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CSMLS MLA Certification Exam: Practice Test 2

Number of questions: 180

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About the CSMLS MLA exam

The CSMLS MLA Certification Exam is an examination for laboratory assistants in Canada. The exam is set by the CSMLS (Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science).

About these practice questions

These practice questions will help prepare you for the CSMLS MLA exam.

This page contains 180 practice questions divided into the eight sections of the exam: 1. Safe Work Practices, 2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling, 3. Pre-analytical Procedures, 4. Reagent Preparation, 5. Communication and Interaction, 6. Quality Management, 7. Professional Practice, and 8. Critical Thinking.

All questions have been carefully designed to mimic the questions on the real exam, to help you prepare and get a passing grade.

Check out all the practice tests in this series: Practice Test 1, Practice Test 2, Practice Test 3, Practice Test 4, and Practice Test 5.

Sections

  1. Safe Work Practices
  2. Data and Specimen Collection and Handling
  3. Pre-analytical Procedures
  4. Reagent Preparation
  5. Communication and Interaction
  6. Quality Management
  7. Professional Practice
  8. Critical Thinking

Section 1: Safe Work Practices

1.1) A skin cut is an example of which link in the chain of infection?
  1. Mode of transmission
  2. Portal of entry
  3. Reservoir
  4. Susceptible host
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.2) CO₂ fire extinguishers are effective against which type of fire?
  1. Flammable gas
  2. Flammable liquid
  3. Paper
  4. Wood
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.3) What is the first step when using a fire extinguisher?
  1. Aim the fire extinguisher at the fire
  2. Pull the pin
  3. Squeeze the handle
  4. Sweep the hose from side to side at the base of the fire
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.4) Refer to the image below: Which of these fires can this fire extinguisher extinguish?
  1. Electrical equipment
  2. Methanol
  3. Oil bath
  4. Cardboard boxes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.5) What does the acronym RACE mean in the context of fire procedures?
  1. Ready, Aim, Check, Extinguish
  2. Recover, Act, Control, Escape/Evacuate
  3. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate
  4. Run, Activate, Coordinate, Escape/Extinguish
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.6) A fire extinguisher has the following symbol: This fire extinguisher:
  1. can extinguish electrical fires
  2. cannot be used on electrical equipment
  3. carries a risk of electric shock
  4. requires charging before use
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.7) What is the term for a chemical that immediately damages human tissue on contact?
  1. Carcinogenic
  2. Combustible
  3. Corrosive
  4. Toxic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.8) You accidentally breathe in picric acid. After moving outside to fresh air, what should be your next step?
  1. Ask someone to perform artificial respiration
  2. Drink several glasses of water
  3. Self-induce vomiting
  4. Take several deep breaths
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.9) Which of these chemicals is highly toxic?
  1. 10% ethanol
  2. Hydrocortisone
  3. N-hexane
  4. Phenol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.10) What does mixing bleach with ammonia create?
  1. Chloramine
  2. Chlorine gas
  3. Chloroform
  4. Peroxyacetic acid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.11) The three main types of ionizing radiation are alpha, beta and:
  1. delta
  2. gamma
  3. lambda
  4. zeta
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.12) In second-degree burns:
  1. the damage extends to the dermis and blisters may be apparent
  2. the damage extends to the subcutaneous layer and there is significant fluid loss
  3. the damage is only superficial and can be treated with moisturizer
  4. the risk of death is high and immediate medical help is needed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.13) Where on the patient should you place your hands for CPR?
  1. The centre of the chest
  2. The diaphragm
  3. The pelvis
  4. The stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.14) The chain of survival is a four-step process that can help save the lives of victims of:
  1. cardiac arrest
  2. diabetic coma
  3. massive blood loss
  4. stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.15) Universal precautions apply to which type of hazard?
  1. Bloodborne pathogens
  2. Dangerous chemicals
  3. Environmental hazards
  4. Radiation
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.16) Gases under pressure have a pictogram of:
  1. a flame
  2. a flame over a circle
  3. a gas cylinder
  4. an exploding test tube
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.17) Which of these items is NOT found in biohazard spill kits?
  1. Autoclavable waste bags
  2. Disinfectant
  3. Petri dishes
  4. Safety goggles
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.18) What is the first step when cleaning up a blood spill?
  1. Make a note in the incident logbook
  2. Pour disinfectant onto the spill
  3. Put on PPE
  4. Soak up the spill with paper towels
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.19) Autoclave tape changes colour when:
  1. organisms have been killed
  2. sterilization has taken place
  3. the autoclave is nearing the end of its warranty
  4. the autoclave reaches a specific temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.20) Which item of lab equipment uses high-speed rotation in a closed chamber?
  1. Centrifuge
  2. Evaporator
  3. Hot plate
  4. Shaker
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.21) Biological safety cabinets should be tested at least every:
  1. 1 year
  2. 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. 4 years
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 1.22) Before turning on a centrifuge, make sure:
  1. all liquid specimen tubes are uncovered
  2. the centrifuge is balanced
  3. the centrifuge is on a slanted surface
  4. the cover is open
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 2: Data and Specimen Collection and Handling

