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AMT RMA Practice Exam 1

Number of questions: 300

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About the AMT RMA exam

The AMT RMA (Registered Medical Assistant) certification exam is set by the American Medical Technologists (AMT). Passing the exam proves to employers that you have the knowledge to work as a medical assistant.

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the AMT RMA exam.

This page contains 300 practice questions divided into the four sections of the exam: 1. Anatomy and Physiology, 2. Administrative Medical Assisting, 3. Clinical Procedural Tasks, and 4. Clinical Patient Interaction.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, and Practice Test 2.

Sections

  1. Anatomy and Physiology
  2. Administrative Medical Assisting
  3. Clinical Procedural Tasks
  4. Clinical Patient Interaction

Section 1: Anatomy and Physiology

1.1) Which vein is the median cubital in the image below?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) Which type of health record is maintained by the patient?
  1. EHR
  2. EMR
  3. EPR
  4. PHR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) Which term means "before meals"?
  1. Antenatal
  2. Postpartum
  3. Postprandial
  4. Preprandial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) The absence of pigment in the skin is called:
  1. albinism
  2. dermatitis
  3. melanism
  4. xanthoderma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) Which word means "under a fingernail"?
  1. Epidermis
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Subcutaneous
  4. Subungual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) What type of bone is light and porous?
  1. Cancellous
  2. Compact
  3. Cortical
  4. Subchondral
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) The gap between two neurons is called a(n):
  1. axon
  2. dendrite
  3. synapse
  4. ventricle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) What is the medical term for paralysis of the arms and legs?
  1. Hemiparesis
  2. Hemiplegia
  3. Paraplegia
  4. Quadriplegia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which prefix means the liver?
  1. Adeno-
  2. Gastro-
  3. Hepato-
  4. Nephro-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) Which prefix means "muscle"?
  1. Masto-
  2. Meso-
  3. Myco-
  4. Myo-
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) What does the prefix oligo- mean?
  1. Before
  2. Few
  3. Many
  4. Under
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) A patient's test results say "BMI: 27.8". What does BMI stand for?
  1. Biomagnetic image
  2. Body mass index
  3. Bone and muscle integrity
  4. Brain-muscle interface
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) What is the term for an injury where ligaments stretch too far or tear?
  1. Compression
  2. Sprain
  3. Strain
  4. Subluxation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) What is a fistula?
  1. A knot of old scar tissue
  2. A vein that has become distended and engorged
  3. An abnormal connection between two parts of the body
  4. An infection of the large intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) What is otitis?
  1. An abnormal discharge from the nose
  2. An eye infection
  3. Ear inflammation
  4. Inflammation of the sinuses
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) What medical term means "vomiting blood"?
  1. Hematemesis
  2. Hematopoiesis
  3. Hematuria
  4. Hemorrhage
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) What term refers to the replacement of normal parenchymal tissue with connective tissue?
  1. Alopecia
  2. Fibrosis
  3. Mucositis
  4. Myelosuppression
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) Which disease is the abnormal growth of bone, usually due to chronic kidney disease?
  1. Myelopoiesis
  2. Osteoclasis
  3. Osteodystrophy
  4. Osteoplasty
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) What is the term for excessive development of mammary tissue in males?
  1. Galactorrhea
  2. Gynecomastia
  3. Homeostasis
  4. Hypogonadism
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland?
  1. Euthyroid
  2. Goiter
  3. Hypergonadism
  4. Hypophyseal enlargement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Which word means difficult or obstructed labor?
  1. Dyspareunia
  2. Dystocia
  3. Eclampsia
  4. Eutocia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Which term means deep, rapid breathing?
  1. Apnea
  2. Hyperpnea
  3. Hypopnea
  4. Tachypnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.23) What is an electroencephalogram?
  1. A record of electricity in the brain
  2. A record of electricity in the heart
  3. A record of sound waves in the brain
  4. An x-ray of the brain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.24) The mandible, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:
  1. cranium
  2. face
  3. pelvis
  4. spine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.25) What is the tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra?
  1. Cowper duct
  2. Seminiferous tubule
  3. Ureter
  4. Vas deferens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.26) Which layer of a tooth lies just below the enamel?
  1. Cementum
  2. Dentin
  3. Enamel
  4. Pulp
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.27) Which protein produces pigmentation in the hair, eyes, and skin?
  1. Actin
  2. Albumin
  3. Keratin
  4. Melanin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.28) Coagulation is more commonly known as:
  1. clotting
  2. dissolving
  3. mixing
  4. sweating
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.29) Which chromosome is only present in males?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. X
  4. Y
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.30) Hyperthyroidism, an enlarged thyroid, and exophthalmos are all symptoms of which disease?
  1. Graves' disease
  2. Hashimoto's disease
  3. Myasthenia gravis
  4. Myxedema
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.31) What disorder causes breathing to stop during sleep?
  1. Amnesia
  2. Insomnia
  3. Narcolepsy
  4. Sleep apnea
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.32) Which type of jaundice is due to a blockage in the bile duct?
  1. Hepatocellular
  2. Neonatal
  3. Post-hepatic
  4. Pre-hepatic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.33) Night blindness is caused by a deficiency in which vitamin?
  1. Vitamin A
  2. Vitamin B12
  3. Vitamin B6
  4. Vitamin C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.34) Multiple sclerosis occurs when:
  1. axons do not reach the threshold level
  2. dendrites cannot receive impulses
  3. myelin sheaths are destroyed
  4. the cellular sheaths are destroyed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.35) What are the symptoms of myasthenia gravis?
  1. Abdominal pain, weight loss, and bloody diarrhea
  2. Ascending weakness and paresthesia
  3. Drooping of the eyelids and muscle weakness that improves with rest
  4. Fatigue, pallor, and mild jaundice
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.36) What is the most common type of lupus?
  1. Drug-induced lupus
  2. Lupus dermatitis
  3. Neonatal lupus
  4. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.37) Most cases of tetany are caused by a deficiency of which mineral?
