3. Health Resources and Services Administration (HRSA)
  4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)
 187) Who enforces HIPAA?
  1. The Attorney General
  2. The Department of Health and Human Services
  3. The Surgeon General
  4. The US Senate
 188) Which federal agency regulates in vitro diagnostic tests?
  1. Federal Laboratory Consortium (FLC)
  2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 189) Which federal agency investigates complaints of job discrimination?
  1. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
  2. Fair Labor Association (FLA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 190) Which federal agency sets the standards and guidelines for Hospital, Medical, and Infectious Waste Incinerators (HMIWI)?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 191) Which federal agency requires employers to provide safety training to their employees?
  1. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  3. United States Department of the Interior (USDI)
  4. United States Office of Personnel Management (USOPM)
 192) Which federal agency enforces workplace safety laws?
  1. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  2. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  4. Office of Public Health Science (OPHS)
 193) Which federal agency approves the use of new clinical laboratory tests?
  1. American Clinical Laboratory Association (ACLA)
  2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 194) Which federal agency requires employers to provide workers with PPE?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)
  3. National Institutes of Health (NIH)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 195) What federal agency categorizes clinical laboratory tests by their complexity?
  1. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  2. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  3. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 196) What federal agency approves disinfectants for use in laboratories?
  1. American Medical Association (AMA)
  2. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA)
  3. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
 197) Which federal agency enforces federal employment discrimination laws, such as the Civil Rights Act and the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?
  1. Employee Benefits Security Administration (EBSA)
  2. Employment and Training Administration (ETA)
  3. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
 198) Which federal agency regulates laboratory testing performed on humans?
  1. American Medical Association (AMA)
  2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
  4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
 199) Which law sets the federal minimum wage?
  1. Civil Rights Act
  2. Equal Pay Act
  3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
 200) Which federal law prohibits employment discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender, and national origin?
  1. Americans with Disabilities Act
  2. Civil Rights Act
  3. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  4. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
 201) Which law requires laboratories to document the competency of their personnel?
  1. Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)
  2. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  3. National Labor Relations Act (NLRA)
  4. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
 202) Which federal law requires health care providers to provide a sign language interpreter for deaf patients?
  1. Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
  2. Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
  3. Health Care Right of Conscience Act (HCRCA)
  4. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
 203) Which act outlines the lawful use and disclosure of protected health information?
  1. Digital Accountability and Transparency Act (DATA)
  2. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA)
  3. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  4. Privacy Act
 204) Which act gives workers the right to know about hazards in the workplace?
  1. Health Care Consent Act (HCCA)
  2. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  3. Privacy Act
  4. SAFETY Act
 205) Which law requires safeguards when sending health information by email?
  1. CAN-SPAM Act
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Privacy Act
 206) Which OSHA standard was amended by the Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act?
  1. Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
  2. Confined Space Entry Standard
  3. Hazardous Communication Standard
  4. Personal Protective Equipment Standard
 207) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?
  1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FECA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)
 208) Under the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) standards, which safety sign indicates a potential hazard that may result in minor or moderate injury?
  1. Caution
  2. Danger
  3. Notice
  4. Warning
 209) The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals has two signal words for hazardous chemicals: "Danger" and:
  1. Attention
  2. Caution
  3. Notice
  4. Warning
 210) How often does CLIA require routine inspections of non-waived laboratories?
  1. Every three months
  2. Every six months
  3. Every year
  4. Every two years
 211) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the day-to-day supervision of the laboratory operation and the testing personnel?
  1. General supervisor
  2. Laboratory director
  3. Technical supervisor
  4. Testing personnel
 212) Most tests performed in clinical laboratories are:
  1. waived
  2. moderately complex
  3. highly complex
  4. microbiology culture tests
 213) How often does CLIA require calibration verification of test systems?
  1. Every three months
  2. Every six months
  3. Every year
  4. Every two years
 214) When are laboratories exempt from proficiency testing?
  1. When they are CLIA certified
  2. When they have a Certificate of Compliance
  3. When they have six or fewer employees
  4. When they only perform waived tests
 215) Under CLIA regulations, which of these is a high-complexity test?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolyte profile
  3. Microscopic analysis of urine
  4. Peripheral smear
 216) According to CLIA, who is responsible for specimen processing, test performance, and reporting test results?
  1. Laboratory director
  2. Technical consultant
  3. Technical supervisor
  4. Testing personnel
 217) Which CLIA certificate allows laboratories to conduct moderate or high complexity tests before the laboratory is inspected and a final certificate is issued?