2.1) For venipuncture, tourniquets should be:
  1. applied very tightly to the arm
  2. left on the arm for at least three minutes
  3. tight enough to slow arterial flow
  4. tight enough to slow venous flow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.2) What is the most common antiseptic used to disinfect the site before venipuncture?
  1. 70% isopropyl alcohol
  2. Betadine
  3. EMLA
  4. Iodine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.3) What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?
  1. A deep hematoma may form
  2. The needle may enter above the vein
  3. The needle may go completely through the vein
  4. The needle may go through the posterior wall of the vein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.4) In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?
  1. Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
  2. Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
  3. Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
  4. Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.5) Which of these is a sign of a needle puncturing an artery during venipuncture?
  1. Blood spurting into the tube
  2. Breathing difficulties
  3. Dark blue blood
  4. Intense pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.6) What causes reflux during venipuncture?
  1. Filling the stopper end of the tube first
  2. Probing with the needle
  3. Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
  4. Using the wrong order of draw
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.7) When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen?
  1. A needle stick injury
  2. Adulteration of the specimen
  3. Bacterial contamination
  4. Hemolysis of the specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.8) What is the angle of insertion for venipuncture?
  1. 15−30 degrees
  2. 30−45 degrees
  3. 45−60 degrees
  4. 60−75 degrees
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.9) Sodium heparin should be avoided for which of these tests?
  1. Electrolyte panel
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Lithium levels
  4. pH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.10) For which test are Westergren tubes used?
  1. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
  2. Hematocrit
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Reticulocyte count
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.11) Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?
  1. Green
  2. Grey
  3. Red
  4. SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.12) Some royal blue top tubes contain _____________ as an anticoagulant.
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. sodium citrate
  4. sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.13) Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate?
  1. Grey
  2. Light blue
  3. Pink
  4. Red (glass)
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.14) What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?
  1. Black
  2. Green
  3. Grey
  4. Light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.15) Which additive do pink top vacutainer tubes contain?
  1. Potassium EDTA
  2. Potassium oxalate
  3. Sodium citrate
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.16) Which vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?
  1. Green
  2. Grey
  3. Light blue
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.17) Black top vacutainer tubes contain which anticoagulant?
  1. EDTA
  2. Sodium citrate
  3. Sodium fluoride
  4. Sodium heparin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.18) Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amber-coloured tubes?
  1. To flag it as a capillary specimen
  2. To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
  3. To protect the specimen from light
  4. To reduce the risk of hemolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.19) PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:
  1. EDTA
  2. lithium heparin
  3. silica
  4. sodium citrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.20) Which of these would be the best choice of equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?
  1. A 21-gauge needle and ETS holder
  2. A 21-gauge needle and syringe
  3. A 23-gauge butterfly and ETS holder
  4. A 27-gauge butterfly and syringe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.21) What is the standard needle size for collecting a blood sample from an adult's forearm vein?
  1. 15-gauge
  2. 18-gauge
  3. 21-gauge
  4. 24-gauge
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.22) What is this device?
  1. Microtainer tube
  2. Multi-sample blood collection needle
  3. Safety trainer device
  4. Winged infusion set
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.23) What is a neutrophil?
  1. A bacteria that prefers a neutral (pH 7) environment
  2. A type of coagulation factor in the blood
  3. A type of white blood cell
  4. An atom with more neutrons than electrons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.24) What is thiamine?
  1. A respiratory stimulant
  2. A vitamin
  3. An amino acid
  4. An antibiotic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.25) A thrombus is a:
  1. instrument for measuring blood pressure
  2. moving foreign body in the bloodstream
  3. type of blood clot
  4. type of needle for aspirating pleural fluid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.26) What is phagocytosis?
  1. An abnormally high number of phagocytes in the blood
  2. An autoimmune disease where phagocytes attack the body's own cells
  3. The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material
  4. The process by which phagocytes move
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.27) What is the term for the contraction phase of the heartbeat?
  1. Diastole
  2. Septum
  3. Systole
  4. Tachycardia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.28) What is the medical term for high blood pressure?
  1. Hyperalbuminemia
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hyperplasia
  4. Hypertension
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.29) Which term of position literally means "toward the tail" and describes a position below another part of the body?
  1. Caudal
  2. Cephalic
  3. Distal
  4. Dorsal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.30) What is the term for movement away from the midline of the body?
  1. Abduction
  2. Adduction
  3. Inversion
  4. Retrusion
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.31) What does the suffix -poesis mean?
  1. Dilation
  2. Falling
  3. Production
  4. Softening
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.32) XDP stands for:
  1. cross draw procedure
  2. extraneous draw procedure
  3. serum crosslinked fibrin
  4. xerostomia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.33) What is hematuria?
  1. A skin rash
  2. Bacteria in the bloodstream
  3. Blood in the urine
  4. Kidney stones
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.34) What are the two main types of angina?
  1. Acute and chronic
  2. Slow and rapid
  3. Stable and unstable
  4. Venous and arterial
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.35) Type 1 diabetes:
  1. arises during pregnancy
  2. can be cured
  3. is an autoimmune disease
  4. is the most common form of diabetes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.36) In which disease is the body unable to use glucose for energy?
  1. Diabetes
  2. Hyperglycemia
  3. Hypoglycemia
  4. Stroke
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.37) What are the three types of muscle tissue?
  1. Cardiac, smooth, and skeletal
  2. Internal, external and connectors
  3. Peripheral, central and core
  4. Protractors, retractors and reactors
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.38) When a muscle contracts, it:
  1. lengthens and pulls a bone
  2. lengthens and pushes a bone
  3. shortens and pulls a bone
  4. shortens and pushes a bone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.39) Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?
  1. Parathyroids
  2. Pituitary
  3. Testes
  4. Thyroid
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.40) Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?
  1. Brain
  2. Pancreas
  3. Spleen
  4. Stomach
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.41) Which tubes connect the kidney and the bladder?
  1. Bile ducts
  2. Eustachian tubes
  3. Ureters
  4. Urethras
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.42) What colour is bilirubin?
  1. Blue
  2. Red
  3. White
  4. Yellow
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.43) Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down:
  1. fat
  2. protein
  3. starch
  4. sugars
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.44) The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum and:
  1. cecum
  2. colon
  3. ileum
  4. rectum
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.45) Which process converts glucose to energy?
  1. Gluconeogenesis
  2. Glycogenesis
  3. Glycogenolysis
  4. Glycolysis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.46) The central nervous system includes the:
  1. brain and spinal cord
  2. heart
  3. somatic nerves
  4. spinal nerves
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.47) What is the heart's primary pacemaker?