  1. Calcium
  2. Phosphorous
  3. Potassium
  4. Sodium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.38) Tachycardia is a heart rate of:
  1. 40–60 bpm
  2. 60–80 bpm
  3. 80–100 bpm
  4. >100 bpm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.39) What is the medical term for spinal column degeneration?
  1. Keratosis
  2. Osteoporosis
  3. Spondylosis
  4. Steatosis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.40) Which of these is a bone of the skull?
  1. Clavicle
  2. Scapula
  3. Sphenoid
  4. Tarsal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.41) Which bone is the femur?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.42) How many bones are in the adult human skeleton?
  1. 56
  2. 102
  3. 148
  4. 206
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.43) What are the three types of muscle tissue?
  1. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
  2. Internal, external and connectors
  3. Peripheral, central and core
  4. Protractors, retractors and reactors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.44) What fibrous connective tissue attaches bones to other bones?
  1. Fascia
  2. Ligament
  3. Meniscus
  4. Tendon
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.45) Which anterior pituitary hormone stimulates milk production?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Luteinizing hormone
  3. Melanocyte stimulating hormone
  4. Prolactin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.46) Which gland produces melatonin?
  1. Hypothalamus
  2. Pancreas
  3. Pineal
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.47) Which form of thyroid hormone is the most biologically active?
  1. T0
  2. T1
  3. T2
  4. T3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.48) Which gland secretes cortisol?
  1. Adrenal
  2. Pineal
  3. Pituitary
  4. Thymus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.49) Which hormone reduces blood glucose levels?
  1. Cortisol
  2. Epinephrine
  3. Glucagon
  4. Insulin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.50) Where is human chorionic gonadotropin produced?
  1. Fallopian tubes
  2. Ovaries
  3. Placenta
  4. Uterus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.51) Which part of the nephron filters blood?
  1. Collecting duct
  2. Distal convoluted tubule
  3. Glomerulus
  4. Loop of Henle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.52) What is the motile tail of sperm called?
  1. Dock
  2. Flagellum
  3. Microtubule
  4. Microvillus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.53) Which part of the male reproductive system stores sperm?
  1. Epididymis
  2. Prostate gland
  3. Seminal vesicles
  4. Urethra
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.54) Which hormone is responsible for female sexual characteristics?
  1. Estrogen
  2. Oxytocin
  3. Progesterone
  4. Testosterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.55) The process by which the ovary releases an egg is known as:
  1. fertilization
  2. implantation
  3. menstruation
  4. ovulation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.56) The digestive tube from the mouth to the anus is called the:
  1. alimentary tract
  2. esophagus
  3. large intestine
  4. small intestine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.57) What is the term for a mass of partly digested food expelled by the stomach into the duodenum?
  1. Bile
  2. Chyme
  3. Gastric juice
  4. Pancreatic juice
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.58) Which part of the pharynx includes the soft palate and the tonsils?
  1. Hypopharynx
  2. Laryngopharynx
  3. Nasopharynx
  4. Oropharynx
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.59) Which of these is a disaccharide?
  1. Fructose
  2. Galactose
  3. Glucose
  4. Sucrose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.60) Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down:
  1. fat
  2. protein
  3. starch
  4. sugars
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.61) Which process converts glucose to energy?
  1. Gluconeogenesis
  2. Glycogenesis
  3. Glycogenolysis
  4. Glycolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.62) Which part of the brain regulates heart rate and blood pressure?
  1. Cerebellum
  2. Frontal lobe
  3. Hypothalamus
  4. Medulla
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.63) What is the largest vein in the body?
  1. Aorta
  2. Hepatic portal vein
  3. Inferior vena cava
  4. Pulmonary vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.64) What are the smallest blood vessels in the body?
  1. Arteries
  2. Capillaries
  3. Lymph vessels
  4. Veins
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.65) What is the innermost layer of the heart?
  1. Endocardium
  2. Epicardium
  3. Myocardium
  4. Pericardium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.66) Which term refers to the difference between resting cardiac output and maximum cardiac output?
  1. Cardiac efficiency
  2. Cardiac fraction
  3. Cardiac index
  4. Cardiac reserve
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.67) What is the heart's primary pacemaker?
  1. Bundle branches
  2. Bundle of His
  3. Purkinje fibers
  4. SA node
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.68) Which organ system detects changes to the body and directs a response?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Endocrine
  3. Nervous
  4. Respiratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.69) Which organ system releases hormones?
  1. Digestive
  2. Endocrine
  3. Reproductive
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.70) What type of immunity occurs when a person is injected with someone else's antibodies?
  1. Artificial active
  2. Artificial passive
  3. Natural active
  4. Natural passive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.71) A deficiency of red blood cells is called:
  1. anemia
  2. erythremia
  3. hemophilia
  4. leukemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.72) In mental health, "affect" is the patient's:
  1. ability to affect the emotions of other people
  2. capacity to experience emotion
  3. emotional state
  4. expression of emotion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.73) Which blood type is the universal donor?
  1. AB–
  2. A–
  3. B+
  4. O–
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.74) Which procedure uses extreme cold to freeze and destroy abnormal tissue?
  1. Ablation
  2. Cryosurgery
  3. Electrocauterization
  4. Laser surgery
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.75) Which medical term means a normal body temperature?
  1. Afebrile
  2. Febrile
  3. Hyperpyrexic
  4. Hypopyrexic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.76) A hospitalized patient has this sign above their bed: What does the sign mean?
  1. Do not intubate
  2. Do not resuscitate
  3. No blood draws allowed
  4. No food or drink allowed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Administrative Medical Assisting

2.1) Which of these is an example of non-verbal communication?
  1. Asking a patient to confirm her name
  2. Nodding to show you agree with someone
  3. Saying "No" to a patient
  4. Writing a note to your manager
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) When interacting with blind patients, you should:
  1. narrate your actions
  2. provide written materials
  3. use an interpreter
  4. use simple language
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) The duty to "do no harm" is also referred to as:
  1. autonomy
  2. beneficence
  3. justice
  4. non-maleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) You see a physician acting unethically. Your first course of action should be to tell:
  1. the hospital director
  2. the medical board
  3. the nursing board
  4. your supervisor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Getting a patient’s permission before a healthcare procedure is called:
  1. competency
  2. decision capacity
  3. informed consent
  4. risk management
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) A patient rolls up his sleeve for a blood draw. Which type of consent is this?