  1. Accreditation
  2. Compliance
  3. Registration
  4. Waiver
 218) What is the term for confirming that an instrument continues to give accurate results after calibration?
  1. Proficiency testing
  2. Quality control
  3. Standardization
  4. Verification
 219) Under CLIA regulations, how many categories of lab test complexity are there?
  1. 3
  2. 5
  3. 6
  4. 8
 220) What does a Certificate of Waiver allow a facility to do?
  1. Conduct tests without patient consent
  2. Perform simple, low-risk laboratory tests
  3. Store controlled substances without a DEA license
  4. Use RoHS-exempt equipment
 221) According to CLIA, who is responsible for ensuring the adequacy of the procedure used for verifying performance specifications in a laboratory?
  1. Laboratory technician
  2. Medical equipment repairer
  3. Technical consultant
  4. Test system manufacturer
 222) CLIA refers to moderate and high complexity tests collectively as _____________ tests.
  1. cleared
  2. licensed
  3. nonwaived
  4. point-of-care
 223) Which of these is a CLIA waived test?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Immunoassay
  3. Peripheral smear
  4. Urine hCG test
 224) According to CLIA, who is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the laboratory?
  1. Clinical consultant
  2. Laboratory director
  3. Technical consultant
  4. Technical supervisor
 225) When should laboratories use alternative proficiency assessment?
  1. For highly complex tests
  2. For tests that have critical values
  3. When a traditional proficiency test is not available
  4. When the laboratory is not yet CLIA-certified
 226) According to CLIA, how many areas of competency must be included in a laboratory competency assessment program?
  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9
 227) Which CLIA category of test complexity does dipstick urinalysis fall under?
  1. High complexity
  2. Moderate complexity
  3. Provider performed microscopy
  4. Waived
 228) How often does CLIA require laboratories to perform proficiency testing?
  1. Every month
  2. Every two years
  3. Once a year
  4. Twice a year
 229) A patient has the following lipid panel results.
Test Result
Total cholesterol 160 mg/dL
LDL 100 mg/dL
VLDL 20 mg/dL
HDL 40 mg/dL
Triglycerides 150 mg/dL
Calculate the cholesterol ratio.
  1. 0.25
  2. 4
  3. 50
  4. 150
 230) A patient's cholesterol results are as follows.
Test Result
Triglycerides 200 mg/dL
Cholesterol 300 mg/dL
HDL 70 mg/dL
From these results, calculate the patient's LDL.
  1. 190 mg/dL
  2. 200 mg/dL
  3. 210 mg/dL
  4. 220 mg/dL
 231) Which of these chemistry results fails the CLIA quality requirements for proficiency testing?
  1. Blood gas pH: 1 above the target value
  2. Sodium: 2 mmol/L below the target value
  3. Total calcium: 0.5 mg/dL below the target value
  4. Total cholesterol: 4% above the target value
 232) Beer's Law states that absorbance =
  1. concentration × (molar attenuation coefficient / path length)
  2. concentration × (path length / molar attenuation coefficient)
  3. molar attenuation coefficient × (concentration / path length)
  4. molar attenuation coefficient × concentration × path length
 233) A patient's serum protein results are as follows.
Test Result
Total protein 6.6 g/dL
Albumin 3.3 g/dL
Alpha₁ 0.2 g/dL
Alpha₂ 0.7 g/dL
Beta 1.1 g/dL
Gamma 1.3 g/dL
Calculate the patient's A/G ratio.
  1. 0.9
  2. 1.0
  3. 1.1
  4. 1.2
 234) What is the solubility equilibrium formula?
  1. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵃ × [B⁻]ᵇ
  2. Kₛₚ = [A⁺]ᵇ × [B⁻]ᵃ
  3. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵃ × [B⁺]ᵇ
  4. Kₛₚ = [A⁻]ᵇ × [B⁺]ᵃ
 235) What is mixed with a weak acid or a weak base to create a buffer?
  1. A salt solution
  2. A strong acid or strong base
  3. Acetic acid
  4. The conjugate salt
 236) How many times more acidic is pH 5 than pH 6?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 100
 237) Which term describes a substance that minimizes changes in pH?
  1. Anhydride
  2. Buffer
  3. Compound
  4. Solvent
 238) What is the term for a solution with a pH value of less than 7?
  1. Acidic
  2. Alkaline
  3. Basic
  4. Neutral
 239) Which ion does pH measure?
  1. Carbon
  2. Hydrogen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Oxygen
 240) Which pH is neutral?
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 7

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