  1. Bundle branches
  2. Bundle of His
  3. Purkinje fibers
  4. SA node
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.48) Ribosomes are involved with:
  1. active transport
  2. energy production
  3. fluid balance
  4. protein synthesis
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.49) Which organ system does the kidney belong to?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.50) Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs?
  1. Circulatory
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Respiratory
  4. Skeletal
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.51) Which organ system releases hormones?
  1. Digestive
  2. Endocrine
  3. Reproductive
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.52) Which organ system transports oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the body's cells?
  1. Cardiovascular
  2. Digestive
  3. Endocrine
  4. Respiratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.53) The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Nervous
  4. Reproductive
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.54) Addison's disease, Graves' disease, and Hashimoto's disease are all diseases of which body system?
  1. Digestive
  2. Endocrine
  3. Immune
  4. Respiratory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.55) Which of these is a function of the integumentary system?
  1. Digestion of food
  2. Filtration of blood
  3. Production of red blood cells
  4. Regulation of body temperature
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.56) Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections?
  1. Endocrine
  2. Lymphatic
  3. Reticuloendothelial
  4. Urinary
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.57) Which two DNA bases are called purine bases?
  1. Adenine and cytosine
  2. Adenine and guanine
  3. Thymine and cytosine
  4. Thymine and guanine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.58) Jaundice is the medical term for:
  1. inflammation
  2. liver disease
  3. skin disease
  4. yellow skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.59) What is the primary structure of proteins?
  1. The configuration of alpha-helices
  2. The presence of disulfide bridges
  3. The sequence of amino acids
  4. The spatial arrangement of protein subunits
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.60) The simplest form of carbohydrate is called a:
  1. free fatty acid
  2. glycerol molecule
  3. monosaccharide
  4. nucleotide
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.61) Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?
  1. Bone
  2. Fat
  3. Muscle
  4. Skin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.62) Which pipette is the most accurate?
  1. Bulb
  2. Graduated
  3. Pasteur
  4. Volumetric
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.63) What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?
  1. Facultative aerobe
  2. Microaerophile
  3. Reduced aerobe
  4. Secondary aerobe
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.64) Which of these health problems can cause occult blood in feces?
  1. A bleeding ulcer
  2. Heart disease
  3. Hypertension
  4. Malignancy of the respiratory tract
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.65) When whole blood is centrifuged in a grey top tube, what does it separate into?
  1. Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
  2. Plasma, clot, and red blood cells
  3. Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
  4. Serum, clot, and red blood cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.66) Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively from a venipuncture site?
  1. A herbal medicine
  2. An anticoagulant
  3. Birth control pills
  4. Medicine for high cholesterol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.67) Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:
  1. SAF fixative
  2. agar
  3. saline
  4. sodium hypochlorite
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.68) The sweat test diagnoses which disease?
  1. Cystic fibrosis
  2. Infection
  3. Muscular dystrophy
  4. Pneumonia
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.69) Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?
  1. Adrenocorticotropic hormone
  2. Estrogen
  3. Human chorionic gonadotropin
  4. Progesterone
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.70) Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?
  1. Fish
  2. Popcorn
  3. Red meat
  4. Whole wheat bread
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.71) Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true?
  1. The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
  2. The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
  3. The specimen is tested within 24 hours
  4. The test requires an arterial sample
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.72) Which of these is a patient identifier?
  1. Date of collection
  2. Patient name
  3. Specimen type
  4. Time of collection
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.73) What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?
  1. Blood
  2. Sputum
  3. Stool
  4. Urine
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.74) Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.
  1. A preservative may be used for some tests
  2. Collections during the night are discarded
  3. Testing is done in clinical chemistry
  4. The first timed specimen is discarded
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.75) Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:
  1. bacteria
  2. glucose
  3. occult blood
  4. protein
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.76) What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests?
  1. Chlorhexidine
  2. HCl
  3. NaHCO₃
  4. No preservative
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.77) Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?
  1. Blood culture
  2. Cardiac enzymes
  3. Complete blood count
  4. Glucose
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.78) A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:
  1. one blood sample
  2. one urine sample
  3. two or more blood samples
  4. two or more urine samples
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.79) You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You draw the fasting specimen at 8:15 am. You give the glucose drink to the patient at 8:27 am. The patient finishes the glucose drink at 8:30 am. When should you collect the 2-hour specimen?
  1. 10:15 am
  2. 10:22 am
  3. 10:27 am
  4. 10:30 am
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.80) Why should capillary puncture never be performed on an infant’s finger?
  1. It could cause excessive blood loss
  2. It could damage bones and nerves
  3. The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
  4. The infant may move their finger during the puncture
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.81) Why are finger punctures made at right angles to fingerprint striations?
  1. To facilitate blood sample collection
  2. To prevent excessive bleeding
  3. To prevent scar formation
  4. To reduce pain
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.82) Which of these tests would be collected first during a single capillary puncture?
  1. Complete blood count
  2. Electrolytes
  3. Glucose
  4. Phosphorus
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.83) Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?
  1. To avoid puncturing a vein
  2. To prevent bacterial contamination
  3. To prevent bone injury
  4. To prevent excessive bleeding
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.84) Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?
  1. a
  2. b
  3. c
  4. d
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.85) After a semen sample is collected, within how many hours must it be tested?
  1. 1 hour
  2. 6 hours
  3. 12 hours
  4. 24 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.86) Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:
  1. discarded
  2. frozen
  3. left at room temperature
  4. refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.87) What does label this mean when shipping hazardous substances?
  1. The goods are being shipped in a limited quantity
  2. The goods are categorized as a miscellaneous hazard
  3. The hazards of the goods are unknown
  4. The material inside is fragile
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.88) What type of tissue is blood?
  1. Connective
  2. Epithelial
  3. Muscular
  4. Nervous
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.89) Red blood cells are also known as:
  1. eosinophils
  2. erythrocytes
  3. monocytes
  4. thrombocytes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.90) Which cell is most likely to kill viruses and cancer cells?
  1. Cytotoxic T cell
  2. Killer B cell
  3. Plasma cell
  4. Suppressor B cell
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.91) Which medical term means a normal body temperature?
  1. Afebrile
  2. Febrile
  3. Hyperpyrexic
  4. Hypopyrexic
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 2.92) Which of these tests indicates the health of the kidneys?
  1. ALT
  2. Bilirubin
  3. Creatinine clearance
  4. TSH
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 3: Pre-analytical Procedures