  1. Active
  2. Expressed
  3. Implied
  4. Informed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) A legal document that outlines the treatment a person wants if they can’t make decisions for themselves is called a(n):
  1. advance directive
  2. delegated act
  3. determination policy
  4. testamentary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) In which letter format is every line aligned to the left?
  1. Full block
  2. Modified block
  3. Modified block with indented paragraphs
  4. Modified semi-block
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Which of these is a correct dateline for a business letter?
  1. 8/20/2024
  2. Aug. 20 2024
  3. Aug. 20, 2024
  4. August 20, 2024
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) Which format is this letter in?
  1. Full block
  2. Modified block
  3. Semi block
  4. Simplified
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) What is the size of legal paper?
  1. 8.3×11.3 inches
  2. 8.3×14.3 inches
  3. 8.5×11 inches
  4. 8.5×14 inches
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) What is the standard font size for business letters?
  1. 10 pt
  2. 12 pt
  3. 14 pt
  4. 16 pt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) When answering the phone, you should state your name and:
  1. "How are you today?"
  2. the name of your facility
  3. your facility's opening hours
  4. your phone number
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) Which of these is one of the AMA Principles of Medical Ethics?
  1. "A physician shall give the patient the freedom to choose between treatments freely, where they are able."
  2. "A physician shall not cause unnecessary harm to patients."
  3. "A physician shall refrain from posting identifiable patient information online."
  4. "A physician shall support access to medical care for all people."
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) In the Kübler-Ross model of grief, in which stage does a dying person try to negotiate for a longer life?
  1. Acceptance
  2. Anger
  3. Bargaining
  4. Depression
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which psychoanalyst proposed eight stages of psychosocial development?
  1. Erikson
  2. Freud
  3. Jung
  4. Maslow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) What is the first stage of the Kübler-Ross model of grief?
  1. Anger
  2. Bargaining
  3. Denial
  4. Depression
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Which ICD-11 block is for external causes of morbidity and mortality?
  1. E
  2. L
  3. P
  4. X
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is divided into how many categories of codes?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) The two-digit additions to CPT codes that describe extra details of a procedure are called:
  1. ICD-10 codes
  2. modifiers
  3. service codes
  4. supplemental codes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) Which of these is an ICD-11 code?
  1. 99213
  2. NA06.8
  3. R0070
  4. S06.0X1A
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What do ICD codes represent?
  1. Diseases
  2. Hospital departments
  3. Insurance providers
  4. Procedures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) HCPCS Level I is the same as:
  1. CPT
  2. ICD
  3. ICHI
  4. SNOMED CT
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What do CPT codes describe?
  1. Deaths
  2. Diagnoses
  3. Patients
  4. Procedures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) Which of these is a Level II HCPCS code?
  1. 73923
  2. BT020
  3. C1300
  4. VXOOU
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) CPT codes have how many digits?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) In which numbering system does the patient have a single medical record number which is used for all subsequent visits?
  1. Episodic
  2. Serial
  3. Serial unit
  4. Unit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) When you find a document in the wrong record, you should:
  1. advise the patient's doctor
  2. destroy the document and complete an incident report
  3. leave the document in the record
  4. refile the document in the correct record
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) What is the primary digit of 50-63-23 in a terminal digit filing system?
  1. 5
  2. 23
  3. 50
  4. 63
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the name of a filing system where files are kept in different places?
  1. Centralized
  2. Decentralized
  3. Off-site storage
  4. Serial-unit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) Which method of organizing medical records puts the most recent documents first?
  1. Direct
  2. Indirect
  3. Reverse chronological
  4. Terminal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) How often is a tickler file checked?
  1. Three times a day
  2. Daily
  3. Once a week
  4. Every three months
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) Put the following patient names into alphabetical filing order: Terri Anderson, Ann Anders, Susan Anderson.
  1. Ann Anders, Susan Anderson, Terri Anderson
  2. Ann Anders, Terri Anderson, Susan Anderson
  3. Susan Anderson, Terri Anderson, Ann Anders
  4. Terri Anderson, Susan Anderson, Ann Anders
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) Which type of file is also known as the 43 Folders System?
  1. Alphanumeric
  2. Manual
  3. Supplemental
  4. Tickler
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) How are patient files arranged in an alphabetic filing system?
  1. First name, last name, date of birth
  2. First name, last name, middle initial
  3. Last name, date of birth, first name
  4. Last name, first name, middle initial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) The tapered, rectangular or rounded extension at the top of a file folder is called a:
  1. extension
  2. guide
  3. handle
  4. tab
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) In a color-coded alphabetic filing system, each ______________ is assigned a color.
  1. identification number
  2. letter of the alphabet
  3. month of birth
  4. patient visit
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) A card placed in a file to indicate the location of material that has been temporarily removed is called a:
  1. binder
  2. out guide
  3. tab
  4. tickler file
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) What is the most logical order of units in a chronological filing system?
  1. Day, month, and year
  2. Month and year
  3. Month, day, and year
  4. Year, month, and day
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which type of file is used most frequently?
  1. Active
  2. Closed
  3. Inactive
  4. Retention
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) The HIPAA Security Rule requires which three kinds of safeguards?
  1. Administrative, physical, and technical
  2. Data protection, cyber security, and non-discrimination
  3. Operational, digital, and environmental
  4. Transactional, administrative, and procedural
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) What term means scrambling sensitive data into a secret code to prevent unauthorized access?
  1. Authentication
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Encryption
  4. Transmission
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Which of these passwords is most secure?
  1. OO101JfX
  2. ifojtfhh
  3. lyot0sk3
  4. t?7HA2z!
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) Which of these is an output device?