3.1) A laboratory has an autoclave rule stating "Do not fill containers more than half full with liquids". If a lab technician has to prepare 220 ml of media for autoclaving, which of these volume containers would comply with the rule?
  1. 100 mL
  2. 300 mL
  3. 400 mL
  4. 500 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.2) Which glassware is used to measure 24-hour urine volumes?
  1. Beaker
  2. Erlenmeyer flask
  3. Graduated cylinder
  4. Volumetric flask
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.3) Buffered commercial formalin is approximately ____ formaldehyde gas by weight/volume.
  1. 4%
  2. 10%
  3. 40%
  4. 70%
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.4) Which clearing agent does NOT make tissues transparent/translucent?
  1. Benzene
  2. Cedarwood oil
  3. Chloroform
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.5) Why do clearing agents need to be miscible with alcohol?
  1. So they can dehydrate tissues completely
  2. So they can remove dehydrating agents from tissues
  3. To prevent damage to the clearing agent
  4. To prevent damage to the tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.6) What happens if tissue is left in xylene for more than three hours?
  1. The tissue becomes a milky colour
  2. The tissue becomes brittle
  3. The tissue becomes red
  4. The tissue swells in size
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.7) What is the purpose of tissue infiltration?
  1. To give structural support to the tissue
  2. To keep the cells alive
  3. To rehydrate the tissue
  4. To remove bacteria from the tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.8) Infiltration is the:
  1. permeation of tissue with ethanol
  2. permeation of tissue with wax
  3. removal of calcium from tissue
  4. removal of water from tissue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.9) Which freezing technique is the coldest?
  1. Aerosol sprays
  2. Carbon dioxide gas
  3. Carbon dioxide ‘cardice'
  4. Liquefied nitrogen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.10) What is the most common type of microtome in laboratories?
  1. Cryostat
  2. Rotary microtome
  3. Sledge microtome
  4. Ultramicrotome
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.11) Which Gram stain reagent acts as a mordant to bind the stain to the bacteria?
  1. Acetone
  2. Ethanol
  3. Iodine
  4. Safranin
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.12) Which element does Perls Prussian blue detect?
  1. Iron
  2. Lead
  3. Mercury
  4. Potassium
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.13) Which stain detects amyloids?
  1. Biebrich scarlet
  2. Congo red
  3. Eosin
  4. Xylidine ponceau
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.14) When a smear is too red, neutrophil granules look:
  1. blue-red
  2. brilliant red
  3. indistinct
  4. light blue
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.15) Which of these could cause stain precipitation?
  1. Excessive buffer
  2. Excessive humidity in the air
  3. Insufficient staining time
  4. Use of aged staining solutions
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.16) What does the H&E staining method use as a dewaxing agent?
  1. Eosin
  2. Formalin
  3. Hematoxylin
  4. Xylene
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.17) What is the correct order of reagents in Gram staining?
  1. Crystal violet, iodine, acetone-alcohol, safranin
  2. Crystal violet, safranin, acetone-alcohol, iodine
  3. Iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol, safranin
  4. Safranin, iodine, crystal violet, acetone-alcohol
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.18) Which of these dyes is alkaline?
  1. Acid fuchsin
  2. Carbol fuchsin
  3. Eosin
  4. Orange G
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.19) What colour is hematoxylin?
  1. Blue-purple
  2. Orange
  3. Pink-purple
  4. Red
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.20) What is the usual temperature for an incubator used for culture and sensitivity?
  1. 15–17°C
  2. 25–27°C
  3. 35–37°C
  4. 45–47°C
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.21) Which of these are found in all agar media?
  1. Distilled water and electrolytes
  2. Gelatin and sugar
  3. Vitamins and blood
  4. pH indicators and gelling properties
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.22) After Gram staining, what colour are gram-negative organisms?
  1. Dark blue
  2. Light blue
  3. Purple or brown
  4. Red or pink
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.23) Identify the false statement about plating bacteria.
  1. The Petri lid is placed upright on the bench to prevent contamination
  2. The loop is sterilized before inoculation
  3. The media is brought to room temperature before use
  4. The media selected depends on the type of specimen
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.24) What is the term for bacterial cells used to start a new culture on a streak plate?
  1. Colonies
  2. Inoculum
  3. Prime culture
  4. T cells
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.25) When a quadrant streak plate is streaked correctly, which quadrant has the most cells?
  1. Quadrant 1
  2. Quadrant 2
  3. Quadrant 3
  4. Quadrant 4
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.26) A lab technician streaks an agar plate with a pure culture of bacteria. However, the next day, the lab technician observes a contaminant growing along the streak lines of the plate. Which of these could be the cause of the contamination?
  1. The agar medium was contaminated
  2. The culture was contaminated
  3. The loop was flamed too many times
  4. The plate was exposed to airborne contaminants
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.27) Which kind of centrifuge has good cellular morphology preservation?
  1. Angle head
  2. Cytocentrifuge
  3. Microhematocrit
  4. Refrigerated
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.28) Which of these could cause a thick blood smear?
  1. Holding the spreader at a very high angle
  2. Spreading the blood too quickly
  3. Using a drop of blood that is too small
  4. Using blood with clots in it
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.29) Which of these is a sign of a poorly prepared blood smear?
  1. Covers the majority of the slide
  2. Fills half to three-quarters the length of the slide
  3. Has a consistent thickness throughout
  4. Has feathered edges
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.30) Which stain differentiates types of blood cells?
  1. Gram
  2. H&E
  3. Papanicolaou
  4. Romanowsky
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.31) A doctor orders a blood smear for malaria. After collecting an EDTA blood specimen from the patient, the lab technician should prepare the blood smear within:
  1. 10 minutes
  2. 1 hour
  3. 6 hours
  4. 12 hours
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 3.32) When preparing a urine specimen for microscopic analysis, which of these steps comes first?
  1. Add one drop of stain to the tube
  2. Centrifuge the urine sample
  3. Place a coverslip over the sample
  4. Transfer one drop of the sediment to a microscope slide
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Section 4: Reagent Preparation

4.1) A lab technician is making a solution by combining 3 parts of a solute with 7 parts of water. How many millilitres of the solute and water are needed to make 100 mL of the solution?
  1. 7 mL of solute and 3 mL of water
  2. 10 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
  3. 30 mL of solute and 70 mL of water
  4. 70 mL of solute and 30 mL of water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.2) If a dilution ratio of 7:10 is used to make an acetic acid solution and the final volume of the solution is 950 mL, what is the volume of the solute?
  1. 58 mL
  2. 101 mL
  3. 391 mL
  4. 559 mL
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.3) What is one part chemical to five parts water expressed as a dilution factor?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.4) How many millilitres of an 80% acetic acid solution is needed to make 2 litres of a 10% acetic acid solution?
  1. 20
  2. 50
  3. 100
  4. 250
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.5) A lab assistant has just finished washing an item of glassware with water when the supervisor comes over and says she needs the glassware right away. To dry the glassware quickly, the lab assistant should rinse it with:
  1. acetic acid
  2. acetone
  3. hydrogen peroxide
  4. sodium nitrate
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.6) What type of water does an autoclave use?
  1. Distilled water
  2. Mineral water
  3. Saltwater
  4. Tap water
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.7) Which type of glass is autoclavable?
  1. Borosilicate
  2. Float
  3. Lead
  4. Soda-lime
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 4.8) Which pH buffer solution is typically used first when calibrating a pH meter?
  1. pH 1
  2. pH 4
  3. pH 7
  4. pH 10
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Section 5: Communication and Interaction