  1. Keyboard
  2. Microphone
  3. Mouse
  4. Printer
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Which computer device is a flat tactile sensor that converts the motion and position of the user's fingers to the position of a cursor on a screen?
  1. Keyboard
  2. Mouse
  3. Touchpad
  4. Trackball
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) A document requiring a person to give testimony at court is called a(n):
  1. affidavit
  2. search warrant
  3. subpoena
  4. summons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) Law originating from court decisions is known as __________ law.
  1. common
  2. public
  3. statute
  4. tort
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Which legal doctrine prevents someone from relitigating a claim after a case has already been decided?
  1. Res judicata
  2. Respondeat superior
  3. Subpoena duces tecum
  4. Subpoena testificandum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which type of sexual harassment occurs when a supervisor seeks sexual favors from a worker in return for benefits at work?
  1. Hostile work environment
  2. Prima facie
  3. Quid pro quo
  4. Res judicata
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) The 4 D's of medical negligence are duty, dereliction, direct causation, and:
  1. damages
  2. danger
  3. denial
  4. doctor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) A nurse fails to change a surgery patient’s bandages for several days. The patient develops a serious infection as a result. The nurse's behavior is an example of:
  1. comparative negligence
  2. contributory negligence
  3. gross negligence
  4. vicarious liability
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Who enforces HIPAA?
  1. The Attorney General
  2. The Department of Health and Human Services
  3. The Surgeon General
  4. The US Senate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) Which act prevents employers from retaliating against workers for complaining about unsafe working conditions?
  1. Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA)
  2. Federal Employees' Compensation Act (FCCA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA)
  4. Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act (USERRA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) What does HIPAA prohibit?
  1. Diverting legal prescriptions for illegal uses
  2. Refusing treatment to patients based on personal dislike
  3. Sharing health information without the patient's consent
  4. Submitting multiple bills for the same service
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which of these patients should be attended to first?
  1. A boy with a minor bite from a dog that was vaccinated against rabies
  2. A man who had knee replacement surgery three days ago and now has swelling and pain in his leg
  3. A woman complaining of nausea twelve hours after a hysterectomy
  4. A woman with a temperature of 99.9°F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) A healthcare facility schedules appointments at 15-minute intervals. What type of scheduling is the facility using?
  1. Open
  2. Stream
  3. Tidal wave
  4. Wave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) What is patient cycle time?
  1. The average time patients spend in the waiting room
  2. The maximum time allowed for each patient visit
  3. The time between a patient's arrival and departure at a facility
  4. The time of day when the receptionist phones patients to remind them of their appointments
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Which type of health insurance covers the costs of nursing home care, assisted living, and home health care?
  1. Critical illness
  2. Disability
  3. Hospital indemnity
  4. Long-term care
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) What type of contract allows a healthcare provider to claim payments directly from a patient's insurance plan without the patient's involvement?
  1. Assignment of benefits
  2. Indemnity plan
  3. Participating policy
  4. Reinsurance treaty
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) The date an insurance policy begins is known as the ___________ date.
  1. coverage
  2. disclosure
  3. effective
  4. embarkation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) An arrangement where the patient pays for part of their medical expenses and the insurer pays for the rest is called a:
  1. co-pay
  2. deductible
  3. modifier
  4. premium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) On what date do Medicare deductibles reset?
  1. January 1st
  2. March 1st
  3. April 1st
  4. October 1st
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) Medicare Part B pays for ______of approved charges.
  1. 50%
  2. 60%
  3. 70%
  4. 80%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) Which type of insurance plan is generally the most affordable?
  1. Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
  2. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
  3. Point-of-service (POS)
  4. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) Who is CHAMPVA insurance for?
  1. Families of veterans
  2. Native Americans
  3. Senior citizens
  4. Single parents
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which part of Medicare is known as Medical Insurance?
  1. Part A
  2. Part B
  3. Part C
  4. Part D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) A patient has a health insurance plan that pays 50% of allowed charges for out-of-network doctor visits. The patient visits an out-of-network doctor and the bill comes to $100. The health insurance allows only a $50 charge for the visit. How much would the patient have to pay out of pocket for the visit?
  1. $25
  2. $50
  3. $75
  4. $100
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) Which part of Medicare is known as Medicare Advantage?
  1. Part A
  2. Part B
  3. Part C
  4. Part D
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) Which tier of drugs has the lowest copayments?
  1. Tier 1
  2. Tier 2
  3. Tier 3
  4. Tier 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Which type of health insurance plan has the most flexibility in choosing providers?
  1. Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO)
  2. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO)
  3. Point-of-service (POS)
  4. Preferred Provider Organization (PPO)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) The amount of money a person pays for an insurance policy is called an insurance __________.
  1. liability
  2. payout
  3. premium
  4. trust
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) Medicare Part D provides:
  1. dental coverage
  2. gym memberships
  3. prescription drug coverage
  4. transport to doctor’s appointments
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) What is the term for a provider who accepts Medicare on a case-by-case basis?
  1. Conditional provider
  2. Independent provider
  3. Non-participating provider
  4. Opt-out provider
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) ___________ billing occurs when providers bill a patient for the difference between the amount they charge and the amount the patient's insurance pays.
  1. Balance
  2. Equity
  3. Harmony
  4. Parity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) What is a phantom bill?
  1. A bill disguised as another type of bill
  2. A bill for a patient who doesn't exist
  3. A bill for a service that was never given
  4. A bill neither the patient nor the insurer will agree to pay
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) Which type of insurance pays out a lump-sum payment if the policyholder is diagnosed with a serious health condition?
  1. Critical illness insurance
  2. Disability insurance
  3. Major medical insurance
  4. Special risk insurance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) Which form is used to submit a Medicare claim?
  1. CMS 1500
  2. Form 1040
  3. Form 4506-T
  4. W-4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) Which term means the amount a patient pays for health care services before their insurance plan starts to pay?
  1. Coinsurance
  2. Out-of-pocket maximum
  3. Deductible
  4. Co-payment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) Who is COBRA insurance for?
  1. Disabled people
  2. Members of the military
  3. People with low incomes
  4. Unemployed people
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) Which of these services does Original Medicare cover?