5.1) When drawing blood from a frightened child, you should:
  1. explain the procedure to the child in simple terms
  2. say nothing to the child and just perform the procedure
  3. tell the child that the needle won't hurt
  4. tell the child to be brave
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.2) What can be predicted when a team is highly cohesive?
  1. High member satisfaction
  2. High-performance results
  3. Positive performance norms
  4. Status congruity
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.3) When you are actively listening, where should you look?
  1. At the clock
  2. At the person speaking
  3. At the work in front of you
  4. At your notes
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.4) When talking to children, use:
  1. abbreviations
  2. jargon
  3. simple words
  4. technical language
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 5.5) A member of the clergy is with a patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do?
  1. Ask the patient's nurse what you should do
  2. Come back after the clergy member has gone
  3. Fill out a form saying you were unable to collect the specimen
  4. Interrupt and explain you need to collect a specimen from the patient
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Section 6: Quality Management

6.1) A control has a mean of 2.8 with a standard deviation of 0.3. This means 68% of the values should fall within a range of:
  1. 2.0−3.1
  2. 2.2−3.4
  3. 2.3−3.3
  4. 2.5−3.1
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.2) A hematology analyzer has produced results inconsistent with a patient's symptoms. What would be the most appropriate action to take first?
  1. Check that the test was run correctly
  2. Inform the physician about the results
  3. Report the results but with a note about the inconsistency
  4. Request a new sample from the patient
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.3) Which quality management method is also known as the Deming cycle?
  1. Kaizen
  2. Lean
  3. Plan-Do-Check-Act
  4. Six Sigma
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.4) The process of checking and rectifying the precision and accuracy of a measuring instrument is called:
  1. calibration
  2. estimation
  3. graduation
  4. mensuration
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.5) What does the following formula calculate? (Maximum daily usage x Maximum lead time) – (Average daily usage x Average lead time)
  1. Economic order quantity
  2. Inventory turnover ratio
  3. Reorder point
  4. Safety stock
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.6) A laboratory receives inventory items as close as possible to when needed. Which inventory system is the laboratory using?
  1. Just-in-time
  2. Min-max
  3. Periodic inventory
  4. Perpetual inventory
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 6.7) How many Quality System Essentials (QSE) are there?
  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 16
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Section 7: Professional Practice

7.1) A patient asks a lab assistant for test results. What should the lab assistant do?
  1. Agree to call the patient at home
  2. Give the results to the patient
  3. Let the patient check their results on the lab computer
  4. Refer the request to the supervisor
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.2) The statement "All tests performed should serve the patient's interests" exemplifies which ethical principle?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Respect for persons
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.3) What are the four pillars of medical ethics?
  1. Beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, autonomy
  2. Dignity, privacy, compassion, accountability
  3. Professionalism, consequentialism, trust, responsibility
  4. Professionalism, sensitivity, integrity, confidentiality
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.4) What is the justice pillar of medical ethics?
  1. The duty to do good
  2. The duty to not harm the patient
  3. The respect for the patient’s right to self-determination
  4. The treatment of all people equally and equitably
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.5) Under which ethical principle do phlebotomists have a duty to obtain consent from patients before drawing blood?
  1. Autonomy
  2. Beneficence
  3. Justice
  4. Nonmaleficence
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.6) Medicare is:
  1. Canada's national health insurance program
  2. a private insurance system
  3. a regulating organization
  4. a representative of health professionals
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.7) The accessibility principle of the Canada Health Act states:
  1. Canadians must have reasonable access to healthcare facilities
  2. a Canadian who moves to a different province is still entitled to coverage
  3. all printed health materials must be made accessible in Braille
  4. anyone in Canada can register for free healthcare, regardless of immigration status
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.8) What is the national professional society for Canada's medical laboratory professionals?
  1. ASCLS
  2. CMLTO
  3. CSMLS
  4. MLPAO
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 7.9) The Canadian Society for Medical Laboratory Science (CSMLS) is funded by:
  1. health organizations
  2. membership dues
  3. private businesses
  4. the government
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