  1. Annual dental check-ups
  2. Diagnostic x-rays
  3. Hearing aids
  4. Routine eye exams
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) A patient is hospitalized for five days. The bill comes to $10,000. The patient has a health insurance policy with a $500 deductible and a $200 per day copay for hospital expenses. How much of the hospital bill will the patient have to pay themselves?
  1. $1,500
  2. $2,000
  3. $2,500
  4. $3,000
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Which of these is an example of a Medicare Beneficiary Identifier?
  1. 03-03-2016
  2. 5Y00-543-ABT18-00
  3. 8JP1-WA7-NC23
  4. John L Smith
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) _____________________ is when a patient has more than one insurance policy and the policies are assessed to determine how much each policy will pay for a medical bill.
  1. Coordination of benefits
  2. Determination of payment
  3. Multiple insurance arrangement
  4. Policy assessment
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) What does UCR mean in medical billing?
  1. Unique client referral
  2. Unusual change request
  3. Unusual chronic illness
  4. Usual, customary, and reasonable
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) What is an Advance Beneficiary Notice?
  1. A notice alerting someone they are about to receive an inheritance from a deceased relative
  2. A notice telling patients when their premium payments will change
  3. A notice that Medicare is unlikely to provide coverage in a specific case
  4. A notice that alerts hospitals to changes in Medicare's coverage policies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) If a practice uses 80 packs of exam gloves per month and each pack costs $2.50, how much does the practice spend on exam gloves each month?
  1. $150
  2. $200
  3. $250
  4. $300
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) What is an itemized statement of healthcare services?
  1. A coding system used to classify healthcare services
  2. A list of common disorders and diseases
  3. A list of services provided to a patient and the amount of payment due
  4. A list of the most common services provided by a healthcare facility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) What is a superbill?
  1. A detailed invoice outlining all the services received by a patient
  2. A medical bill charged to more than one patient
  3. A medical bill of over $1 million
  4. Any large medical bill not covered by health insurance
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) In the double-entry system in bookkeeping, every transaction must have:
  1. a debit and a credit
  2. a fixed value and a variable value
  3. the signatures of two people
  4. two duplicate receipts
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Which of these debt collection techniques is illegal?
  1. Calling the client late at night
  2. Offering payment plans
  3. Sending letters and statements
  4. Using collecting agencies
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Money that customers owe to a company is called:
  1. accounts dependable
  2. accounts payable
  3. accounts receivable
  4. accounts unavailable
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) A physician offers payment to a patient to come into their office. This is called a:
  1. double bill
  2. kickback
  3. phantom bill
  4. referral fee
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.93) If you spend more money than is in a bank account, it means the account is:
  1. invested
  2. overdrawn
  3. unsecured
  4. vested
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.94) A petty cash fund is topped up to $100 every month. $10 is in the fund at the end of a month, how much money must be placed in the fund to replenish it?
  1. $10
  2. $90
  3. $100
  4. $110
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.95) Which of these is an expendable supply?
  1. ECG machine
  2. Pen
  3. Photocopier
  4. Sofa
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Clinical Procedural Tasks

3.1) The excision of a tissue sample for examination under a microscope is called a(n):
  1. abscess
  2. biopsy
  3. curettage
  4. laceration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) What is the correct order of removal of PPE?
  1. Gloves, gown, goggles, mask
  2. Gown, goggles, gloves, mask
  3. Gown, mask, gloves, goggles
  4. Mask, gown, gloves, goggles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Which of these must be worn by staff visiting a patient in enteric isolation?
  1. Gown
  2. Hazard suit
  3. Lead apron
  4. Shoe covers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which mode of transmission involves the transfer of infectious agents from one person to another during physical contact with blood or other body fluids?
  1. Direct contact
  2. Droplets
  3. Indirect contact
  4. Vectors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) What is the single most important method of preventing infection?
  1. Proper handwashing
  2. Sneezing into your arm
  3. Thorough cleaning of equipment
  4. Wearing a lab coat
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) In the chain of infection, which link comes after the portal of exit and before the portal of entry?
  1. Infectious agent
  2. Mode of transmission
  3. Reservoir
  4. Susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) Which cleaning product releases a toxic gas when mixed with urine?
  1. Chlorine bleach
  2. Hydrogen peroxide
  3. Isopropyl alcohol
  4. Povidone-iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) You should start timing the autoclave when the desired temperature for the autoclave is reached and:
  1. steam enters the inner sterilizing chamber
  2. the pressure reaches 15 lbs per square inch
  3. the sterilization indicator changes color
  4. the warning light starts flashing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) A lab assistant is wrapping an instrument for autoclaving but discovers the wrapper has a hole. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Get a new wrapper
  2. Ignore the hole and continue wrapping the instrument
  3. Repair the hole with adhesive tape
  4. Throw the instrument away
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) Autoclave tape changes color when:
  1. organisms have been killed
  2. sterilization has taken place
  3. the autoclave is nearing the end of its warranty
  4. the autoclave reaches a specific temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Why must all air be removed from an autoclave before switching it on?
  1. Air causes cold spots in the autoclave
  2. Air increases the risk of explosion
  3. Any water in the air will dilute the sterilizing agents
  4. Steam can break the glassware
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which item of lab equipment sterilizes using pressurized steam?
  1. Autoclave
  2. Dry heat sterilizer
  3. Fume hood
  4. Oven
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) A laboratory has an autoclave rule stating "Do not fill containers more than half full with liquids". If a lab technician has to prepare 220 ml of media for autoclaving, which of these volume containers would comply with the rule?
  1. 100 mL
  2. 300 mL
  3. 400 mL
  4. 500 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), for how long are sterilized articles wrapped in double-thickness muslin considered sterile?
  1. 15 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 45 days
  4. 60 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) What problem can happen if a dry heat oven is opened during sterilization?
  1. Glassware may break
  2. Glassware may get wet
  3. Sterilization may not be complete
  4. The oven may get damaged
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) Which of these is an example of a Standard Precaution?
  1. Fire extinguisher
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Keeping chemicals containers closed
  4. Radiation shielding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) Which item of lab equipment uses high-speed rotation in a closed chamber?
  1. Centrifuge
  2. Evaporator
  3. Hot plate
  4. Shaker
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) The main use of a buffer is to:
  1. accentuate changes in pH
  2. make a solution more acidic
  3. make a solution more basic
  4. minimize changes in pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What is a mortar and pestle used for?
  1. Crushing solids into a powder
  2. Heating substances
  3. Measuring volume
  4. Measuring weight
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) Which piece of lab equipment produces a flame for heating substances?
  1. Bulb pipette
  2. Bunsen burner
  3. Centrifuge
  4. Erlenmeyer flask
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) The process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument is called:
  1. calibration
  2. estimation
  3. graduation
  4. mensuration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) A specimen with a known value that is used to ensure the validity and accuracy of test results is called a:
  1. control
  2. norm
  3. result
  4. source
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Which of these is a pre-analytical quality indicator?
  1. Number of improperly labelled samples
  2. Number of laboratory reporting errors
  3. Percentage of results delivered late
  4. Turnaround time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) Which term means the extent to which measurements agree with the true value?
  1. Accuracy
  2. Precision
  3. Reliability
  4. Reproducibility
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) What is a delta check?
  1. A comparison of a laboratory's results to the results from an outside facility
  2. A comparison of current test results to previous results
  3. An inspection to ensure all patients are wearing wristbands
  4. The verification of a patient's identity using at least three identifiers
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) What is the least effective type of hazard control in OSHA's hierarchy of controls?
  1. Administrative controls
  2. Engineering controls
  3. Personal protective equipment
  4. Substitution
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) What federal agency monitors the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
  1. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
  2. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
  3. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
  4. United States Public Health Service (USPHS)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which federal agency regulates laboratory testing performed on humans?
  1. American Medical Association (AMA)
  2. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
  3. Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Service (CMS)
  4. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) What is the name for chemicals that kill microorganisms on the skin?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Antiseptics
  3. Biocides
  4. Disinfectants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) What is the first step when removing staples from patients?
  1. Close the handle
  2. Move the staple side to side to remove it
  3. Place the staple extractor under the staple
  4. Put on gloves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) Which type of bandage is used for securing arm and leg dressings?
  1. Adhesive
  2. Roller
  3. Triangular
  4. Tubular
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) Arthroscopy is a proceduce for diagnosing and treating problems with:
  1. bones
  2. joints
  3. lymph nodes
  4. muscles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.33) After removing sutures, which of these could be applied to the wound to help prevent infection?
  1. Clopidogrel
  2. Letrozole
  3. Mupirocin
  4. Polyethylene glycol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.34) Sutures and staples should be removed within:
  1. 1–2 hours
  2. 7–10 hours
  3. 1–2 days
  4. 7–10 days
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.35) Which procedure sterilizes men?
  1. Circumcision
  2. Hysterectomy
  3. Oophorectomy
  4. Vasectomy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.36) What are Telfa pads used for?
  1. Absorbing sweat during sweat tests
  2. Absorbing urine leakage in incontinent patients
  3. Dressing wounds
  4. Helping blood to flow to the extremities
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.37) Which procedure removes tissue from the inside of the uterus?
  1. Cervical cerclage
  2. D&C
  3. Episiotomy
  4. Vaginectomy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.38) Otoscopes examine which part of the body?
  1. Ears
  2. Eyes
  3. Mouth
  4. Nose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.39) Hemostats are used to:
  1. control bleeding
  2. deliver medications intravenously
  3. measure blood pressure
  4. remove toxic materials from the blood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.40) Which medical instrument retracts the vaginal walls for diagnostic procedures?
  1. Cannula
  2. Protoscope
  3. Speculum
  4. Ventilator
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.41) Which part of a hemostat keeps the jaws closed?
  1. Finger ring
  2. Ratchet
  3. Serrations
  4. Shank
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.42) The ____________ wheel is a medical device used to test nerve reactions.
  1. Dietrich
  2. Hofman
  3. Wartenberg
  4. Zimmermann
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.43) An EEG detects abnormalities in which area of the body?
  1. Brain
  2. Gastrointestinal tract
  3. Heart
  4. Lungs
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.44) What is this instrument?
  1. Clamp
  2. Curette
  3. Hemostat
  4. Retractor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.45) What is a cannula?
  1. A device for delivering gas by mouth
  2. A specialised type of medical forceps
  3. A tool for looking inside the gastrointestinal tract
  4. A tube inserted into the body
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.46) What does a sphygmomanometer measure?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Body temperature
  3. Motor reflexes
  4. The density of liquids
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 4: Clinical Patient Interaction

4.1) When drawing blood from a frightened child, you should:
  1. explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
  2. say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
  3. tell the child that the needle won't hurt
  4. tell the child to be brave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) Which of these actions helps to prevent hemoconcentration during venipuncture?
  1. Asking the patient to make and release a fist several times
  2. Asking the patient to release their fist upon blood flow
  3. Keeping the tourniquet on for longer than a minute
  4. Massaging the site before inserting the needle
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) Serum specimens are collected in which vacutainer tube?
  1. Dark green
  2. Gold
  3. Light blue
  4. Light green
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) You have collected blood in a tube containing an additive. What should you do next?
  1. Empty the tube into the sink
  2. Invert the tube several times
  3. Leave the tube in the fridge for 2-3 hours
  4. Shake the tube vigorously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
  1. Hyperalbuminemia
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Hypertension
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) What is normal body temperature in Fahrenheit?
  1. 91–93°F
  2. 93–95°F
  3. 95–97°F
  4. 97–99°F
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) What is the recommended daily calorie intake for women?
  1. 1,500 calories
  2. 2,000 calories
  3. 2,500 calories
  4. 3,000 calories
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which vitamin do pregnant women take to help prevent neural tube defects in the fetus?