Section 8: Critical Thinking

8.1) According to Eisenhower's "Urgent/Important" Principle, which of these four tasks has the second-highest priority?
  1. A high urgency, high importance task
  2. A high urgency, low importance task
  3. A low urgency, high importance task
  4. A low urgency, low importance task
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.2) A phlebotomist is performing venipuncture on a difficult vein using a butterfly. The phlebotomist has to collect an SST and a light blue top tube. How should the phlebotomist proceed?
  1. Collect the SST first then the light blue tube
  2. Collect the light blue tube first then the SST
  3. Draw a clear tube first, then collect the light blue tube, then collect the SST
  4. Draw half of the SST first, then collect the light blue tube, then finish the SST
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.3) A phlebotomist has finished drawing blood into a light blue top tube. However, the blood in the tube is below the minimum line. The phlebotomist should:
  1. add a little blood from another tube
  2. fill another light blue top tube partly full and mix the two tubes
  3. repeat the procedure with a new light blue top
  4. submit the tube for testing as usual
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.4) If a patient is having blood drawn for a prothrombin time test, you might expect:
  1. the patient to be fasting
  2. the patient to bleed for a long time
  3. to have difficulty filling the tube
  4. to have to mix the tube more
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them. 8.5) A phlebotomist has mixed up two specimens. What should the phlebotomist do?
  1. Ask the nurse to identify the specimen
  2. Ask the patients which one is theirs
  3. Continue regardless
  4. Retake both specimens
Answers are locked. Please click here to buy them.

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