  1. Biotin
  2. Folic acid
  3. Niacin
  4. Pantothenic acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.9) What should be your first action in the event of an acid burn?
  1. Cover the burn with gauze moistened in sterile saline
  2. Flush the burn with water
  3. Go to the emergency department
  4. Neutralize the acid with sodium bicarbonate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.10) The rule of nines indicates the:
  1. amount of IV fluid necessary
  2. amount of infection present
  3. depth of a burn
  4. percentage of body area affected by a burn
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.11) You find a colleague unconscious and not breathing. There is no one around to help. What is the first thing you should do?
  1. Call 911
  2. Give chest compressions
  3. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  4. Move your colleague into the recovery position
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.12) What should you do if someone is having a seizure?
  1. Give mouth-to-mouth breaths
  2. Hold them down
  3. Put something soft under their head
  4. Put something wooden in their mouth
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.13) What does ABC stand for in first aid?
  1. Active body control
  2. Airway, breathing, and circulation
  3. Always be careful
  4. Attention, beware, check
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.14) When administering CPR, give:
  1. 40 compressions followed by 1 breath
  2. 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths
  3. 20 compressions followed by 5 breaths
  4. 10 compressions followed by 10 breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.15) Cold exposure can cause which condition?
  1. Hyperpyrexia
  2. Hyperthermia
  3. Hypothermia
  4. Hypoxia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.16) Which type of bleeding is characterized by a slow and steady flow of dark red blood?
  1. Arterial bleeding
  2. Capillary bleeding
  3. Hematuria
  4. Venous bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.17) The Pap stain helps detect which disease?
  1. Cervical cancer
  2. Cushing's syndrome
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pernicious anemia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.18) What color are gram-positive organisms after a Gram stain?
  1. Orange
  2. Purple
  3. Red
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.19) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?
  1. Fish
  2. Popcorn
  3. Red meat
  4. Whole wheat bread
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.20) How far into the nasal cavity must a swab be inserted to reach the nasopharynx?
  1. 3–4 cm
  2. 5–6 cm
  3. 7–8 cm
  4. 9–10 cm
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.21) What is the best time to collect a sputum specimen?
  1. An hour before the patient has dinner
  2. In the middle of the day
  3. Just after the patient wakes up
  4. Just before the patient goes to bed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.22) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.23) A patient needs to collect urine in a container for urinalysis. However, the patient is nervous and says he is having trouble producing the urine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Cancel the test
  2. Offer the patient a drink of water and ask him to try again
  3. Take a blood sample instead and make a note on the requisition form
  4. Tell the patient he is not trying hard enough
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.24) Which type of urine specimen requires the patient to urinate a small amount into the toilet, stop urinating, and then start urinating again into a sterile cup?
  1. 24-hour
  2. Clean-catch
  3. Random
  4. Timed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.25) How often should reagent strips be tested with controls?
  1. Daily
  2. Weekly
  3. Monthly
  4. Every three months
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.26) Which of these is the most important part of blood culture collection?
  1. Adequately filling two media vials
  2. Asepsis of the collection site
  3. Selecting the collection site
  4. Timing of the second set of cultures
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.27) What procedure would help remove a hair trapped in an eye?
  1. Blepharoplasty
  2. Eye drop instillation
  3. Eye irrigation
  4. Latisse
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.28) Diabetics should eat a diet low in:
  1. dairy products
  2. gluten
  3. salt
  4. sugar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.29) A diabetic patient experiencing hypoglycemia should:
  1. check their urine for ketones
  2. eat sugar
  3. inject themselves with insulin
  4. run on the spot
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.30) Which of these is a non-modifiable risk factor for heart disease?
  1. Age
  2. Obesity
  3. Physical inactivity
  4. Tobacco use
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.31) Patients with heart disease should lower their intake of:
  1. fish
  2. fruit
  3. potassium
  4. salt
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.32) A patient with GERD should avoid which of these foods?
  1. Chocolate
  2. Egg whites
  3. Ginger
  4. Oatmeal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.33) A diabetic patient eats a meal containing 70 g of carbohydrate. Their insulin-to-carbohydrate ratio is 1 unit of bolus insulin for every 10 g of carbohydrate. How many units of bolus insulin do they need to take?
  1. 1 unit
  2. 7 units
  3. 10 units
  4. 70 units
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.34) What supplement is recommended for osteoporosis?
  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Thiamine
  4. Vitamin K
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.35) A patient requires 600 mg of Tagamet but only 300 mg tablets are available. How many tablets should the patient take?
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.36) Which route of drug administration uses ear drops?
  1. Buccal
  2. Otic
  3. Parenteral
  4. Sublingual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.37) Patches, ointments, creams, liquids and sprays are given via which route of drug administration?
  1. Otic
  2. Sublingual
  3. Topical
  4. Urethral
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.38) Which therapy uses high-frequency sound waves to generate heat in deep tissue?
  1. Percussion
  2. Radiation
  3. Shockwave
  4. Ultrasound
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.39) Which alternative therapy focuses on diagnosing, treating, and preventing mechanical issues of the musculoskeletal system, especially the spine?
  1. Chiropractic
  2. Massage
  3. Percussion
  4. Ultrasound
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.40) Which therapy increases blood flow and inflammation to reduce muscle stiffness and pain?
  1. Cold therapy
  2. Heat therapy
  3. Percussion
  4. Physical therapy
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.41) Forearm crutches:
  1. are also known as axilla crutches
  2. are also known as axillary crutches
  3. are longer than underarm crutches
  4. are shorter than underarm crutches
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.42) Tonometry checks the:
  1. brain
  2. ears
  3. eyes
  4. heart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.43) Which medical procedure uses a speculum, spatula, and cytobrush?
  1. Ear irrigation
  2. Pap smear
  3. Phlebotomy
  4. Wound dressing
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.44) What is the name of this chart?
  1. Bakker chart
  2. De Vries chart
  3. Jansen chart
  4. Snellen chart
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.45) Where is the carotid pulse taken?
  1. Chest
  2. Leg
  3. Neck
  4. Wrist
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.46) During a pediatric exam, the child’s height, weight and head circumference are plotted onto which chart to gauge whether the child is growing appropriately?
  1. Apgar
  2. Growth
  3. Medical
  4. Pediatric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.47) Which procedure examines the female reproductive organs?
  1. Digital rectal examination
  2. Pelvic exam
  3. Pregnancy test
  4. Prostate exam
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.48) When recording eye exam results, the patient's right eye is recorded as:
  1. OD
  2. OR
  3. OS
  4. OU
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.49) What does the pulse measure?
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Blood volume
  3. Circulation
  4. Heart rate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.50) What is the normal range for systolic blood pressure in adults?
  1. 40–69 mm Hg
  2. 60–79 mm Hg
  3. 90–119 mm Hg
  4. 120–139 mm Hg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.51) What is the BMI overweight range?
  1. 16–18.49
  2. 18.5–24.9
  3. 25–29.99
  4. 30–34.99
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.52) Which artery in the wrist is used for measuring a person's pulse?
  1. Carotid
  2. Radial
  3. Temporal
  4. Ulnar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.53) What is the name of the sounds heard with a stethoscope as a blood pressure cuff is slowly deflated?
  1. Belsky
  2. Korotkoff
  3. Morozov
  4. Turgenev
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.54) The normal respiratory rate for adults is ________ breaths per minute.
  1. 4–12
  2. 12–20
  3. 20–28
  4. 28–36
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.55) Where is an axillary temperature taken?
  1. Anus
  2. Armpit
  3. Ear
  4. Forehead
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.56) Which patient position is used for gynecology examinations?
  1. Lateral
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Sim's position
  4. Trendelenburg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.57) Which patient position is commonly used for ECGs?
  1. Fowler’s
  2. Prone
  3. Semi-Fowler’s
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.58) Which position is this patient in?
  1. Fowler's
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Sim's
  4. Trendenlenburg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.59) Which patient position requires the patient to put their feet into stirrups?
  1. Dorsal recumbent
  2. Lithotomy
  3. Prone
  4. Supine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.60) How are aerosols administered?
  1. As a topical gel
  2. By inhalation
  3. By rectal administration
  4. Parenterally
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.61) Which type of drug increases urine output?
  1. Barbiturate
  2. Corticosteroid
  3. Diuretic
  4. Immunosuppressant
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.62) Penicillin, amoxicillin and ciprofloxacin are examples of which type of drug?
  1. Antibiotics
  2. Anticoagulants
  3. Antihistamines
  4. Antivirals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.63) What is the medical abbreviation for antibiotics?
  1. ABS
  2. ABX
  3. ANB
  4. ANX
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.64) A medication indicated as PRN should be taken:
  1. by mouth
  2. once a day
  3. rectally
  4. when needed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.65) What is the pharmacy abbreviation for "by mouth"?
  1. ou
  2. po
  3. pr
  4. pv
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.66) How many mL is a teaspoon of medication?
  1. 5 mL
  2. 10 mL
  3. 15 mL
  4. 20 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.67) A physician prescribes warfarin 5 mg for a patient but the nurse accidentally gives the patient 10 mg of warfarin instead. Which of the five rights of medication administration has the nurse failed to ensure?
  1. Right client
  2. Right dose
  3. Right drug
  4. Right time
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.68) The doctor prescribes nitroglycerin 1/150 g SL for a patient. How should you administer the drug?
  1. Dissolve the medication in water and have the patient drink it
  2. Inject the drug intramuscularly
  3. Inject the drug subcutaneously
  4. Place the drug under the tongue and let it dissolve
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.69) Which patient population should avoid teratogenic drugs?
  1. End-of-life
  2. Geriatric
  3. Pediatric
  4. Pregnant women
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.70) How is NPH insulin administered?
  1. Intramuscularly
  2. Intravenously
  3. Orally
  4. Subcutaneously
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.71) What angle is used for a subcutaneous injection on thin patients?
  1. 15°
  2. 30°
  3. 45°
  4. 90°
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.72) When preparing a patient for an ECG, where should you place the V1 electrode?
  1. Arm
  2. Chest
  3. Foot
  4. Leg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.73) Lead IV of the electrocardiogram is also called:
  1. AVF
  2. AVL
  3. AVM
  4. AVR
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.74) Which three ECG electrodes form the Einthoven triangle?
  1. RA, LA and LL
  2. RA, LA and RL
  3. RA, LL and RL
  4. V1, V2 and V3
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.75) What would be the first and most appropriate thing to say if a patient refuses an ECG?
  1. "Don't worry; it takes only a few seconds."
  2. "I will have to report your refusal to my supervisor."
  3. "Will you tell me why you don't want to have an ECG?"
  4. "Your doctor has ordered this test, and it must be done."
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.76) In electrocardiography, aVR, aVL, and aVF are called the:
  1. alternating voltage leads
  2. amplified voltage leads
  3. augmented limb leads
  4. depolarization-repolarization leads
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.77) ECG leads I, II, and III are called the _________ limb leads.
  1. augmented
  2. bipolar
  3. positive
  4. unipolar
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.78) During ECG placement, to which part of the body is the ground lead attached?
  1. Left arm
  2. Leg leg
  3. Right arm
  4. Right leg
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.79) When performing an ECG, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Apply the limb electrodes
  2. Ask the patient to remove their clothing from the waist up
  3. Obtain the patient's consent
  4. Prepare the patient's skin for the application of the electrodes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.80) In the American Heart Association system of ECG lead color coding, what color is the neutral electrode?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Red
  4. White
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.81) Which of these statements about preparing a patient for an ECG is true?
  1. Alcohol wipes are used to clean the skin
  2. It is good practice to shave the patient’s entire chest
  3. The patient must be fasting
  4. The patient should be sitting
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.82) When setting up an ECG, where is the LA electrode placed?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. o
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.83) An interrupted baseline on an ECG may be caused by:
  1. a broken cable
  2. electrical interference
  3. lotion on the patient's skin
  4. patient movement
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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